Canada’s Regulatory Environment and Risks Faced by Investment Dealers 13% Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary sources of rules?

A

In Canada, provincial securities commissions (or equivalent) and SROs are the primary sources of the rules governing the industry. These organizations impose rules and restrictions to ensure market integrity, protect investors, and promote a fair and efficient securities marketplace. Rules are not always consistent among regulators and provincial SROs or across provincial jurisdictions. A basic principle of regulation is that, when two or more regulations conflict, it is the strictest standard that applies.
Laws contained in other federal and provincial statutes also apply to the securities industry. These laws include the Criminal Code and legislation regarding money laundering, terrorist financing, privacy, corporate law, and bankruptcy and insolvency. Principles developed from both criminal and civil case law also apply to the industry.
In comparison to a rule-based approach to regulation (also called prescriptive regulation or an objective standard), the Canadian securities industry leans more toward a principle-based model. Under the principle-based approach, the regulators set objectives for IIROC dealer members but allow the firms themselves to decide how best to meet those objectives. Less costly. Principle-based regulation requires careful analysis and monitoring.

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2
Q

IROC is the national self-regulatory organization overseeing all of its dealer members and all trading activity on equity and debt marketplaces in Canada.

A

responsible for enforcing the rules regarding sales, business, and financial practices and them trading activities of individuals and dealer members under its jurisdiction. It also interprets existing rules, develops recommendations to amend them, and establishes new rules. IIROC performs market surveillance and regulates dealer member and market compliance (specifically business conduct, financial compliance, and trade review and analysis). Securities commissions can also delegate certain functions to IIROC, including the registration of individuals. However, IIROC and the securities commissions have different mandates. Securities commissions enforce the securities legislation within a particular province or territory and have jurisdiction over any person or entity acting in their jurisdiction. IIROC’s regulation is limited to its own dealer members. In most provinces IIROC has the ability
to enforce the fines, penalties and costs that it imposes through disciplinary hearings directly against registrants whether they continue to be registered with IIROC or not.

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3
Q

What is the UMIR?

A

UMIR is a standard set of rules that generally apply to equity trading on all Canadian marketplaces to promote
fair and orderly markets. To ensure compliance with UMIR, IIROC monitors real-time trading operations and market- related activities. IIROC also investigates alleged UMIR violations and administers any settlements and hearings arising from such violations.

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4
Q

What isThe Investment Industry Association of Canada (IIAC)?

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The Investment Industry Association of Canada (IIAC) is a member-based advocacy association that advances the growth and development of the Canadian investment industry. It is not a regulatory body. IIAC represents the interests of the investment industry for all market participants. Its members range in size from small, regional firms to large organizations that employ thousands of people across the country.

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5
Q

What is the Canadian Investor Protection Fund (CIPF)?

A

The Canadian Investor Protection Fund (CIPF) compensates clients for losses arising when an IIROC dealer member becomes insolvent and cannot return client cash or securities. It does not cover clients’ losses resulting from changing market values, unsuitable investments, or the default of an issuer of securities.
Although CIPF is not an SRO, it is an important part of the SRO structure. It is funded by IIROC through payments based on quarterly assessments of gross revenues, risk premiums based on capital deficiencies, and an annual contribution from IIROC of the interest allocated to it in the prior year. CIPF also provides policy input on the rules regarding issues such as margin that may affect the capital adequacy of IIROC dealer members.
Clients should be aware that CIPF does not always compensate them for all their losses. Clients of IIROC dealer members are entitled to a maximum coverage of $1,000,000 for each account. A client’s general accounts, such
as cash, margin, short sale, options, futures, and foreign currency, are combined and treated as one account. In addition, the proportionate interest in a client’s account that is held jointly or on a shared-ownership basis is
combined with the client’s general account. Accounts categorized as separate accounts, such as trusts and registered accounts, are treated as if they belong to separate clients, and each separate account is entitled to the maximum coverage. Separate accounts of a similar type are grouped as a single, separate account that qualifies as a whole for the maximum coverage. For example, all registered retirement accounts belonging to a single client through the same or a different trustee are combined and aggregated as a single separate account.

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6
Q

Each province and territory has legislation to regulate the primary and secondary distribution of securities and to protect the buyers and sellers of securities.

A

The legislation regulates matters such as registration of dealers and individuals, raising capital, issuer disclosure, proxy solicitation, takeover bids, and improper conduct such as insider trading. It also establishes the provincial and territorial securities commissions and provides their decision-making
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and enforcement powers. In most provinces, securities legislation also covers commodity futures. Ontario and Manitoba have separate commodities legislation, and Quebec has separate legislation governing financial planning.
Although there is currently no single federal body in Canada responsible for securities regulation, the commissions,
also known as administrators, from the 10 provinces and three territories have formed a joint panel known as the Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA). The CSA coordinates and harmonizes regulation of the Canadian capital markets. It operates informally through regular meetings of its presiding officers on issues of shared concern, joint technology projects, and policy committees or working groups.
The CSA’s main shared systems are described below:
* The System for Electronic Document Analysis and Retrieval (SEDAR) is used for electronic filings by most public companies and mutual funds.
* The System for Electronic Disclosure by Insiders (SEDI) is an online system for filing and viewing insider trading reports required under provincial securities regulation.
* The National Cease Trade Order (CTO) database provides subscribers with a directory of existing orders and with near-real-time email notification of new CTOs from participating jurisdictions.
* The National Registration Database receives individual registration and IIROC approval applications, notices of termination, and changes of registration information.
CSA’s efforts to harmonize provincial regulations have led to the establishment of two types of instruments:
* National Instruments (NI) have been adopted by all provinces, but they may contain exceptions if one or more provinces retain slight regulatory differences.
* Multilateral Instruments (MI) have been adopted by some provinces only, as identified in the instrument

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7
Q

The corporate affairs of a company in Canada

A

are primarily regulated by the statute under which the company is incorporated. Companies can be incorporated federally under the Canada Business Corporations Act (CBCA) or provincially under various legislations, such as Alberta’s Business Corporations Act or Nova Scotia’s Companies Act.

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8
Q

IIROC and FINRA

A

exchange information on compliance and enforcement-related matters and work together on issues related to firm oversight and examinations.

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9
Q

The International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO)

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is made up of securities regulators from around the world. It does not implement securities legislation, but rather facilitates international communication and harmonization of securities legislation

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10
Q

Formed in 1919, the North American Securities Administrators’ Association (NASAA)

A

is an association of securities administrators from the United States, Canada, Mexico, and Puerto Rico. Its mission is to protect investors who purchase securities or receive investment advice and is the voice of the 50 state regulators. NASAA promotes harmonization of state laws, educates the public regarding investment fraud, participates in multi-jurisdictional enforcement actions and information sharing, and implements annual training for member organizations.

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11
Q

The World Federation of Exchanges (WFE)

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is a trade organization for regulated securities and derivatives markets worldwide. WFE promotes development and sets business standards for national and international financial markets.

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12
Q

The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF)

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was established by the G-7 countries in 1989. It is
an intergovernmental body comprised of over 30 member countries (including Canada) and two international organizations. FATF develops and promotes policies to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. It aims to establish international standards to improve national legal systems and strengthen international cooperation in the fight against money laundering and terrorist financing.

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13
Q

The Financial Stability Board (FSB)

A

was established in April 2009 as the successor to the Financial Stability Forum. In general terms, the FSB has the following mandate:
* Coordinate at the international level the work of national financial authorities and international standard setting bodies.
* Develop and promote the implementation of effective regulatory, supervisory, and other financial sector policies.
* Promote international financial stability.
Membership in the FSB includes government representatives as well as other international bodies

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14
Q

THE OFFICE OF THE SUPERINTENDENT OF FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS

A

OSFI is the primary regulator of federally regulated financial institutions. Its scope includes banks, federally incorporated or registered trust and loan companies, insurance companies, cooperative credit associations, fraternal benefit societies, and federally administered pension plans. It also provides actuarial advice to the Government of Canada and reviews certain provincially chartered financial institutions

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15
Q

THE FINANCIAL TRANSACTIONS AND REPORTS ANALYSIS CENTRE OF CANADA
FINTRAC

A

is an independent agency at arm’s length from law enforcement agencies. It reports to the federal Minister of Finance. Its mandate is to detect money laundering and terrorist financing activities and to assist law enforcement agencies in deterring them. FINTRAC receives reports filed under PCMLTFA regulations regarding large cash transactions, cross-border movement of funds, and suspicious transactions.
FINTRAC can also conduct audits of financial institutions’ compliance with PCMLTFA regulations, including audits of compliance by dealer members. It can also refer noncompliance to law enforcement agencies for investigation and prosecution. IIROC usually conducts these audits and provides FINTRAC with the results under an MOU.
FINTRAC has legislative authority to issue an administrative monetary penalty of up to $500,000 to reporting entities that are in noncompliance with PCMLTFA.

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16
Q

PIPEDA

A

PIPEDA applies when personal information crosses provincial borders, except in provinces with “substantially similar” legislation (i.e., Quebec, British Columbia, and Alberta). Dealers must comply with the privacy legislation applicable in the province where the client resides.

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17
Q

Criminal Code provisions that significantly affect securities matters

A
  • Insider trading is a criminal offence subject to a maximum of 10 years imprisonment.
  • It is against the law to threaten or retaliate against an employee who informs law enforcement of capital markets fraud or assists an investigation into such a crime. Whistleblower protection requires a maximum penalty of five years in jail for offenders.
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18
Q

In a criminal or Offence Act prosecution

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the Crown must prove, beyond a reasonable doubt, that the act occurred and that there was sufficient intent on the part of the defendant to attract criminal liability. This contrasts with administrative proceedings before a regulatory authority. In that case, the standard of proof is on a balance of probabilities and the person can be held liable not only if he or she “knew” about an offence, but also if he or she “ought to have known”.

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19
Q

IIROC rules for retail accounts

A

also require that an account suitability review be performed when certain trigger events occur. Trigger events include trades when they are accepted, recommendations when they are made, transfers or
deposits into an account, a material change in client circumstances, or any change in the account representative.

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20
Q

Fiduciary duty is imposed by common law, except in Quebec

A

Required elements for fiduciary duty are trust, confidence, and reliance on skill, knowledge, and advice. Whether a dealer-client relationship or a relationship between a client and a registrant is fiduciary depends on the client’s level of trust in, and reliance on, the dealer or registrant. Some courts have held that there is no fiduciary duty unless all of the elements are present, though duties may arise under contract and tort law.

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21
Q

In Quebec, the dealer-client relationship constitutes a contract of mandate, and the dealer member is considered a mandatary

A

As a mandatary, the dealer must exercise a duty of care similar to that of a fiduciary. However, although Quebec courts acknowledge the similarity between these concepts, fiduciary duty is not part of the civil law framework.

22
Q

Liability for misrepresentation also arises out of tort law

A

In an action for damages as a result of a misrepresentation, the client must prove that the dealer member intentionally provided misleading information that caused a loss to the client, when the client relied on that information. Most common are actions for failure to assess suitability and failure by the dealer to disclose all of the facts regarding an investment.

23
Q

The securities acts of Ontario, British Columbia, Manitoba, Alberta, Quebec, New Brunswick, Nova Scotia, and Saskatchewan contain provisions regarding misrepresentation

A

In those provinces, investors are not required to prove that they relied on misleading disclosure when buying or selling stock or other securities

24
Q

How are civil judgments involving a dealer member or an advisor disclosed?

A

Any civil judgment involving a dealer member or an advisor must be disclosed to IIROC through the Complaints and Settlement Reporting System (ComSet).

25
Q

A “significant area of risk” is any function, process, or activity within a dealer member in which a failure to mitigate or control risk could lead to material harm to the dealer member’s liquidity, solvency, operational capabilities, clients, client assets and other client positions.
Significant areas of risk include the following issues and activities, among others

A
  • Account opening
  • Account information and records * Account supervision
  • Client communications
  • Conflicts of interest
  • Dealer member records * Minimum capital levels
26
Q

A typical risk management process involves the following steps:

A
  1. Identify the general categories of risk to which the dealer member is susceptible.
  2. Identify, describe, and categorize risks specific to the dealer member or a particular department.
  3. Analyze the specific risks to identify their probability of occurrence and the likely nature and severity of the consequences.
  4. Grade the risks according to their level of importance.
  5. Prepare policies and procedures to manage each risk, which include recordkeeping requirements. 6. Assign each risk to the appropriate business unit leader.
  6. Assign business resources appropriate to each risk.
27
Q

External risk (also called environmental risk)

A

emerges from the environment in which the dealer member operates. This risk is influenced by the firm’s strategic fit with its external environment and by how effectively it responds to economic, political, and regulatory developments.

28
Q

Regulatory risk

A

is associated with a dealer member’s ability to understand, acknowledge, and comply with evolving regulatory requirements. The most significant regulatory risk arises from laws, rules, and regulations involving criminal or quasi-criminal conduct, including fraud, theft, money laundering, illegal insider trading, and market manipulation.

29
Q

emerging issue risk,

A

Another type of regulatory compliance risk arises from the introduction of new or changed regulatory standards. Often referred to as emerging issue risk, this type of risk usually arises from rapid change in the industry combined with product and process innovation

30
Q

Economic and political risk

A

emerges from changes in the global environment or in a dealer member’s national or regional environment.

31
Q

Inherent risk

A

is the pure risk intrinsic to the specific business of a dealer member, without considering the impact of any related internal controls, established policies and procedures, or risk management practices.

32
Q

Agent

A

In functioning solely as an intermediary, the dealer member assumes the lowest level of risk. The primary risks for an agent are suitability risk and credit risk during the settlement period.

33
Q

Principal

A

A dealer member acting as principal is exposed to the risk of changes in the market value of positions that are held in inventory to facilitate client transactions. It also bears a typically higher standard of legal responsibility to clients.

34
Q

Proprietary Trader

A

By trading securities for its own account to generate a profit, the dealer member assumes market, prepayment, hedging, credit, operations, and accounting risks.

35
Q

Manufacturer

A

The dealer member that is the originator of a financial product is subject to product liability. This role often also encompasses an ongoing management or administrative role.

36
Q

Client risk can be broadly grouped into two categories:

A
  1. The risk that the firm’s employees will act inappropriately at the expense of its clients 2. The risk that the firm’s clients will act inappropriately at the expense of the firm
37
Q

Strategic and tactical management risk

A

relates to the extent to which a dealer member can devise strategies for its business operations and then put those strategies into effect.

38
Q

Internal risk factors

A

relate to a dealer member’s ability to operate effectively and efficiently based on its resources and processes. The human, capital, and operating resources used to conduct business at a dealer member all give rise to associated risks.

39
Q

Key person reliance risk

A

arises when a dealer member relies too heavily on too few people to perform important functions or to generate revenue. CCOs should understand the compliance issues that might arise in if a key employee were to leave.

40
Q

Risk that involves systems and operational procedures

A

arises from a dealer member’s reliance on computer and information systems in the firm’s daily operations. It also arises from the possibility that systems are unable to
meet business needs, unreliable, or inappropriate given firm objectives, or are unavailable to adequately support operations. at risk are the custody of cash and securities transactions and the holdings in client and proprietary accounts. The risk is affected by inaccurate data or process failure in the flow of information and in decision-making processes. Operations risk is common to all components of the securities industry, although the degree of risk varies among business lines.

41
Q

Technology risk

A

has two components related to the existence and availability of information technology. First,
there is the risk that existing systems and functionality are inadequate to meet business needs. High risk might be reflected in a high level of human intervention and frequent or major system changes. Risk is mitigated by using established service providers and maintaining a strong internal technology development and support group.
The second risk related to technology involves the possibility that systems are not available because of a system or software outage or insufficient processing capacity. Technology may also be unavailable because of technical failure or cyber-attacks. Technology risk is typically managed in the context of a business continuity plan.

42
Q

Third-party performance risk

A

measures a dealer member’s exposure to failure or sub-standard contractual performance by suppliers. Assessment of this risk requires that CCOs look beyond contracts to the overall quality of service provided by third parties. cybersecurity incidents are reportable within 3 days of discovery of the incident and the dealer member is required to provide an investigation report to IIROC within30 days of discovery. This type of reporting requirement is similar to a dealer member’s requirement to report to the Privacy Commissioner of Canada in respect of data breaches. The elements of an effective cybersecurity program include preventive, detective, and corrective controls

43
Q

Plan and prepare

A

During this phase, a cybersecurity program is established and implemented. The governing framework is set, a team assembled, risk assessment completed, policies and procedures developed, and any other relevant action to get the program established is undertaken.

44
Q

Detect and report

A

Systems, both internal and external, are actively monitored for any anomalous activity. If something out of the ordinary is discovered to have occurred, the persons appointed to manage the issue are notified and will determine whether to take further action, if necessary.

45
Q

Assess and decide

A

Not every event reported will be serious and warrant further action. Criteria developed in the first phase is used to assess the true nature of the situation and a decision made as to further action.

46
Q

Respond

A

If the situation warrants, the incident response plan is put into action to effectively control and minimize damages.

47
Q

Review

A

A post-incident review is done to assess the effectiveness of the plan and to learn what can be improved on. Those improvements are then made to reduce risk in the future. It may be necessary to record or disclose information under various areas of legislation such as the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act or the Digital Privacy Act. Some dealer members share appropriate details with other firms in the industry to create a supportive network that can help prevent future incidents.

48
Q

One of a CCO’s primary responsibilities

A

is to establish and manage a supervisory system designed to comply with regulatory requirements. The appropriate size and structure of the system and the risk management techniques it uses depend on a dealer member’s size, structure, and type of business.

49
Q

three questions to assess the risk inherent in business activities:

A
  • Is the client being harmed, financially or otherwise?
  • Does the situation breach any laws, rules, or regulations?
  • Given my knowledge and experience, does the situation pass the “smell test”? In other words, does it feel morally acceptable?
50
Q

Unmanageable risks

A

are those risks that have been identified and analyzed in accordance with the framework articulated above, and that cannot be resolved with the allocation of resources by the dealer member. Such risks should be eliminated wherever possible.

51
Q

A dealer member’s management must set counterparty credit limits

A

including limits for various types of products and transactions. Detailed requirements governing credit practices for retail accounts must be in place. They should address issues relating to concentrated positions and liquidity, in addition to total margin loans. Procedures should be established to address under-margin positions.The following credit risk management policies and procedures for institutional accounts are also required:
* Approvals should be received before accounts are opened and credit ratings and limits reviewed.
* Procedures should exist to monitor the financial circumstances of acceptable counterparties and Acceptable Institutions, in particular to identify deteriorating credit. Procedures should exist to report and escalate the details of unsettled trades

52
Q

Fee-based products

A

managed and wrap accounts are increasingly popular. With this compensation method, advisors receive a portion of the periodic fees charged by their dealer member based on client assets under management. This method better aligns the interests of advisors and clients, but it can still invite inappropriate activity. For example, reverse churning, or “milking”, occurs when a fee-based account is recommended to a client who trades infrequently and may be better served by a traditional commission-based account. Advisors may also try to increase client assets by inappropriately or unsuitably leveraging their clients’ portfolios to increase their own fee-based compensation.