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Global 7500 > CAE > Flashcards

CAE Flashcards

1
Q

True or false warning messages are always visible and shown at the top of the CAS messages list.

A

True

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2
Q

True or false in the event of an emergency, a warning CAS message is shown and a single chime is heard.

A

False

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3
Q

True or false some warnings, caution, and all advisory CAS messages are inhibited during the takeoff and landing phases of flight

A

True

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4
Q

True or false when the CAS annunciation is shown and the last CAS message page is in view, pressing the CAS QAK on the MKP expands the CAS message list and returns to the 1st page of the list.

A

True

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5
Q

True or false when the flight compartment speakers are muted, aural alerts are still heard in the headphones.

A

True

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6
Q

True or false when the autopilot is engaged, AP is shown in green in the center of the flight mode announciator FMA

A

True

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7
Q

What occurs if an attempt is made to engage the autopilot AP when no flight director FD modes are active

A

The autopilot will engage, and the roll/heading hold (ROOL) and flight path angle (FPA) modes will activate

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8
Q

Under which condition does the autopilot automatically disengage

A

During reversion to flight control system direct mode stick shaker activation except in windshield escape mode and the autopilot fault has been detected

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9
Q

What alerts the flight Crew when the autopilot disengages automatically or is manually disengaged

A

AP annunciation on the flight mode annunciator (FMA) flashes red and a calvary charge aural alert continually sounds

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10
Q

What information is shown on the far right side of the flight mode announciator FMA

A

Alternate data source in use

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11
Q

If the autopilot AP is engaged when the couple (CPL) pushbutton in the center of the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed, what happens

A

The other FD channel within the active DMC is coupled to the AP, the green arrow on the other side of the CPL pushbutton on the FCP comes on, the FD mode changes. Caution message is shown on the EICAS and the master caution PBA comes on and flashes

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12
Q

True or False when the couple (CPL) pushbutton on the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed the direction of the arrow in the middle of the flight mode annunciator (FMA) changes in use. All FD modes are reset to basic and must be reselected

A

True

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13
Q

If the basic roll/heading hold (ROLL) mode is active, under which condition will the flight director (FD) hold a heading

A

Airplane back angle 5° or less

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14
Q

What indicates that the heading (HDG) mode has been endabled

A

The green HDG is shown on left side of the flight mode annunciator FMA and the green light above the HDG pushbutton on the flight control panel FCP is ON

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15
Q

What is required for an automatic NAV-to-NAV transfer to occur

A

The flight director FD lateral mode is FMS or HDG, the APPR button on the flight control panel FCP is pressed and the localizer is captured

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16
Q

Under which conditions is flight path angle mode enabled

A

A selected vertical mode is lost or disselected a single lateral mode is selected with no active vertical mode and the FD pushbutton on the flight control panel FCP is selected ON after having been switched OFF.

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17
Q

What is shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA after an altitude capture sequence is completed and the flight director FD is tracking a new altitude selector altitude

A

Green ALTS

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18
Q

Which pushbutton activates VNAV

A

VNAV pushbutton

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19
Q

Which of the following are active or armed VNAV modes
VALTV
ALTV
VALT
ALT

A

VALTV and VALT

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20
Q

When would VFLC be shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA

A

The flight director FD commands a flight level change when VNAV is active and the pilot commands a flight level change when VNAV is active.

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21
Q

Under which conditions is the emergency descent mode EDM automatically enabled

A

The autopilot is engaged, cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500 ft, and the airplane altitude is more than 25,000 ft

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22
Q

What does a flashing mode annunciation on the flight mode annunciator FMA indicate

A

A new mode has been activated

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23
Q

How are the active and armed autothrottle AT modes shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA

A

Active modes are shown in green above the white armed modes

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24
Q

True or False The active FD/AT is shown in the center of the flight mode annunciator FMA as either AT1 or AT2 but only when the AT is engaged

A

True

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25
Q

What alerts the flight crew when the autothrottle AT disengages

A

AT1 or AT2 annuciator on the FMA flashes amber amber and a continuous “AUTOTHROTTLE” aural alert is heard

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26
Q

True or False Speed control SPD mode is a basic mode of the autothrottle AT

A

True

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27
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the Global 7500 airplane

A

51,000 ft

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28
Q

True or false the minimum runway with for a 180ﾟ turn is 68.55

A

False

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29
Q

What does the auxiliary power unit provide?

A

AC electrical power and bleed air

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30
Q

What is shown on the SERVICE synoptic or the EICAS if the APU inlet door fails open?

A

The door angle is shown in amber on the SERVICE synoptic and an APU DOOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS

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31
Q

The APU oil sump is monitored and oil quantity is shown on the SERVICE synoptic. what can be use to refill the oil pump?

A

The oil replenishment system on the REPLENISH tab or the gravity oil fill port located on the gearbox.

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32
Q

From where is fuel normally supplied to the APU

A

Right wing collector tank

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33
Q

For what is APU bleed air used

A

Environmental control system ECS main engine starting, and fuel tank inerting system FTIS

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34
Q

What normally occurs during the APU shutdown when the APU rotary switch is selected OFF

A

There is a 1-minute cool down before the actual shutdown occurs

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35
Q

What are some conditions that trigger an emergency shutdown of the APU in flight

A

Failure of both speed sensors or an actual overspeed

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36
Q

What occurs when a volume knob on the audio control panel is unlatched in the raised position

A

Audio for that system is heard

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37
Q

How is the radio tuned

A

Control tuning panels CTP and display tuning

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the 1/2 pushbutton on the control tuning panel CTP

A

Activates tuning of the cross side radios

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39
Q

How is the XPDR/TCAS CONTROL page accessed from tuning page 1 of the control tuning panel CTP

A

By pressing twice on the line select key LSK adjacent to the transponder code

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40
Q

When does the cockpit voice recorder CVR automatically record

A

Upon application of electrical power

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41
Q

What is the purpose of the data link communication system

A

It provides two-way communication between the airplane and the airplane communication addressing and reporting system ACARS network

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42
Q

Which two transmission systems are used by the data link communication system

A

VHF data link VDL and satellite communications SATCOM

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43
Q

Which message is shown at the bottom of the APPLICATION MENU page when the datalink system is unavailable?

A

NO COMM

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44
Q

From what panels can the cursor be controlled

A

Cursor control panel CCP and multifunction keyboard panel MKP

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45
Q

True or False The MEM key on the multifunction keyboard panel can be used to store format configurations

A

TRUE

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46
Q

To configure the PFD to occupy the full or half width of the DUs what should be selected

A

FULL/HALF pushbutton on the onside controll tuning panel CTP

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47
Q

True or False when a cursor enters an MFW occupied by the other cursor the 1st cursor is bumped and is removed from the display unit

A

True

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48
Q

What happens to the PFD on DU1 if DU1 fails

A

It moves to DU2

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49
Q

When and where is the status of the fuselage doors is visible?

A

Throughout the flight on the EICAS only

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50
Q

Where is the passenger door viewing aid located

A

Forward of the passenger door on the crew closet bulkhead.

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51
Q

True or False A vent flap in the passenger door opens to equalize cabin pressure when either the interior or exterior door handle is lifted

A

True

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52
Q

Describe three ways to close the passenger door

A

From the exterior switch located next to the passenger door, from the interior switch located inside the door frame adjacent to the passenger door, and using the manual closing device in the event of a motor failure

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53
Q

The manual closing pull handle is used to manually close the passenger door. Where is it located?

A

Inside the airplane on the door motor forward of the passenger door.

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54
Q

How are interior pocket doors operated

A

Electronically or mechanically by 1 of the 2 pushbuttons located on the forward and aft side of the bulkhead and by the interior cabin door rotary switch located in the flight compartment.

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55
Q

Name the different types of electronic checklists

A

normal airplane flight manual AFM checklist, non normal AFM procedures (with and without crew alerting system CAS messages), and user defined procedures that store items of importance to the user but are not part of the AFM

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56
Q

Which electronic checklist page shows normal checklist for all phases of flight

A

Normal page

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57
Q

Which electronic checklist page shows non normal checklists that are started completed or overridden

A

Non-normal page and Summary page

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58
Q

True or False when the ECL is not available all content is removed and checklist not available is shown on the page

A

True

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59
Q

When a notification item in a checklist is selected in what color are the notifications and it’s surrounding Box shown?

A

All notification items are shown in green

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60
Q

True or False. The airplane uses both 115 VAC and 28 VDC electrical power

A

True

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61
Q

When does the RAT deploy

A

Following a total loss of AC power in flight or when the manual RAT deployment handle is lifted

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62
Q

What does the BATT LOADS switch do

A

Disconnect most electrical loads from the battery

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63
Q

Where is the external ground power panel located

A

On the lower body fairing just forward of the right engine

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64
Q

True or False in the event of a malfunction one VFG can supply the entire electrical system but the APU generator cannot replace either or both VFG’s

A

FALSE

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65
Q

What is the function of the EXT AC PBA on the electrical panel

A

Connect and disconnect external AC power to the airplane

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66
Q

On the electrical panel what does a cyan AVAIL indication on the EXT AC pushbutton annunciator indicate?

A

External AC power is connected to the airplane and capable of supplying up to 60 kVA

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67
Q

What Supplies AC power

A

A variable frequency generator VFG mounted on each engine’s accessory gearbox and external ground power.

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68
Q

What voltage do the transformer rectifier units TRU’s receive from the AC buses before converting and distributing it to the DC buses?

A

115 VAC power

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69
Q

What is the purpose of the two permanent magnet generators PMG’s

A

Provide a secondary power source to the fly by wire power converters FBWPC’s

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70
Q

To what buses do the DC electrical power centers control the routine of DC power from the TRUs and batterys

A

DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2.
MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS. DC ESS BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS 2

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71
Q

When are the MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS powered

A

At all times regardless of the position of the MAIN BATT and APU BATT switches on the electrical panel.

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72
Q

During bus isolation when is power removed from the AC BUS 2?

A

When R GEN PBA is selected off

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73
Q

In the event of a total loss of AC power what is the source of emergency AC power

A

Ram air turbine RAT

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74
Q

True or False the RAT generator when deployed and operating supplies the ESS TRU through the AC ESS BUS at airplane speeds above 147 kt

A

True

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75
Q

True or False at the speed below a 147 knots. The ESS TRU is disconnected and the AC ESS BUS is powered by the airplane batteries

A

False

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76
Q

True or False non essential electrical equipment is temporarily shed during periods of high power demand

A

True

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77
Q

What does selecting the TRIP acknowledgment soft key do

A

Confirms the breaker tripper state changes the breaker state from TRIP to OUT and removes the CB TRIP message from the EICAS if no other TRIP acknowledgment soft key are active

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78
Q

True or False the CB CONFIG switch must be selected off, and the airplane rotary switch must be selected to NORM prior to flight

A

True

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79
Q

What is the maximum Thrust of the GE Passport 20 engine as installed on the Global 7500 airplane

A

18,920 lb

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80
Q

Which statement are true with regards to the FADEC
A) A permanent magnet alternator PMA serves as a backup electrical power source
B) A PMA serves as a dedicated electrical power source
C) The FADEC is supported be a dual channel electronic engine controller EEC
D) The FADEC is a dual channel system each FADEC channel is supported by an EEC

A

B and D

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81
Q

True or False the hydraulic system powers the thrust reversers.

A

True

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82
Q

What is the capacity of each engine oil tank and how can the engine oil be replenished?

A

11.6 qt, Replenished by it’s fill port or the oil replenishment system

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83
Q

True or False the function of the fuel oil heat exchanger is to cool the fuel

A

False

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84
Q

True or False: The FADEC uses both ignitors for all airstarts

A

True

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85
Q

On which parameter is a reduced thrust takeoff FLX calculated?

A

Assumed temperature

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86
Q

When the engines are in TO mode and the engine fails the other engine transitions to which mode

A

Maximum continuous thrust MCT

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87
Q

When the uncommanded left thrust reverser deployment occurs a red REV icon is shown inside the left analog N1 gauge what else happens.

A

The FADEC limits thrust to idle regardless of the thrust lever position the L reverser unlocked warning message is shown on the EICAS and the left Reverser unlock aural messages is heard

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88
Q

True or False: During inflight starts, the priority bleed source for engine starting is the opposite engine.

A

True

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89
Q

Which push button annunciator PBA on the BLEED/AIR COND panel closes the hot air shutoff valves HASOVs

A

TRIM Air

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90
Q

Which control located on the pressurization panel immediately closes the outflow valve.

A

Outflow valve 1 or 2 PBAs

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91
Q

Up to what maximum cabin altitude can the cabin be depressurized when The EMER DEPRESS guarded PBA is pressed

A

14500 ft (+-500)

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92
Q

Under normal conditions where can the flight crew monitor the oxygen quantity?

A

EICAS and BLEED synoptic

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93
Q

True or False: The overboard discharge indicator consists of a breakable green nylon disc, located forward of the passenger door on the lower left fuselage, which pops out when excess oxygen Is discharged overboard.

A

True

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94
Q

Which rotary switch mode setting on the flight mask provides a mixture of ambient air and oxygen on demand and is adjusted for cabin altitude.

A

N (Normal)

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95
Q

When the passenger oxygen rotary switch is set to normal at what cabin altitude will the passenger masks deploy automatically?

A

14500 ft +- 500

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96
Q

Which flight control surfaces are hydraulically positioned by power control units PCU

A

Rudder, Ailerons, and Spoilers

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97
Q

True or False: In fly-by-wire FBW direct mode, envelope protections and most structural protections are lost

A

True

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98
Q

What indicates that both sidesticks are being operated simultaneously?

A

DUAL INPUT aural warning is heard and red DUAL message is shown on both primary flight displays PFD

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99
Q

What occurs when the sidestick. AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held to established momentary sidestick priority

A

Green PTY annunciation flashes in onside glareshield SIDESTICK guarded PBA and a Priority Left or Priority Right aural message is heard three times

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100
Q

What do the three multifunction spoiler MFS pairs on each wing provide

A

Roll assist, speed brake control, and ground lift dumping

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101
Q

True or False: The horizontal stabilizer HSTAB is electrically controlled and electromechanically actuated

A

True

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102
Q

What is true regarding airplane roll control

A

Bank angles greater than 30° require continuous sidestck deflection, and when sidestick released at a 45° bank angle, airplane automatically recovers to a 30° bank angle

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103
Q

What is the limit for noseup nosedown pitch attitudes

A

17° noseup on the ground
30° noseup in flight and 20° nosedown

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104
Q

In FBW normal mode which indications occur when the airspeed is at or below VAOA SOFT

A

Stick Shaker activates, and airplane pitch attitude is automatically reduced so that minimum speed is limited

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105
Q

When FBW overspeed protection is active, what indicates that airspeed is above VMAX plus 4 kt

A

Airspeed readout turns red and a continuous “CHIRP” aural alert is heard

106
Q

Which compensation is automatically provided by the fly-by-wire system during an engine failure

A

Partial yaw compensation

107
Q

Which flight controls provide feedback to the fly-by-wire FBW system, but are not controlled by it?

A

Slats and flaps

108
Q

True or False: The slats and flaps are electrically positioned

A

True

109
Q

When can the flight crew use the IAS/MACH pushbutton to select between an IAS or Mach tape

A

When airspeed is greater than 0.4 Mach

110
Q

True or False: The radar altitude RA is a digital readout that is shown on the PFD when the airplane descends through 2500 ft AGL

A

True

111
Q

What indicates a heading failure on the primary flight display

A

A red HDG fail flag flashes for 5 seconds and then remains steady

112
Q

Which format selections are available from the MAP drop down menu

A

MAP, ROUTE, and PLAN

113
Q

For what is the SYMBOL drop down list on the menu bar used

A

Turn on and off multiple map elements on the selected MAP or PLAN formats

114
Q

When using IFIS charts, what does a magenta airplane symbol shown on WGS-84 compliant chart indcate

A

Airplane is outside of chart boundaries

115
Q

From which panel can the air data source for the left or right PFD be manually changed

A

Reversion switch panel RSP

116
Q

In which color is the ADSP indication shown on the PFD when both PFDs use the same air data source

A

Amber

117
Q

Where is the control to adjust the brightness of the HUD located

A

On the glareshield

118
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the flight path acceleration cue
A) When the flight path acceleration cue is above the FPV wing the airplane is accelerating
B) When the cue is below the FPV wing the airplane is decelerating
C) The flight path acceleration cue is a hollow rectangle of variable height and fixed width. It is shown on the FPV left wing
D) The flight path acceleration cue is the right pointing hollow arrowhead located to the left side of the FPV

A

A,B,and D

119
Q

What is pressed to show the synthetic vision system SVS image on the HUD

A

Pressing the HUD knob

120
Q

True or False: A chronometer is only visible on the PFD when the CHR pushbutton on the glareshield is pressed

A

True

121
Q

Which quick access key QAK opens the FMS message box

A

MSG

122
Q

How is the MESSAGES-FMS dialog box accessed

A

By selecting the MSG soft key on the lower edge of any multifunction window or by selecting the MSG key on the QAK on the multifunction keyboard panel

123
Q

On which FMS page is the airplane center of gravity position and limits shown

A

WT & BAL

124
Q

Which section of the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to view fuel onboard as determined by tank sensors without fuel flow consideration

A

Sensed mode

125
Q

Which section on the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to estimate fuel based on measured fuel flow and ground speed values only.

A

Measured mode

126
Q

True or False: If an immediate return to the departure airfield is required, the departure data from DEP PERF can be transferred directly to the ARR PERF page on the FMS.

A

True

127
Q

There are three modes available in the CRZ tab on the VNAV-THRST page in the FMS What is provided by the MX mode

A

A maximum speed target is set based on cruise altitude

128
Q

Which conditions are required for the FMS to generate a step optimization

A

At least 200 lb of fuel is saved or the step optimization reduces flight time by at least 2 minutes.

129
Q

Which FMS page shows the active navigation database.

A

FMS DB

130
Q

True or False: All default values stored in the DEFAULTS pages are fixed and cannot be modified.

A

False

131
Q

What is used to select temperature compensation (TEMP COMP)

A

Index (IDX) soft key and ARR perf page

132
Q

True or False: Magenta needles are shown on the PFD when guidance is through the FMS.

A

True

133
Q

True or False: The flight crew can modify the flight plan graphically by selecting map symbols.

A

True

134
Q

Which function or key is used to insert multiple points into an existing route on the MFW.

A

The REROUTE function with the CCP

135
Q

Which field pump is considered a backup pump

A

The AUX pump

136
Q

Which fuel tank ejectors do not have motive flow shut off valves?

A

Wing inner tank scavenge ejectors

137
Q

What does the engine fuel cross feed system enable?

A

Enables an engine to be fed from both collector tanks and both engines to be fed from a single collector tank.

138
Q

True or False: The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tank is only manually controlled.

A

False The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tank is only automatically controlled by the computer.

139
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel resurculation system?

A

Prevents wing tank fuel from reaching its freezing point

140
Q

What is true about the PRESEL toggle switch on the REFUEL/DEFUEL control panel
A) Controls individual refuel/default shutoff valves in the refueling manifold
B) Sets the total fuel load requirement
C) Active in AUTO REFUEL mode
D) Use to increase or decrease PRESEL fuel quantity

A

B,C,and D

141
Q

True or False: The FTIS generates nitrogen-enrich air NEA to replace the ambient air in the center and after fuel tanks and to reduce the risk of fuel fume Igniting.

A

True

142
Q

Where are the inboard and outboard brake pressure shown.

A

HYD synoptic

143
Q

Where is the break temperature shown

A

EICAS and SERVICE synoptic

144
Q

Which systems are required for normal landing gear extension and retraction cycles?

A

Hydraulic system 2 and 3

145
Q

If the PARK/EMER BRAKE lever is set and the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff which aural warning is heard and which warning message is shown on the EICAS

A

NO TAKEOFF and PARK/EMER BRAKE ON

146
Q

When the AUTOBRAKE switch is selected to LO, MED, or HI for landing, what would disarm the autobrake system

A

When the brake pedals are activated and if either BCU channel detects a BCU fault

147
Q

When the nosewheel steering system is active? What are the respective nosewheel angles that correspond to a full deflection of the runner pedals and tiller

A

9° and 82.5°

148
Q

Which pumps provide power to the hydraulic system 1

A

Main pump EDP 1A and backup pump ACMP 1B

149
Q

Under which conditions do the backup pumps come on

A

During the takeoff roll, when slats and flaps are extended and thrust levers are advanced, and for landing, when slats and flaps are extended

150
Q

The hydraulic shutoff valve close automatically when hydraulic fluid temperature exceeds normal conditions. How can they be closed manually? Two ways

A

By pressing the L or R ENG guarded PBA on the FIRE panel or pressing the L or R HYD SOV PBA on the HYDRAULIC panel.

151
Q

What indicates that a filter is clogged?

A

A tab pops out on the filter manifold.

152
Q

Which statements regarding the ecology bottles for hydraulic system 3 are correct?
A) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottles are located in the aft equipment bay.
B) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottles are located forward of the wing-to-body faring.
C) Hydraulic system 3 uses two ecology bottles
D) Hydraulic system 3 uses one ecology bottle

A

B and C

153
Q

What is the ram air turbine (RAT) designed to do regarding the hydraulics

A

Powers hydraulics 3 when deployed

154
Q

Which bleed air source is used to prevent ice from forming on the wing leading edges and the engine cowls

A

Engines only

155
Q

True or False: When the wing anti-ice rotary switch is in AUTO mode the wing anti-ice system is inhibited on the ground and during takeoff up to 1,500 ft AGL and 2 minutes after reaching an airspeed of 60 kt or greater

A

True

156
Q

On the BLEED synoptic, when is a wing leading edge shown in amber

A

The temperature is below the proper range

157
Q

True or False: The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP, AOA, and TAT heaters when the airplane is in flight

A

False, The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP AOA and TAT heaters when the airplane is on the ground, when the airplane is connected to a ground cart, and when the auxiliary power unit APU is running.

158
Q

True or False: The RIGHT rotary switch on the WINDSHIELD HEAT panel controls the heating of the right windshield and the left side window

A

True

159
Q

If both ice detectors fail during icing conditions what caution message is shown and what must the crew do

A

The ICA DETCTOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS and the flight crew must manually select the WING L and R COWL rotary switches to ON if there are visible icing conditions

160
Q

Which knob controls the brightness of the dome light in the flight compartment?

A

AREA LIGHTS knob

161
Q

True or False: Instrumentation lights lamp test can be carried out from the TEST tab on the MISC page.

A

True

162
Q

The nose landing gear lights only come on when the NLG switch is in the PULSE or STEADY position and what other condition is present.

A

Nose gear is down and locked

163
Q

Which EMER LIGHTS switch position activates emergency lights when DC essential bus power is lost

A

ARM

164
Q

In AUTO mode when does the seat belts sign come on

A

When the landing gear is down, or cabin altitude is greater than 8,000 ft, or slats/flaps are not in the FLAP 0 position

165
Q

True or False: Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from the external lighting panel aft of the passenger door

A

False Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from a switch in the rear equipment bay

166
Q

True or False: GNSS Status and position are shown on the Initialization (INIT) and SENSORS pages of the FMS.

A

True

167
Q

When the GNSS is checking the almanac and searching for visible satellites, which operating mode is shown on the GNSS 1 or 2 tab on the SENSORS page.

A

ACQUISITION

168
Q

From the GNSS 1 or 2 tab on the lower part of the SENSORS page? What can the flight crew do?

A

Initiate a P-RAIM calculation

169
Q

On which FMS page is IRS operational information shown.

A

INIT page and SENSORS page

170
Q

Under which conditions does the stationary alignment mode align the IRU?

A

When speed is less than or equal to 30 kt

171
Q

If the GNSS or ADS data is lost or unavailable during an align-in-motion alignment, which operating mode is shown on the SENSORS page?

A

ATITUDE

172
Q

What does it mean when an IRS SET HDG caution message is shown on the EICAS?

A

That manual entry of magnetic heading on the IRS tab is required

173
Q

When is the Amber ROL miscompair flag is shown on the PFD?

A

When there is a difference of more than 4° between the bank angle indications on each PFD

174
Q

From which location can navigation receivers be tuned and controlled?

A

Control tuning panel CTPs communication navigation surveillance CNS TUNE page and MAP format.

175
Q

What does the fight crew press to select the onside or cross-side VHF navigation receiver (VOR/LOC) as the navigation source

A

NAV pushbutton on the control tuning panel CTP

176
Q

Under what conditions does the NAV-to-NAV Preview functions show localizer data and indications on the HSI.

A

A localizer-based Approach is Selected in the FMS and the airplane is within 31 NM of the destination airport

177
Q

What indicates the DME hold frequency shown on the CTP NAV1 CONTROL page?

A

Small green font and cyan H

178
Q

True or False: If the FIDEEX system detects a short circuit on one of the APU eductor fire detection loops, fire protection is provided by the operable single-detection loop.

A

True

179
Q

Which functions occur when the L or R ENG FIRE PBA is pressed.

A

Engine fuel feed shutoff valve closes, hydraulic shutoff valve closes, and pressure regulating shutoff valve PRSOV closes, and the generator is taken offline. BTL1 and BTL2 PBAs illuminate green AVAIL and the engine Ignition is disabled.

180
Q

If the L or R ENG FIRE warning continues after the fire extinguisher bottle 1 is deployed. What must the flight crew do?

A

Press the BTL 2 PBA to discharge the 2nd bottle.

181
Q

What actions occur when the FIDEEX system detects fire in an unattended APU on the ground?

A

The APU bay horn sounds, the APU shuts down automatically, and fire bottle 2 discharges automatically into the APU.

182
Q

Which statement best describes the fire extinguisher bottles?
A) 2 fire bottles are shared by the engines and a 3rd bottle is shared by the baggage Bay and APU
B) 2 fire bottles are shared by the engines bottle 1 is used for the baggage Bay and bottle 2 is used for the APU.

A

B

183
Q

If a smoke detector fails in the baggage bay lavatory or avionics bay, what is displayed

A

A caution message is presented on the EICAS

184
Q

What areas are monitored by smoke detectors

A

Avionics Bay and racks, lavatories, closets, passenger cabin, crew area, and baggage bay.

185
Q

To see directional arrows accompanying the traffic symbols that show on the HSI and MAP format the airplane must have _____ capability and the intruder airplane must have ________ capability

A

ADS-B IN and CDTI/ADS-B OUT

186
Q

What type of advisory is issued when the flight path of an intruder airplane is predicted to penetrate protected airspace within 30 seconds.

A

Resolution advisory RA

187
Q

When a resolution advisory is issued by the TCAS, a green path cue is shown on the ADI. If TFC is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, what is shown on the HSI and MAP formats

A

A solid red square

188
Q

Which statement about the TAWS alert mode PBAs (GS, FLAPS, TERRAIN) are true?
A) The TAWS alert modes are active by default.
B) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a white OFF annunciation on the PBA
C) Alert mode PBAs must be pressed to become active.
D) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a green ON annunciation on the PBA

A

A and B

189
Q

True or False: The TAWS shows terrain on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW when TERRAIN is selected from the OVLY drop-down list.

A

True

190
Q

When is the “SINK RATE” aural alert heard

A

When the rate of descent is excessive for the current altitude.

191
Q

When is the terrain clearance floor function primarily used

A

When flying around the landing Airport?

192
Q

True or False: After adjusting the gain setting, it automatically returns to the NORM position.

A

False

193
Q

What is the maximum turbulence detection range

A

40 nm

194
Q

True or False: When in AUTO mode, the system is designed to show significant weather at all airplane altitudes and does not require the flight crew to adjust the gain or tilt.

A

True

195
Q

True or False: The path attenuation compensation PAC function is available in both AUTO and MAN modes.

A

False

196
Q

When is the lightning detection overlay shown on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW?

A

When WX + LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, or LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list

197
Q

True or False: The maximum lightning detection range is 200 nm

A

True

198
Q

What is shown when the LDS is Inhibited to prevent communication radio transmission interference for more than 1 minute.

A

LX FAIL in amber on the MAP format

199
Q

What does the highlighted cyan arrow represent on the airport chart

A

A departure runway that was loaded into the active FMS flight plan.

200
Q

What is the purpose of the airport moving map application

A

To provide a graphical image of the airport map to assist in ground movement and airplane position

201
Q

What are TLAF takeoff alerts

A

RUNWAY MISCOMPARE, NOT A RUNWAY, and SHORT RUNWAY

202
Q

True or False: The SMS SHORT RWY INOP advisory message is shown on the EICAS when the airplane is within 31 nm of the landing field length has not been calculated by the FMS

A

True

203
Q

What are the maximum takeoff and landing weights

A

Max takeoff weight 114,850 lb Max landing weight 87,600 lb

204
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Global 7500 airplane

A

67,500 lb

205
Q

When taking off near bodies of water and your takeoff weight is above the maximum landing weight, _________ must be shut down and ___________ must be closed

A

R air conditioning pack, OUTFLOW VLV 2

206
Q

True or False: It is not acceptable to hold in icing conditions with slats extended

A

True

207
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing

A

10 kt

208
Q

Ground operation of the display units with flight compartment in excess of _______ for more than _____ is prohibited

A

40°c for more than 30 minutes

209
Q

What is the takeoff thrust limitation for two engines and a single engine

A

5 minutes, 10 minutes

210
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for engine start

A

20 kt

211
Q

On takeoff, the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. What is the static engine checks maximum N1%

A

90%

212
Q

On takeoff the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. The brake release must be achieved within ____ of _____ being achieved

A

2 seconds, takeoff N1

213
Q

On takeoff, the wind is 70° off centerline and the crosswind component is 21 kt. What is the maximum N1 _______ below _____ KIAS

A

60%, 30

214
Q

What is the engine starter limitations? Start number 1 and 2 on for _____ off for ____. Start 3 to 10 on for _____ off for _____

A

5 minutes, 5 minutes
5 minutes, 15 minutes

215
Q

What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using bleed from the other engine

A

30,000 ft

216
Q

What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using the APU as a source of bleed

A

23,000

217
Q

What is the engine air start below 195 kt maximum altitude

A

15,000 ft

218
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance on the ground and in flight?

A

600 lb, 1,100 lb

219
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for manual wing to win transfer

A

2,500 lb per wing

220
Q

What is the minimum required quantity per wing during a go-around?

A

750 lb

221
Q

Fuel cross feed must be off for takeoff and landing. What about for dual engine?

A

For dual engine operations having the crossfeed valve open is prohibited below 10,000 ft

222
Q

Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when the OTA is at what temperature or below.

A

-12°c

223
Q

What is the maximum APU starting altitude.

A

45,000 ft

224
Q

What is the maximum number of APU starts?

A

3 in 1 hour

225
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed extraction for ECS?

A

25,000 ft

226
Q

What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?

A

-40°c

227
Q

What is the maximum airplane operating Mmo

A

.925 Mach

228
Q

What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo between 35,000 and 20,000 ft

A

320 kt CAS

229
Q

What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo 8000’ ft and below?

A

300 kt CAS

230
Q

What is the maximum speed for turbulence penetration?

A

265 kt IAS from sea level to 8000’ ft linearly increasing to 285 kt IAS at 10000’ ft

231
Q

What is the maximum speed for flap 1

A

225 kt IAS

232
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for flap 2?

A

210 kt IAS

233
Q

What is the Maximum air speed for flap 3.

A

210 kt IAS

234
Q

What is the maximum speed for flap 4?

A

185 kt IAS

235
Q

What is the tire limit speed

A

195 kt ground speef

236
Q

During taxi and takeoff the pressure differential must not exceed what psi.

A

.1 PSI

237
Q

During touchdown the pressure differential must not exceed what psi

A

1.0 psi

238
Q

Auxiliary pressurization is prohibited above what height

A

41,000 ft

239
Q

Is FMS speed authorized during single engine operation.

A

No

240
Q

What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement

A

400 ft AGL

241
Q

Above what height is flight prohibited with slats/flaps extended?

A

18,000 ft

242
Q

Below what height must flights spoilers be retracted?

A

300 ft AGL

243
Q

Is there any restriction for use of the MAX spoiler?

A

It is prohibited except during emergency conditions or as required by AFM procedures.

244
Q

When conducting an approach in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83 the SVS shall be selected or deselected prior to passing the FAF.

A

Deselected

245
Q

During takeoff, approach, and landing operations in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83 must the SMS runway switch must be selected on or off.

A

OFF

246
Q

Is parking the airplane with the use of reverse thrusts allowed or prohibited?

A

Prohibited

247
Q

True or False: When exiting a hold with a course change of greater than a 150ﾟ the FMS may depict the term direction incorrectly on the MFW MAP

A

True

248
Q

True or False: The use of VNAV guidance is allowed when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation QFE operation.

A

False The use of VNAV guidance is prohibited when the barometric attitude is corrected to the landing field elevation QFE operation.

249
Q

Speed constraints on the last waypoint of the STAR and the 1st waypoint of the approach must be verified on what format.

A

ACT FPLN ROUTE format

250
Q

When flying a NAV-to-NAV or ILS based approach, do not ARM APPR until within _______ of the run way approach course

A

70°

251
Q

True or False: LPV approach operations to LPV minimums must not be commenced unless 2 FMS’s and 2 SBAS GNSS sensors are fully operational and independently displayed.

A

True

252
Q

FMS as a primary navigation source beyond the FAF is prohibited unless what is annunciated on the PFD/HUD.

A

RNP APPR or LPV APPR

253
Q

FMS as a supplementary navigation source beyond the FAF is permitted when APPR or REF APPR is annunciated on the PFD/HUD if the navigation air referenced in the approach procedure is ______ and _______ by the flight crew during the approach.

A

Displayed, monitored

254
Q

GNSS sensors must be selected or disselected when on approach in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83.

A

Deselected

255
Q

Is selection of FANS CPDLC INSER MOD within 2 minutes of a TO waypoint allowed or prohibited.

A

Prohibited

256
Q

True or False: FPLN UPLINK must be completed or canceled prior to taxi?

A

True

257
Q

Takeoff using FLEX thrust setting is prohibited on runways contaminated with what

A

Standing water, snow, slush, or ice

258
Q

What is the maximum ITT during engine start on the ground and inflight

A

750 and 875

259
Q

What is the maximum continuous ITT

A

995

260
Q

True or False: Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the first leg of the flight has been inserted

A

FALSE. Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the entire content of the flight plan has been inserted

Global 7500 (5 decks)

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