CAIA - 27 - Hedge Funds: Relative Value Strategies Flashcards

1
Q

___ ___strategies aim to exploit deviations from stable relationships.

A

Relative value strategies aim to exploit deviations from stable relationships.

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2
Q

Put-Call Parity Equation

A

Call + Bond = Put + Stock

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3
Q

___ ___refers to opportunities that involve limited risk with the potential for large positive returns relative to the amount of risk taken.

A

Risk arbitrage refers to opportunities that involve limited risk with the potential for large positive returns relative to the amount of risk taken.

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4
Q

___ ___ is related to an unexpected change in an asset’s fundamental value resulting in a loss.

A

Fundamental risk is related to an unexpected change in an asset’s fundamental value resulting in a loss.

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5
Q

___ ___are investors who trade securities for reasons unrelated to the fundamental value of securities.

A

Noise traders are investors who trade securities for reasons unrelated to the fundamental value of securities.

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6
Q

When traders overestimate their ability to make predictions, it is a symptom of ___ ___.

A

When traders overestimate their ability to make predictions, it is a symptom of overconfidence bias.

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7
Q

Investors who make decisions in situations using past experiences from similar situations are exhibiting ___ ___.

A

Investors who make decisions in situations using past experiences from similar situations are exhibiting representativeness bias.

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8
Q

___ refers to investors relying too heavily on an initial piece of information when making decisions.

A

Anchoring refers to investors relying too heavily on an initial piece of information when making decisions.

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9
Q

When investors have stronger reactions to losses and tend to hold on to losing stocks for too long but sell winning stocks too soon, they are exhibiting ___ ___.

A

When investors have stronger reactions to losses and tend to hold on to losing stocks for too long but sell winning stocks too soon, they are exhibiting loss aversion.

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10
Q

___ ___refers to a levered fund that suffers temporary losses having its line of credit reduced or eliminated by its lender.

A

Leverage risk refers to a levered fund that suffers temporary losses having its line of credit reduced or eliminated by its lender.

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11
Q

___ ___are barriers to costless trading that can make implementation of some arbitrage strategies too costly or too risky.

A

Market frictions are barriers to costless trading that can make implementation of some arbitrage strategies too costly or too risky.

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12
Q

An ___ ___refers to asset owners hiring agents to manage their assets and, as a result, incurring costs associated with agents not serving the owners’ interests or the owners having to audit or monitor the agents.

A

An agency relationship refers to asset owners hiring agents to manage their assets and, as a result, incurring costs associated with agents not serving the owners’ interests or the owners having to audit or monitor the agents.

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13
Q

The ___ ___strategy is a relative value strategy that aims to exploit the relative mispricing of an issuers’ convertible bonds and stocks.

A

The convertible arbitrage strategy is a relative value strategy that aims to exploit the relative mispricing of an issuers’ convertible bonds and stocks.

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14
Q

Convertible arbitrage typically involves ___ convertible bonds and ___the equity.

A

Convertible arbitrage typically involves buying convertible bonds and shorting the equity.

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15
Q

3 steps to convertible arbitrage:

  1. ___ convertible bond
  2. Determine ___ ___
  3. Manage ___
A

3 steps to convertible arbitrage:

  1. Value convertible bond
  2. Determine hedge ratio
  3. Manage risks
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16
Q

Issuing convertible bonds has 2 advantages over issuing equity:

  1. Does not ___
  2. Markets don’t ___ ___
A

Issuing convertible bonds has 2 advantages over issuing equity:

  1. Does not dilute
  2. Markets don’t react negatively
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17
Q

The ___ ___represents the number of shares into which each bond can be converted.

A

The conversion ratio represents the number of shares into which each bond can be converted.

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18
Q

The ___ ___ is the effective price at which the shares are acquired through the convertible bond.

A

The conversion price is the effective price at which the shares are acquired through the convertible bond.

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19
Q

Conversion Price (Equation)

A

Face Value of Convertible Bond / Conversion Ratio

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20
Q

When an issuer can call a bond at a pre-fixed price regardless of other circumstances, it is call a ___ ___.

A

When an issuer can call a bond at a pre-fixed price regardless of other circumstances, it is call a hard call.

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21
Q

When the issuer can only call a bond if the equity price has increased above some hurdle rate, it is called a ___ ___.

A

When the issuer can only call a bond if the equity price has increased above some hurdle rate, it is called a soft call.

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22
Q

___ is the total value of the shares into which the bond can be converted.

A

Parity is the total value of the shares into which the bond can be converted.

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23
Q

Parity (equation)

A

(Stock Price x Conversion Ratio) / Face Value

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24
Q

A convertible bond with parity greater than its face value is said to be ___-___-___

A

A convertible bond with parity greater than its face value is said to be in-the-money

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25
Q

The ___ ___is the difference between the convertible bond price and parity and is expressed as a percentage of ___.

A

The conversion premium is the difference between the convertible bond price and parity and is expressed as a percentage of parity.

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26
Q

___-___convertible bonds are issued at a deep discount to par and are redeemable at par.

A

Zero-coupon convertible bonds are issued at a deep discount to par and are redeemable at par.

27
Q

___ ___ ___ ___ are zero-coupon convertible bonds that are both callable and putable.

A

Liquid Yield Option Notes are zero-coupon convertible bonds that are both callable and putable.

28
Q

___ ___ ___ are convertibles that are required to convert to equity at some point.

A

Mandatory conversion securities are convertibles that are required to convert to equity at some point.

29
Q

A ___ ___ ___ ___ stock is a mandatory preferred convertible with a pre-set cap level, above which the conversion ratio is adjusted to keep the total return payoff constant.

A

A preferred equity redemption cumulative stock is a mandatory preferred convertible with a pre-set cap level, above which the conversion ratio is adjusted to keep the total return payoff constant.

30
Q

Value of bond using component approach (equation)

A

Convertible Bond = Straight Bond + Call Option on Stock

31
Q

The component approach to valuing a convertible bond has 3 main drawbacks.

  1. It uses ___-___, which only works on ___options.
  2. It does not account for ___ ___
  3. It does not account for ___
A

The component approach to valuing a convertible bond has 3 main drawbacks.

  1. It uses black-scholes, which only works on European options.
  2. It does not account for credit risk
  3. It does not account for covenants
32
Q

The ___ ___prices an option using a lattice for the asset’s value.

A

The binomial model prices an option using a lattice for the asset’s value.

33
Q

up/down factors in binomial stock price model (equation)

A
34
Q

probability of stock price movement up in binomial model (equation)

A
35
Q

Stock price under risk-neutral probability (equation)

A
36
Q

Call option value of discounted risk-neutral stock price

A
37
Q

Convertible bond price using binomial model (equation)

A

Max (Parity, Par + Coupon Payment)

38
Q

A junk convertibles parity is usually ___-___% of face value

A

A junk convertibles parity is usually 0-30% of face value

39
Q

A bond-like (busted) convertibles parity is usually ___-___% of face value.

A

A bond-like (busted) convertibles parity is usually 30-80% of face value.

40
Q

A Hybrid convertible’s parity is usually ___-___% of the face value.

A

A Hybrid convertible’s parity is usually 80-120% of the face value.

41
Q

An equity-like convertible’s parity is typically above ___% of the face value.

A

An equity-like convertible’s parity is typically above 120% of the face value.

42
Q

Convertible arbitrageurs generally prefer ___ convertibles.

A

Convertible arbitrageurs generally prefer hybrid convertibles.

43
Q

The ___ of the convertible measures its sensitivity to changes in the value of the underlying asset.

A

The delta of the convertible measures its sensitivity to changes in the value of the underlying asset.

44
Q

Delta of convertible (Equation), assuming the conversion ratio equals 1.

A
45
Q

Delta of convertible with respect to parity (equation)

A
46
Q

At-the money options tend to have deltas of about ___. Deep in the money convertibles have a delta of ___. Deep out of the money options have a delta of ___.

A

At-the money options tend to have deltas of about 0.5. Deep in the money convertibles have a delta of 1. Deep out of the money options have a delta of 0.

47
Q

Gamma as a 1st partial derivative (equation)

A
48
Q

Gamma as a 2nd partial derivative (equation)

A
49
Q

Gamma is ___ for at-the-money convertibles

A

Gamma is largest for at-the-money convertibles

50
Q

A convertible bond strategy that uses deep-in-the-money convertibles is similar to a ___ ___and is also called a ___-___strategy.

A

A convertible bond strategy that uses deep-in-the-money convertibles is similar to a synthetic put and is also called a cash-flow strategy.

51
Q

A strategy that uses at-the-money convertibles applies ___ ___.

A

A strategy that uses at-the-money convertibles applies volatility trading.

52
Q

In additional to equity risk, convertible bond arbitrage strategies need to manage non-equity risks:

  1. ___ risk
  2. ___ ___ risk
  3. ___risk
  4. ___ ___ risk
A

In additional to equity risk, convertible bond arbitrage strategies need to manage non-equity risks:

  1. Credit risk
  2. Interest rate risk
  3. Event risk
  4. Crowding effect risk
53
Q

The ___ ___risk is demonstrated when numerous hedge funds try to liquidate their positions at the same time.

A

The crowding effect risk is demonstrated when numerous hedge funds try to liquidate their positions at the same time.

54
Q

Returns from pairs trading are expected to have ___ correlation to equity markets.

A

Returns from pairs trading are expected to have low correlation to equity markets.

55
Q

A ___ ___portfolio has equal long and short exposures to a specific currency.

A

A monetary neutral portfolio has equal long and short exposures to a specific currency.

56
Q

A ___ ___portfolio generates returns uncorrelated with the market risk associated with a specified beta.

A

A beta neutral portfolio generates returns uncorrelated with the market risk associated with a specified beta.

57
Q

A ___ ___portfolio generates returns uncorrelated with economic sectors.

A

A sector neutral portfolio generates returns uncorrelated with economic sectors.

58
Q

Most often, a pairs trading strategy is ___ neutral and ___neutral.

A

Most often, a pairs trading strategy is monetary neutral and sector neutral.

59
Q

A popular approach used to identify candidate pairs for a pairs trading strategy is the ___-___approach, which is a statistical technique that indicates the relationship between non-stationary variables over time.

A

A popular approach used to identify candidate pairs for a pairs trading strategy is the co-integration approach, which is a statistical technique that indicates the relationship between non-stationary variables over time.

60
Q

Cointigration test (equation)

A
61
Q

___ ___risk is performance dispersion resulting from idiosyncratic trading

A

Noise traders risk is performance dispersion resulting from idiosyncratic trading

62
Q

___ risk is the idiosyncratic risk that refers to the spread between the two stocks becoming permanent.

A

Fundamental risk is the idiosyncratic risk that refers to the spread between the two stocks becoming permanent.

63
Q

___ risk refers to the risk that market participants are slow to react to divergence between two stock prices.

A

Synchronization risk refers to the risk that market participants are slow to react to divergence between two stock prices.

64
Q

___-___risk refers to the risk that investors are forced to cover their short positions.

A

Short-sale risk refers to the risk that investors are forced to cover their short positions.