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Commercial Pilot > CA.I.G Operation of Systems > Flashcards

CA.I.G Operation of Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

What are your aircraft’s primary and secondary flight controls?

A

Primary: ailerons, rudder, elevator.
Secondary: flaps, trim.

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2
Q

How are the yoke and rudder pedals linked to their associated flight control surfaces?

A

Through cables, pulleys, bellcranks, and pushrods.

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3
Q

Explain aerodynamically, how an aileron causes the plane to roll?

A

The aileron that drops
increases the wing’s camber, thus increasing the speed of the airflow over the top of its wing and increasing lift.
Additionally, the chord line shifts slightly upward, resulting in an increased angle of attack.
The opposite wing’s aileron goes up, decreasing camber, decreasing lift.

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4
Q

What type of ailerons does your plane have?

A

Differential, frise.

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5
Q

Around what axis does the aircraft pitch?

A

Lateral Axis

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6
Q

Around what axis does the aircraft roll?

A

Longitudinal Axis.

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7
Q

Aerodynamically, how does the elevator cause the plane to pitch up?

A

Trailing edge deflects into the relative wind, pushing the tail of the aircraft down or up.

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8
Q

At slow airspeeds, would you expect your flight controls to be more or less effective?

A

Less, due to the reduced airflow over the control surfaces.

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9
Q

Does the 172 have a servo or anti-servo trim tab?

A

Servo, which
means the tab deflects in the opposite direction as the elevator’s movement in order to
increase control sensitivity, i.e., make the elevator more controllable. Anti-servo tabs are typically found on planes with stabilators.

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10
Q

Does your rudder have trim?

A

Yes, it has a ground-adjustable trim tab.

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11
Q

What kind of flaps does your aircraft have?

A

Electrically operated, single-slot type flaps.

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12
Q

Where is the flaps motor located?

A

In the right wing.

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13
Q

What are some of the purposes of flaps?

A

1) Produce more lift for any given angle of attack, permitting a lower landing speed.
2) Greater drag, permitting a steeper descent angle without airspeed increase,
3) Reduce the length of the landing roll.

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14
Q

What are the various functions of the engine?

A
  • Power to turn the prop.
  • Generates electrical power.
  • Vacuum source for instruments
  • Source of heat for
    the cabin.
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15
Q

Describe the engine on the C172S.

A
  • Lycoming IO-360-L2A
  • 4-cylinder
  • normally-aspirated
  • fuel-injected
  • 360 cubic inch
  • horizontally -opposed
  • air-cooled
  • direct-drive
  • 180 HP at 2700 RPM
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16
Q

What does horizontally opposed mean?

A

The layout of the cylinders - they horizontally oppose one another
with 2 cylinders on one side of the crankshaft, and 2 on the other.
Tend to be lighter, more compact, minimizing drag.

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17
Q

What does direct drive mean?

A

The propeller is directly connected to the crankshaft. If the engine is spinning at 1,000 RPM, the prop is spinning at
1,000 RPM.

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18
Q

Explain how a magneto works.

A

Inside a magneto there is a magnet, geared to the engine,
spinning rapidly in close proximity to a coil of copper wires. This generates and harnesses electricity for the spark plugs.

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19
Q

What causes fouled spark plugs?

A

Usually running the engine with the mixture full rich at
low RPM.
Lead and carbon don’t burn off completely and end up in the form of deposits of the plug heads.
Follow the checklist to run the engine hot and burn off the lead
and/or carbon deposits, then do the mag check again to verify smooth operation.

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20
Q

Describe each step of your engine’s air induction system.

A
  • Ram air enters intake on the lower front portion of the engine cowling.
  • Air filter removes dust and other foreign matter.
  • Air box equipped with a spring-loaded alternate air door. If filter is blocked, suction created by the engine will open the door and draw unfiltered air from inside the lower cowl
    area.
  • Enters fuel/air control unit under the engine, and is then ducted to the engine cylinders.

Once burned, the exhaust gas is ducted out through the exhaust pipe.

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21
Q

Approximately how much power loss should be expected when the engine operates off of unfiltered alternate air?

A

10%

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22
Q

What keeps your engine cool?

A
  • Air (Baffles, cooling fins)
  • Engine Oil
  • Fuel
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23
Q

How many strokes does your engine have?
Describe each one.

A

4 stroke.
Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust
*Suck, Squeeze, Bang, Blow :-)

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24
Q

List off the specs for your plane’s propeller.

A

McCauley aluminum two-bladed, fixed pitch, one-piece, 76-inch propeller.

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25
Q

Why is your propeller blade twisted?

A

This allows the blade to produce
uniform lift - or rather, thrust, because it’s directed forward - throughout its length.

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26
Q

What are the two types of fix pitched propellers?

A

Climb Prop: Lower pitch, higher RPM. Increased performance for TO and Climb, but less efficient at cruise.

Cruise Prop: High pitch. More efficient for cruise due to reduced RPM and lower fuel burn.

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27
Q

Which type of fixed pitch prop is on your C172?

A

Middle Pitch, which is a compromise of Climb and Cruise.

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28
Q

What kind of landing gear does your plane have?

A

Tricycle type, with a steerable nose wheel and two main wheels.
Shock absorption is provided by the tubular spring steel main landing gear struts and the air/oil nose gear shock (oleo) strut.

29
Q

Explain how the “Oleo” strut works on your nose gear.

A

During landing, when the tire hits the ground, the piston gets pushed up into the cylinder
above it, which contains compressed air or nitrogen. When the hydraulic fluid pushes against the air, it cushions the blow on the nose gear.

30
Q

How is the nose wheel linked to the rudder pedals?

A

Through a spring-loaded steering bungee.

31
Q

Up to how many degrees each side of center does your plane turn, with the rudder pedals as well as with differential braking?

A

10 degrees with the rudder
pedals alone, 30 degrees with differential braking.

32
Q

Describe your aircraft’s brake system.

A

Single-disc, hydraulically-actuated brake on each main landing gear wheel.
Each brake is connected by a hydraulic line to a master cylinder attached to each of the pilot’s brake pedals.

33
Q

What color is hydraulic fluid?

A

Light reddish color

34
Q

Explain the purpose of the engine oil systems?

A

1) Lubrication of the engine’s moving parts.
2) cooling of the engine by reducing friction
3) removing heat from the cylinders
4) providing a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons
5) carrying away contaminants

35
Q

What type of oil is approved for your aircraft?

A

Aviation Grade with Ashless Dispersant.

36
Q

What are your aircraft’s oil quantity limitations?

A

5-8 quarts.

37
Q

Describe the path that oil takes through your engine’s oil system.

A
  • Oil collects in the wet sump/the big pan located at the bottom of the engine.
  • Routed through strainer screen - Engine driven oil pump
  • Oil cooler and oil filter then through the engine for lubrication while gravity pulls the oil back down to the sump starting the process over.
38
Q

What is ashless dispersant oil?

A

This type of oil contains an additive that helps to scavenge
contaminants and carry them to the oil filter.

39
Q

What is the fuel capacity on the C172S?

A
  • Total fuel capacity: 56 gallons, 53 gallons of which is usable.
40
Q

Where are the fuel sumps and vents on the C172S?

A

13 fuel sumps (5 for each wing, 3 under the cowling.)

There are 3 fuel vents: 1
under the left wing and 1 in each fuel cap.

41
Q

Describe step-by-step the path that fuel takes as it travels from the tanks into the
cylinders.

A

Tanks > fuel selector > fuel reservoir tank > electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump
> fuel strainer > engine driven pump > fuel/air control unit > fuel distribution valve > fuel injector nozzles > cylinder

42
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel reservoir?

A

Provide the engine with a constant fuel supply in the event that fuel flow gets interrupted
due to slips/skids/odd pitch attitudes

43
Q

What does a LOW FUEL annunciation indicate?

A

When a tank has fewer than 5 gallons for more than 1 minute, a LOW FUEL L or LOW FUEL R
annunciator will appear on the PFD.

44
Q

How is a fuel injected system different from a carbureted system?

A

Carburated: fuel and air mix inside the carburetor.
Fuel Injection: the fuel/air control unit measures the air going through the induction system, then nozzles spray the appropriately ratioed amount of fuel directly into the intake ports of each cylinder.

45
Q

What is vapor lock?

A

Fuel becomes so hot it vaporizes in the fuel lines, not allowing fuel to reach the cylinders.
Problematic for Fuel Injection engines.

46
Q

What are the 6 basic components of a fuel injection system?

A

Engine-driven fuel pump;
fuel-air control unit; fuel manifold (fuel distributor); discharge nozzles; auxiliary fuel pump; fuel pressure/flow indicators

47
Q

How many amp-hours and volts does your aircraft’s battery produce?

A

8 amp hours, 24 volts.

48
Q

How many amps and volts does your aircraft’s alternator produce?

A

60 amps, 28 volts.

49
Q

What type of battery does your plane have?

A

Lead acid (the same type of battery cars use).

50
Q

The alternator and battery both fail. You’re now operating off of the standby battery.
What equipment will still operate?

A

Everything on the Essential Bus.
All essential equipment like the
AHRS/ADC and COM1 and NAV1 will still operate.
The transponder and flaps will be inoperative, though.

51
Q

What buses exist on our plane?

A

Electrical bus #1
Electrical bus #2
Cross feed bus
Avionics bus #1
Avionics bus #2
Essential bus.

52
Q

List and describe all the Garmin LRUs.

A

● PFD Display Unit
● MFD Display Unit
● 2 Integrated Avionics Units - Radios
● Engine/Airframe Unit
● Air Data Computer (processes data from the pitot/static system
and OAT.
● Attitude and Heading Reference System. (AHRS)
displays yaw, roll, and pitch information from its rate sensors, accelerometers,
and tilt sensors.
● Magnetometer - measures magnetic heading information, sends to AHRS
● Audio System - this is the audio panel.
● Mode-S Transponder
● Data Link - XM satellite radio receiver

53
Q

Which LRU(s) provide heading information?

A

Magnetometer and AHRS.

54
Q

Which flight instruments does the ADC control?

A

Airspeed, altimeter, and VSI.
The ADC also processes and displays OAT and pressure altitude information.

55
Q

Describe some of the limitations of the G1000.

A

● The screens can overheat, especially if one of the cooling fans breaks.
● In-flight initialization – plane must be in a near-level flight attitude (+-20 degrees bank, +-5 degrees pitch).
● Data is granular (20 ft altitude) - can cause pilots to over-control the aircraft.
● All the features can be overwhelming or lead
to over-reliance.
● Expired databases.

56
Q

Describe the different antennas and where they are located on the aircraft?

A
  • The COM/GPS antennas are mounted on the top of the cabin.
  • NAV antenna (for the localizer, glideslope, and VOR) is mounted
    on either side of the vertical stabilizer.
  • UHF blade antenna for DME and Transponder is underneath the rear fuselage.
  • Marker Beacon antenna, belly
  • ELT antenna top of rear fuselage
57
Q

What errors are associated with the compass?

A

VDMONA: variation, deviation, magnetic dip, oscillation, northerly/southerly turning errors (UNOS), acceleration errors (ANDS).

58
Q

While heading 360 you accelerate. What will the compass heading indicate?

A

It will continue indicating north. The acceleration/deceleration errors only apply to east and
west headings.

59
Q

What limitations are associated with the Airspeed Indicator?

A

There are inherent installation and instrument errors, hence the calibrated airspeed conversion chart.
There are also pitot/static blockages that can cause a range of errors.

60
Q

If just the ram air hole on the pitot tube is blocked, but the drain and the static port
are both unobstructed, what indication(s) can you expect on your flight instruments?

A

Indicated airspeed will drop to zero knots. No other
instruments will be affected.

61
Q

If the pitot tube’s ram air hole AND drain are both blocked, BUT the static port is unobstructed, what would happen?

A

The ASI will act like an altimeter. As the plane climbs, IAS will read faster. Descending will translate to a decreasing airspeed.

62
Q

What would happen if the static port is blocked BUT the holes on the pitot tube are unobstructed?

A
  • ASI will act like a reverse altimeter: climbs will indicate slower airspeeds, descents will indicate faster. ASI will still show acceleration and deceleration.
  • Altimeter will indicate the
    altitude at which the blockage occurs
  • VSI will gradually return to
    0
63
Q

What makes a static blockage especially dangerous?

A

As airspeed continues to
climb (falsely) during a descent, the pilot could be inclined to keep reducing power and could
lead to a stall.

64
Q

During your after-start instrument check, within how many feet of your elevation should the altimeter read?

A

75 feet

65
Q

How does the cabin heat work?

A

This heated air from the muffler around the exhaust pipe gets
ducted into the cabin through floor outlets.

66
Q

What sets off a LOW VOLTS annunciation?

A

System voltage is below 24.5 volts.
Practically, this means the
alternator is not supplying the electrical power that it should - the battery has taken over
and is being drained.

67
Q

What triggers a STBY BATT annunciation?

A

STBY BATT means the standby battery has been discharging by more than .5 amps for more than 10 seconds. Practically speaking, this means the alternator and main battery are not functioning, and the standby battery is now powering the equipment hooked up to the
essential bus.

68
Q

What sets off a HIGH VOLTS annunciation?

A

HIGH VOLTS indicates that system voltage exceeds 32 volts and the ACU failed at automatically taking the alternator off line. Manual,
immediate action is required by the pilot - turn the alternator switch off and refer to the
appropriate checklist.

Commercial Pilot (11 decks)

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