CAE Flashcards
1
Q
True or false warning messages are always visible and shown at the top of the CAS messages list.
A
True
2
Q
True or false in the event of an emergency, a warning CAS message is shown and a single chime is heard.
A
False
3
Q
True or false some warnings, caution, and all advisory CAS messages are inhibited during the takeoff and landing phases of flight
A
True
4
Q
True or false when the CAS annunciation is shown and the last CAS message page is in view, pressing the CAS QAK on the MKP expands the CAS message list and returns to the 1st page of the list.
A
True
5
Q
True or false when the flight compartment speakers are muted, aural alerts are still heard in the headphones.
A
True
6
Q
True or false when the autopilot is engaged, AP is shown in green in the center of the flight mode announciator FMA
A
True
7
Q
What occurs if an attempt is made to engage the autopilot AP when no flight director FD modes are active
A
The autopilot will engage, and the roll/heading hold (ROOL) and flight path angle (FPA) modes will activate
8
Q
Under which condition does the autopilot automatically disengage
A
During reversion to flight control system direct mode stick shaker activation except in windshield escape mode and the autopilot fault has been detected
9
Q
What alerts the flight Crew when the autopilot disengages automatically or is manually disengaged
A
AP annunciation on the flight mode annunciator (FMA) flashes red and a calvary charge aural alert continually sounds
10
Q
What information is shown on the far right side of the flight mode announciator FMA
A
Alternate data source in use
11
Q
If the autopilot AP is engaged when the couple (CPL) pushbutton in the center of the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed, what happens
A
The other FD channel within the active DMC is coupled to the AP, the green arrow on the other side of the CPL pushbutton on the FCP comes on, the FD mode changes. Caution message is shown on the EICAS and the master caution PBA comes on and flashes
12
Q
True or False when the couple (CPL) pushbutton on the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed the direction of the arrow in the middle of the flight mode annunciator (FMA) changes in use. All FD modes are reset to basic and must be reselected
A
True
13
Q
If the basic roll/heading hold (ROLL) mode is active, under which condition will the flight director (FD) hold a heading
A
Airplane back angle 5° or less
14
Q
What indicates that the heading (HDG) mode has been endabled
A
The green HDG is shown on left side of the flight mode annunciator FMA and the green light above the HDG pushbutton on the flight control panel FCP is ON
15
Q
What is required for an automatic NAV-to-NAV transfer to occur
A
The flight director FD lateral mode is FMS or HDG, the APPR button on the flight control panel FCP is pressed and the localizer is captured
16
Q
Under which conditions is flight path angle mode enabled
A
A selected vertical mode is lost or disselected a single lateral mode is selected with no active vertical mode and the FD pushbutton on the flight control panel FCP is selected ON after having been switched OFF.
17
Q
What is shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA after an altitude capture sequence is completed and the flight director FD is tracking a new altitude selector altitude
A
Green ALTS
18
Q
Which pushbutton activates VNAV
A
VNAV pushbutton
19
Q
Which of the following are active or armed VNAV modes
VALTV
ALTV
VALT
ALT
A
VALTV and VALT
20
Q
When would VFLC be shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA
A
The flight director FD commands a flight level change when VNAV is active and the pilot commands a flight level change when VNAV is active.
21
Q
Under which conditions is the emergency descent mode EDM automatically enabled
A
The autopilot is engaged, cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500 ft, and the airplane altitude is more than 25,000 ft
22
Q
What does a flashing mode annunciation on the flight mode annunciator FMA indicate
A
A new mode has been activated
23
Q
How are the active and armed autothrottle AT modes shown on the flight mode annunciator FMA
A
Active modes are shown in green above the white armed modes
24
Q
True or False The active FD/AT is shown in the center of the flight mode annunciator FMA as either AT1 or AT2 but only when the AT is engaged
A
True
25
What alerts the flight crew when the autothrottle AT disengages
AT1 or AT2 annuciator on the FMA flashes amber amber and a continuous "AUTOTHROTTLE" aural alert is heard
26
True or False Speed control SPD mode is a basic mode of the autothrottle AT
True
27
What is the maximum operating altitude of the Global 7500 airplane
51,000 ft
28
True or false the minimum runway with for a 180ﾟ turn is 68.55
False
29
What does the auxiliary power unit provide?
AC electrical power and bleed air
30
What is shown on the SERVICE synoptic or the EICAS if the APU inlet door fails open?
The door angle is shown in amber on the SERVICE synoptic and an APU DOOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS
31
The APU oil sump is monitored and oil quantity is shown on the SERVICE synoptic. what can be use to refill the oil pump?
The oil replenishment system on the REPLENISH tab or the gravity oil fill port located on the gearbox.
32
From where is fuel normally supplied to the APU
Right wing collector tank
33
For what is APU bleed air used
Environmental control system ECS main engine starting, and fuel tank inerting system FTIS
34
What normally occurs during the APU shutdown when the APU rotary switch is selected OFF
There is a 1-minute cool down before the actual shutdown occurs
35
What are some conditions that trigger an emergency shutdown of the APU in flight
Failure of both speed sensors or an actual overspeed
36
What occurs when a volume knob on the audio control panel is unlatched in the raised position
Audio for that system is heard
37
How is the radio tuned
Control tuning panels CTP and display tuning
38
What is the purpose of the 1/2 pushbutton on the control tuning panel CTP
Activates tuning of the cross side radios
39
How is the XPDR/TCAS CONTROL page accessed from tuning page 1 of the control tuning panel CTP
By pressing twice on the line select key LSK adjacent to the transponder code
40
When does the cockpit voice recorder CVR automatically record
Upon application of electrical power
41
What is the purpose of the data link communication system
It provides two-way communication between the airplane and the airplane communication addressing and reporting system ACARS network
42
Which two transmission systems are used by the data link communication system
VHF data link VDL and satellite communications SATCOM
43
Which message is shown at the bottom of the APPLICATION MENU page when the datalink system is unavailable?
NO COMM
44
From what panels can the cursor be controlled
Cursor control panel CCP and multifunction keyboard panel MKP
45
True or False The MEM key on the multifunction keyboard panel can be used to store format configurations
TRUE
46
To configure the PFD to occupy the full or half width of the DUs what should be selected
FULL/HALF pushbutton on the onside controll tuning panel CTP
47
True or False when a cursor enters an MFW occupied by the other cursor the 1st cursor is bumped and is removed from the display unit
True
48
What happens to the PFD on DU1 if DU1 fails
It moves to DU2
49
When and where is the status of the fuselage doors is visible?
Throughout the flight on the EICAS only
50
Where is the passenger door viewing aid located
Forward of the passenger door on the crew closet bulkhead.
51
True or False A vent flap in the passenger door opens to equalize cabin pressure when either the interior or exterior door handle is lifted
True
52
Describe three ways to close the passenger door
From the exterior switch located next to the passenger door, from the interior switch located inside the door frame adjacent to the passenger door, and using the manual closing device in the event of a motor failure
53
The manual closing pull handle is used to manually close the passenger door. Where is it located?
Inside the airplane on the door motor forward of the passenger door.
54
How are interior pocket doors operated
Electronically or mechanically by 1 of the 2 pushbuttons located on the forward and aft side of the bulkhead and by the interior cabin door rotary switch located in the flight compartment.
55
Name the different types of electronic checklists
normal airplane flight manual AFM checklist, non normal AFM procedures (with and without crew alerting system CAS messages), and user defined procedures that store items of importance to the user but are not part of the AFM
56
Which electronic checklist page shows normal checklist for all phases of flight
Normal page
57
Which electronic checklist page shows non normal checklists that are started completed or overridden
Non-normal page and Summary page
58
True or False when the ECL is not available all content is removed and checklist not available is shown on the page
True
59
When a notification item in a checklist is selected in what color are the notifications and it's surrounding Box shown?
All notification items are shown in green
60
True or False. The airplane uses both 115 VAC and 28 VDC electrical power
True
61
When does the RAT deploy
Following a total loss of AC power in flight or when the manual RAT deployment handle is lifted
62
What does the BATT LOADS switch do
Disconnect most electrical loads from the battery
63
Where is the external ground power panel located
On the lower body fairing just forward of the right engine
64
True or False in the event of a malfunction one VFG can supply the entire electrical system but the APU generator cannot replace either or both VFG's
FALSE
65
What is the function of the EXT AC PBA on the electrical panel
Connect and disconnect external AC power to the airplane
66
On the electrical panel what does a cyan AVAIL indication on the EXT AC pushbutton annunciator indicate?
External AC power is connected to the airplane and capable of supplying up to 60 kVA
67
What Supplies AC power
A variable frequency generator VFG mounted on each engine's accessory gearbox and external ground power.
68
What voltage do the transformer rectifier units TRU's receive from the AC buses before converting and distributing it to the DC buses?
115 VAC power
69
What is the purpose of the two permanent magnet generators PMG's
Provide a secondary power source to the fly by wire power converters FBWPC's
70
To what buses do the DC electrical power centers control the routine of DC power from the TRUs and batterys
DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2.
MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS. DC ESS BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS 2
71
When are the MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS powered
At all times regardless of the position of the MAIN BATT and APU BATT switches on the electrical panel.
72
During bus isolation when is power removed from the AC BUS 2?
When R GEN PBA is selected off
73
In the event of a total loss of AC power what is the source of emergency AC power
Ram air turbine RAT
74
True or False the RAT generator when deployed and operating supplies the ESS TRU through the AC ESS BUS at airplane speeds above 147 kt
True
75
True or False at the speed below a 147 knots. The ESS TRU is disconnected and the AC ESS BUS is powered by the airplane batteries
False
76
True or False non essential electrical equipment is temporarily shed during periods of high power demand
True
77
What does selecting the TRIP acknowledgment soft key do
Confirms the breaker tripper state changes the breaker state from TRIP to OUT and removes the CB TRIP message from the EICAS if no other TRIP acknowledgment soft key are active
78
True or False the CB CONFIG switch must be selected off, and the airplane rotary switch must be selected to NORM prior to flight
True
79
What is the maximum Thrust of the GE Passport 20 engine as installed on the Global 7500 airplane
18,920 lb
80
Which statement are true with regards to the FADEC
A) A permanent magnet alternator PMA serves as a backup electrical power source
B) A PMA serves as a dedicated electrical power source
C) The FADEC is supported be a dual channel electronic engine controller EEC
D) The FADEC is a dual channel system each FADEC channel is supported by an EEC
B and D
81
True or False the hydraulic system powers the thrust reversers.
True
82
What is the capacity of each engine oil tank and how can the engine oil be replenished?
11.6 qt, Replenished by it's fill port or the oil replenishment system
83
True or False the function of the fuel oil heat exchanger is to cool the fuel
False
84
True or False: The FADEC uses both ignitors for all airstarts
True
85
On which parameter is a reduced thrust takeoff FLX calculated?
Assumed temperature
86
When the engines are in TO mode and the engine fails the other engine transitions to which mode
Maximum continuous thrust MCT
87
When the uncommanded left thrust reverser deployment occurs a red REV icon is shown inside the left analog N1 gauge what else happens.
The FADEC limits thrust to idle regardless of the thrust lever position the L reverser unlocked warning message is shown on the EICAS and the left Reverser unlock aural messages is heard
88
True or False: During inflight starts, the priority bleed source for engine starting is the opposite engine.
True
89
Which push button annunciator PBA on the BLEED/AIR COND panel closes the hot air shutoff valves HASOVs
TRIM Air
90
Which control located on the pressurization panel immediately closes the outflow valve.
Outflow valve 1 or 2 PBAs
91
Up to what maximum cabin altitude can the cabin be depressurized when The EMER DEPRESS guarded PBA is pressed
14500 ft (+-500)
92
Under normal conditions where can the flight crew monitor the oxygen quantity?
EICAS and BLEED synoptic
93
True or False: The overboard discharge indicator consists of a breakable green nylon disc, located forward of the passenger door on the lower left fuselage, which pops out when excess oxygen Is discharged overboard.
True
94
Which rotary switch mode setting on the flight mask provides a mixture of ambient air and oxygen on demand and is adjusted for cabin altitude.
N (Normal)
95
When the passenger oxygen rotary switch is set to normal at what cabin altitude will the passenger masks deploy automatically?
14500 ft +- 500
96
Which flight control surfaces are hydraulically positioned by power control units PCU
Rudder, Ailerons, and Spoilers
97
True or False: In fly-by-wire FBW direct mode, envelope protections and most structural protections are lost
True
98
What indicates that both sidesticks are being operated simultaneously?
DUAL INPUT aural warning is heard and red DUAL message is shown on both primary flight displays PFD
99
What occurs when the sidestick. AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held to established momentary sidestick priority
Green PTY annunciation flashes in onside glareshield SIDESTICK guarded PBA and a Priority Left or Priority Right aural message is heard three times
100
What do the three multifunction spoiler MFS pairs on each wing provide
Roll assist, speed brake control, and ground lift dumping
101
True or False: The horizontal stabilizer HSTAB is electrically controlled and electromechanically actuated
True
102
What is true regarding airplane roll control
Bank angles greater than 30° require continuous sidestck deflection, and when sidestick released at a 45° bank angle, airplane automatically recovers to a 30° bank angle
103
What is the limit for noseup nosedown pitch attitudes
17° noseup on the ground
30° noseup in flight and 20° nosedown
104
In FBW normal mode which indications occur when the airspeed is at or below VAOA SOFT
Stick Shaker activates, and airplane pitch attitude is automatically reduced so that minimum speed is limited
105
When FBW overspeed protection is active, what indicates that airspeed is above VMAX plus 4 kt
Airspeed readout turns red and a continuous "CHIRP" aural alert is heard
106
Which compensation is automatically provided by the fly-by-wire system during an engine failure
Partial yaw compensation
107
Which flight controls provide feedback to the fly-by-wire FBW system, but are not controlled by it?
Slats and flaps
108
True or False: The slats and flaps are electrically positioned
True
109
When can the flight crew use the IAS/MACH pushbutton to select between an IAS or Mach tape
When airspeed is greater than 0.4 Mach
110
True or False: The radar altitude RA is a digital readout that is shown on the PFD when the airplane descends through 2500 ft AGL
True
111
What indicates a heading failure on the primary flight display
A red HDG fail flag flashes for 5 seconds and then remains steady
112
Which format selections are available from the MAP drop down menu
MAP, ROUTE, and PLAN
113
For what is the SYMBOL drop down list on the menu bar used
Turn on and off multiple map elements on the selected MAP or PLAN formats
114
When using IFIS charts, what does a magenta airplane symbol shown on WGS-84 compliant chart indcate
Airplane is outside of chart boundaries
115
From which panel can the air data source for the left or right PFD be manually changed
Reversion switch panel RSP
116
In which color is the ADSP indication shown on the PFD when both PFDs use the same air data source
Amber
117
Where is the control to adjust the brightness of the HUD located
On the glareshield
118
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the flight path acceleration cue
A) When the flight path acceleration cue is above the FPV wing the airplane is accelerating
B) When the cue is below the FPV wing the airplane is decelerating
C) The flight path acceleration cue is a hollow rectangle of variable height and fixed width. It is shown on the FPV left wing
D) The flight path acceleration cue is the right pointing hollow arrowhead located to the left side of the FPV
A,B,and D
119
What is pressed to show the synthetic vision system SVS image on the HUD
Pressing the HUD knob
120
True or False: A chronometer is only visible on the PFD when the CHR pushbutton on the glareshield is pressed
True
121
Which quick access key QAK opens the FMS message box
MSG
122
How is the MESSAGES-FMS dialog box accessed
By selecting the MSG soft key on the lower edge of any multifunction window or by selecting the MSG key on the QAK on the multifunction keyboard panel
123
On which FMS page is the airplane center of gravity position and limits shown
WT & BAL
124
Which section of the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to view fuel onboard as determined by tank sensors without fuel flow consideration
Sensed mode
125
Which section on the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to estimate fuel based on measured fuel flow and ground speed values only.
Measured mode
126
True or False: If an immediate return to the departure airfield is required, the departure data from DEP PERF can be transferred directly to the ARR PERF page on the FMS.
True
127
There are three modes available in the CRZ tab on the VNAV-THRST page in the FMS What is provided by the MX mode
A maximum speed target is set based on cruise altitude
128
Which conditions are required for the FMS to generate a step optimization
At least 200 lb of fuel is saved or the step optimization reduces flight time by at least 2 minutes.
129
Which FMS page shows the active navigation database.
FMS DB
130
True or False: All default values stored in the DEFAULTS pages are fixed and cannot be modified.
False
131
What is used to select temperature compensation (TEMP COMP)
Index (IDX) soft key and ARR perf page
132
True or False: Magenta needles are shown on the PFD when guidance is through the FMS.
True
133
True or False: The flight crew can modify the flight plan graphically by selecting map symbols.
True
134
Which function or key is used to insert multiple points into an existing route on the MFW.
The REROUTE function with the CCP
135
Which field pump is considered a backup pump
The AUX pump
136
Which fuel tank ejectors do not have motive flow shut off valves?
Wing inner tank scavenge ejectors
137
What does the engine fuel cross feed system enable?
Enables an engine to be fed from both collector tanks and both engines to be fed from a single collector tank.
138
True or False: The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tank is only manually controlled.
False The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tank is only automatically controlled by the computer.
139
What is the purpose of the fuel resurculation system?
Prevents wing tank fuel from reaching its freezing point
140
What is true about the PRESEL toggle switch on the REFUEL/DEFUEL control panel
A) Controls individual refuel/default shutoff valves in the refueling manifold
B) Sets the total fuel load requirement
C) Active in AUTO REFUEL mode
D) Use to increase or decrease PRESEL fuel quantity
B,C,and D
141
True or False: The FTIS generates nitrogen-enrich air NEA to replace the ambient air in the center and after fuel tanks and to reduce the risk of fuel fume Igniting.
True
142
Where are the inboard and outboard brake pressure shown.
HYD synoptic
143
Where is the break temperature shown
EICAS and SERVICE synoptic
144
Which systems are required for normal landing gear extension and retraction cycles?
Hydraulic system 2 and 3
145
If the PARK/EMER BRAKE lever is set and the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff which aural warning is heard and which warning message is shown on the EICAS
NO TAKEOFF and PARK/EMER BRAKE ON
146
When the AUTOBRAKE switch is selected to LO, MED, or HI for landing, what would disarm the autobrake system
When the brake pedals are activated and if either BCU channel detects a BCU fault
147
When the nosewheel steering system is active? What are the respective nosewheel angles that correspond to a full deflection of the runner pedals and tiller
9° and 82.5°
148
Which pumps provide power to the hydraulic system 1
Main pump EDP 1A and backup pump ACMP 1B
149
Under which conditions do the backup pumps come on
During the takeoff roll, when slats and flaps are extended and thrust levers are advanced, and for landing, when slats and flaps are extended
150
The hydraulic shutoff valve close automatically when hydraulic fluid temperature exceeds normal conditions. How can they be closed manually? Two ways
By pressing the L or R ENG guarded PBA on the FIRE panel or pressing the L or R HYD SOV PBA on the HYDRAULIC panel.
151
What indicates that a filter is clogged?
A tab pops out on the filter manifold.
152
Which statements regarding the ecology bottles for hydraulic system 3 are correct?
A) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottles are located in the aft equipment bay.
B) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottles are located forward of the wing-to-body faring.
C) Hydraulic system 3 uses two ecology bottles
D) Hydraulic system 3 uses one ecology bottle
B and C
153
What is the ram air turbine (RAT) designed to do regarding the hydraulics
Powers hydraulics 3 when deployed
154
Which bleed air source is used to prevent ice from forming on the wing leading edges and the engine cowls
Engines only
155
True or False: When the wing anti-ice rotary switch is in AUTO mode the wing anti-ice system is inhibited on the ground and during takeoff up to 1,500 ft AGL and 2 minutes after reaching an airspeed of 60 kt or greater
True
156
On the BLEED synoptic, when is a wing leading edge shown in amber
The temperature is below the proper range
157
True or False: The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP, AOA, and TAT heaters when the airplane is in flight
False, The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP AOA and TAT heaters when the airplane is on the ground, when the airplane is connected to a ground cart, and when the auxiliary power unit APU is running.
158
True or False: The RIGHT rotary switch on the WINDSHIELD HEAT panel controls the heating of the right windshield and the left side window
True
159
If both ice detectors fail during icing conditions what caution message is shown and what must the crew do
The ICA DETCTOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS and the flight crew must manually select the WING L and R COWL rotary switches to ON if there are visible icing conditions
160
Which knob controls the brightness of the dome light in the flight compartment?
AREA LIGHTS knob
161
True or False: Instrumentation lights lamp test can be carried out from the TEST tab on the MISC page.
True
162
The nose landing gear lights only come on when the NLG switch is in the PULSE or STEADY position and what other condition is present.
Nose gear is down and locked
163
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position activates emergency lights when DC essential bus power is lost
ARM
164
In AUTO mode when does the seat belts sign come on
When the landing gear is down, or cabin altitude is greater than 8,000 ft, or slats/flaps are not in the FLAP 0 position
165
True or False: Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from the external lighting panel aft of the passenger door
False Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from a switch in the rear equipment bay
166
True or False: GNSS Status and position are shown on the Initialization (INIT) and SENSORS pages of the FMS.
True
167
When the GNSS is checking the almanac and searching for visible satellites, which operating mode is shown on the GNSS 1 or 2 tab on the SENSORS page.
ACQUISITION
168
From the GNSS 1 or 2 tab on the lower part of the SENSORS page? What can the flight crew do?
Initiate a P-RAIM calculation
169
On which FMS page is IRS operational information shown.
INIT page and SENSORS page
170
Under which conditions does the stationary alignment mode align the IRU?
When speed is less than or equal to 30 kt
171
If the GNSS or ADS data is lost or unavailable during an align-in-motion alignment, which operating mode is shown on the SENSORS page?
ATITUDE
172
What does it mean when an IRS SET HDG caution message is shown on the EICAS?
That manual entry of magnetic heading on the IRS tab is required
173
When is the Amber ROL miscompair flag is shown on the PFD?
When there is a difference of more than 4° between the bank angle indications on each PFD
174
From which location can navigation receivers be tuned and controlled?
Control tuning panel CTPs communication navigation surveillance CNS TUNE page and MAP format.
175
What does the fight crew press to select the onside or cross-side VHF navigation receiver (VOR/LOC) as the navigation source
NAV pushbutton on the control tuning panel CTP
176
Under what conditions does the NAV-to-NAV Preview functions show localizer data and indications on the HSI.
A localizer-based Approach is Selected in the FMS and the airplane is within 31 NM of the destination airport
177
What indicates the DME hold frequency shown on the CTP NAV1 CONTROL page?
Small green font and cyan H
178
True or False: If the FIDEEX system detects a short circuit on one of the APU eductor fire detection loops, fire protection is provided by the operable single-detection loop.
True
179
Which functions occur when the L or R ENG FIRE PBA is pressed.
Engine fuel feed shutoff valve closes, hydraulic shutoff valve closes, and pressure regulating shutoff valve PRSOV closes, and the generator is taken offline. BTL1 and BTL2 PBAs illuminate green AVAIL and the engine Ignition is disabled.
180
If the L or R ENG FIRE warning continues after the fire extinguisher bottle 1 is deployed. What must the flight crew do?
Press the BTL 2 PBA to discharge the 2nd bottle.
181
What actions occur when the FIDEEX system detects fire in an unattended APU on the ground?
The APU bay horn sounds, the APU shuts down automatically, and fire bottle 2 discharges automatically into the APU.
182
Which statement best describes the fire extinguisher bottles?
A) 2 fire bottles are shared by the engines and a 3rd bottle is shared by the baggage Bay and APU
B) 2 fire bottles are shared by the engines bottle 1 is used for the baggage Bay and bottle 2 is used for the APU.
B
183
If a smoke detector fails in the baggage bay lavatory or avionics bay, what is displayed
A caution message is presented on the EICAS
184
What areas are monitored by smoke detectors
Avionics Bay and racks, lavatories, closets, passenger cabin, crew area, and baggage bay.
185
To see directional arrows accompanying the traffic symbols that show on the HSI and MAP format the airplane must have _____ capability and the intruder airplane must have ________ capability
ADS-B IN and CDTI/ADS-B OUT
186
What type of advisory is issued when the flight path of an intruder airplane is predicted to penetrate protected airspace within 30 seconds.
Resolution advisory RA
187
When a resolution advisory is issued by the TCAS, a green path cue is shown on the ADI. If TFC is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, what is shown on the HSI and MAP formats
A solid red square
188
Which statement about the TAWS alert mode PBAs (GS, FLAPS, TERRAIN) are true?
A) The TAWS alert modes are active by default.
B) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a white OFF annunciation on the PBA
C) Alert mode PBAs must be pressed to become active.
D) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a green ON annunciation on the PBA
A and B
189
True or False: The TAWS shows terrain on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW when TERRAIN is selected from the OVLY drop-down list.
True
190
When is the "SINK RATE" aural alert heard
When the rate of descent is excessive for the current altitude.
191
When is the terrain clearance floor function primarily used
When flying around the landing Airport?
192
True or False: After adjusting the gain setting, it automatically returns to the NORM position.
False
193
What is the maximum turbulence detection range
40 nm
194
True or False: When in AUTO mode, the system is designed to show significant weather at all airplane altitudes and does not require the flight crew to adjust the gain or tilt.
True
195
True or False: The path attenuation compensation PAC function is available in both AUTO and MAN modes.
False
196
When is the lightning detection overlay shown on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW?
When WX + LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, or LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list
197
True or False: The maximum lightning detection range is 200 nm
True
198
What is shown when the LDS is Inhibited to prevent communication radio transmission interference for more than 1 minute.
LX FAIL in amber on the MAP format
199
What does the highlighted cyan arrow represent on the airport chart
A departure runway that was loaded into the active FMS flight plan.
200
What is the purpose of the airport moving map application
To provide a graphical image of the airport map to assist in ground movement and airplane position
201
What are TLAF takeoff alerts
RUNWAY MISCOMPARE, NOT A RUNWAY, and SHORT RUNWAY
202
True or False: The SMS SHORT RWY INOP advisory message is shown on the EICAS when the airplane is within 31 nm of the landing field length has not been calculated by the FMS
True
203
What are the maximum takeoff and landing weights
Max takeoff weight 114,850 lb Max landing weight 87,600 lb
204
What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Global 7500 airplane
67,500 lb
205
When taking off near bodies of water and your takeoff weight is above the maximum landing weight, _________ must be shut down and ___________ must be closed
R air conditioning pack, OUTFLOW VLV 2
206
True or False: It is not acceptable to hold in icing conditions with slats extended
True
207
What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing
10 kt
208
Ground operation of the display units with flight compartment in excess of _______ for more than _____ is prohibited
40°c for more than 30 minutes
209
What is the takeoff thrust limitation for two engines and a single engine
5 minutes, 10 minutes
210
What is the maximum tailwind for engine start
20 kt
211
On takeoff, the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. What is the static engine checks maximum N1%
90%
212
On takeoff the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. The brake release must be achieved within ____ of _____ being achieved
2 seconds, takeoff N1
213
On takeoff, the wind is 70° off centerline and the crosswind component is 21 kt. What is the maximum N1 _______ below _____ KIAS
60%, 30
214
What is the engine starter limitations? Start number 1 and 2 on for _____ off for ____. Start 3 to 10 on for _____ off for _____
5 minutes, 5 minutes
5 minutes, 15 minutes
215
What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using bleed from the other engine
30,000 ft
216
What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using the APU as a source of bleed
23,000
217
What is the engine air start below 195 kt maximum altitude
15,000 ft
218
What is the maximum fuel imbalance on the ground and in flight?
600 lb, 1,100 lb
219
What is the minimum fuel quantity for manual wing to win transfer
2,500 lb per wing
220
What is the minimum required quantity per wing during a go-around?
750 lb
221
Fuel cross feed must be off for takeoff and landing. What about for dual engine?
For dual engine operations having the crossfeed valve open is prohibited below 10,000 ft
222
Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when the OTA is at what temperature or below.
-12°c
223
What is the maximum APU starting altitude.
45,000 ft
224
What is the maximum number of APU starts?
3 in 1 hour
225
What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed extraction for ECS?
25,000 ft
226
What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
-40°c
227
What is the maximum airplane operating Mmo
.925 Mach
228
What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo between 35,000 and 20,000 ft
320 kt CAS
229
What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo 8000' ft and below?
300 kt CAS
230
What is the maximum speed for turbulence penetration?
265 kt IAS from sea level to 8000' ft linearly increasing to 285 kt IAS at 10000' ft
231
What is the maximum speed for flap 1
225 kt IAS
232
What is the maximum airspeed for flap 2?
210 kt IAS
233
What is the Maximum air speed for flap 3.
210 kt IAS
234
What is the maximum speed for flap 4?
185 kt IAS
235
What is the tire limit speed
195 kt ground speef
236
During taxi and takeoff the pressure differential must not exceed what psi.
.1 PSI
237
During touchdown the pressure differential must not exceed what psi
1.0 psi
238
Auxiliary pressurization is prohibited above what height
41,000 ft
239
Is FMS speed authorized during single engine operation.
No
240
What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement
400 ft AGL
241
Above what height is flight prohibited with slats/flaps extended?
18,000 ft
242
Below what height must flights spoilers be retracted?
300 ft AGL
243
Is there any restriction for use of the MAX spoiler?
It is prohibited except during emergency conditions or as required by AFM procedures.
244
When conducting an approach in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83 the SVS shall be selected or deselected prior to passing the FAF.
Deselected
245
During takeoff, approach, and landing operations in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83 must the SMS runway switch must be selected on or off.
OFF
246
Is parking the airplane with the use of reverse thrusts allowed or prohibited?
Prohibited
247
True or False: When exiting a hold with a course change of greater than a 150ﾟ the FMS may depict the term direction incorrectly on the MFW MAP
True
248
True or False: The use of VNAV guidance is allowed when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation QFE operation.
False The use of VNAV guidance is prohibited when the barometric attitude is corrected to the landing field elevation QFE operation.
249
Speed constraints on the last waypoint of the STAR and the 1st waypoint of the approach must be verified on what format.
ACT FPLN ROUTE format
250
When flying a NAV-to-NAV or ILS based approach, do not ARM APPR until within _______ of the run way approach course
70°
251
True or False: LPV approach operations to LPV minimums must not be commenced unless 2 FMS's and 2 SBAS GNSS sensors are fully operational and independently displayed.
True
252
FMS as a primary navigation source beyond the FAF is prohibited unless what is annunciated on the PFD/HUD.
RNP APPR or LPV APPR
253
FMS as a supplementary navigation source beyond the FAF is permitted when APPR or REF APPR is annunciated on the PFD/HUD if the navigation air referenced in the approach procedure is ______ and _______ by the flight crew during the approach.
Displayed, monitored
254
GNSS sensors must be selected or disselected when on approach in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83.
Deselected
255
Is selection of FANS CPDLC INSER MOD within 2 minutes of a TO waypoint allowed or prohibited.
Prohibited
256
True or False: FPLN UPLINK must be completed or canceled prior to taxi?
True
257
Takeoff using FLEX thrust setting is prohibited on runways contaminated with what
Standing water, snow, slush, or ice
258
What is the maximum ITT during engine start on the ground and inflight
750 and 875
259
What is the maximum continuous ITT
995
260
True or False: Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the first leg of the flight has been inserted
FALSE. Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the entire content of the flight plan has been inserted
