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Global 7500 > 7500 Oral Exam > Flashcards

7500 Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Global 7500 wing span, length, and tail height?

A

104 ft wingspan
111ft 2in length
27 ft tail height

Tail height can be as high as 28ft and higher on a downward sloping hanger

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2
Q

Is the minimum pavement width required for a 180ﾟ turn for the landing gear?

A

75 ft

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3
Q

What is the minimum width for wing tip clearance required to make a term

A

129 ft
The wind tip will pass between 5.5’ft past the nose and extend 4.5’ft wider than when parked as a turn is made.

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4
Q

Max rap weight

A

115,100 lb

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5
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

114,850 lb

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6
Q

Max landing weight

A

87,600 lb

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7
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

67,500 lb

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8
Q

Minimum or maximum runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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9
Q

May operations from unprepared runways be conducted.

A

No

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10
Q

What is the normal circling approach aircraft configuration and speed?

A

Flaps 4
Vref +10 Until manuvering is complete Vref on final approach

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11
Q

What is the prioritization of handling checklist procedures from high to low.

A

Emergency procedures
Normal procedures
Caution procedures
Advisory procedures
Info message during ground operation.

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12
Q

What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff or forced emergency landing near bodies of water above maximum landing weight?

A

Outflow valve two close, right Pack off?

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13
Q

Mmo above FL350

A

.925 M

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14
Q

Vmo below 8,000 ft

A

300 kt

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15
Q

What is the turbulence penetration speed?

A

265 kt from sea level to 8,000 ft, linearly increasing to 285 kt at 10,000 ft

285kt from 10,000 ft and above or .85 M whichever is lower

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16
Q

Is the maximum certified operating altitude

A

FL 510

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17
Q

The maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000 ft pressure altitude

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18
Q

What is the maximum / minimum ambient temperature for takeoff

A

ISA + 40°C
-40°C

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19
Q

Is the maximum tailwind component for engine start

A

20 kt

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20
Q

For crosswinds greater than 18kt and more than 30ﾟ from the airplane centerline. What is the take off procedure

A

Do not exceed 60% N1 below 30 kt
At 30 kt promptly set TO thrust.

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21
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing

A

10 kt

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22
Q

What is the maximum authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps?

A

18,000 ft

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23
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear extended

A

20,000 ft

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24
Q

What is the minimum altitude flight spoilers must be retracted on approach

A

300 ft

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25
Q

Are there any limitations on the use of max spoilers

A

Use of Max spoilers is prohibited except during emergency conditions or as required by AFM procedures.

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26
Q

What is the maximum flap 1 extended speed

A

225 kt

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27
Q

What is the maximum flap two speed

A

210 kt

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28
Q

What is the maximum flaps three speed

A

210 kt

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29
Q

Maximum flap four speed

A

185 kt

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30
Q

What is Vlo

A

200 kt

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31
Q

What is Vle

A

250 kt

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32
Q

What is tire limiting speed

A

195 kt

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33
Q

What is flaps 2 and 3 Vmcg

A

106kt

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34
Q

What is flaps 2 and 3 Vmca at sea level

A

Flaps 2 100 kt
Flaps 3 98 kt

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35
Q

What is Vmcl ( Minimum control air speed landing) at sea level

A

Flaps 2 / gear down 103 kt
Flaps 4 / gear down 96 kt

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36
Q

Which pumps supply normal hydraulic pressure to the hydraulic system

A

The tree “A” pumps which operate continuously

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37
Q

Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps

A

Systems 1 and 2 by EDP 1A and 2A

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38
Q

How is the hydraulic reservoir quantities accurately checked in the flight compartment before engine start?

A

Turn on the “B” and PTU pumps to pressurize the system then ues the hydraulic synoptic page to read the value

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39
Q

What is the normal hydraulic system pressure

A

3,000 psi

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40
Q

What is the type of hydraulic fluid used in the airplane

A

Phosphate Ester type lV or V low density fluid. Skydrol.

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41
Q

How many AC motor pump ACMP pumps may be operating on the ground while on APU or external AC power

A

2

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42
Q

When in AUTO, when will the ACMP AC motor pump 1B operate

A

•When airplane is in the takeoff or approach phase
•When the engine driven pump EDP 1A failed or LH engine is not running in flight (low pressure in the number 1 system)
• The PTU is operating and either EDP 2A has failed or RH engine is not running

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43
Q

When in AUTO, when will AC motor pump ACMP 3B operate

A

•The airplane is in the takeoff and approach phase.
•ACMP 3A has failed in flight (low pressure)

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44
Q

When in AUTO, when will the PTU operate

A

•When the airplane is in the takeoff or approach phase
•When the engine driven pump EDP 2A has failed
•When the RH engine is not running in flight
• On the ground with only the LH engine running & the parking brake released. Note During single engine taxi with the right engine off the PTU supplies pressure to the brake accumulator for steering

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45
Q

How are the engine driven pump EDP HYD shutoff valve SOVs closed

A

•The L(R) HYD SOV guarded PBA on the HYD panel is pressed
•The L(R) ENG FIRE guarded PBA on the FIRE panel is pressed
•When HYD systems 1 & 2 reservoirs detect excessive fluid temperature (125°c) the valves close automatically

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46
Q

What are the electrically driven hydraulic pumps and their associated electrical power source?

A

•1B-AC BUS 2
•3A-AC BUS 2
•3B-AC BUS 1
•PTU-DC BUS 1 (PTU select valve)
Note the electrical system sheds individual pieces of equipment and not buses. Memorization of buses is of no value. In the event of an electrical fire, where buses will be isolated the checklist contains the bus equipment listing

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47
Q

Which hydraulic system can be powered by the ram air turbine RAT

A

System 3

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48
Q

What should the ram air turbine RAT/bootstrap accumulator pre-charge pressure be when the hydraulic system is depressurized

A

1,100 +/- 100 psi
Note This is for 15°c there is a correction placard showing valid pressure ranges for other temp near the gauge

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49
Q

What should the brake accumulator’s precharge pressure be when the hydraulic system is depressurized?

A

650 +/- 100psi

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50
Q

How is hydraulic fluid cooled

A

Heat exchangers located in the fuel tanks.

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51
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are available/operating during single generator operations in flight.

A

•The operating engine hydraulic pump EDP
•A maximum of 2 AC motor pumps ACMP can be powered by a single generator
•Above 43,000ft only one ACMP can be powered by the APU generator

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52
Q

What are the sources of airplane generated AC power

A

•Two 115VAC 60kVA engine driven variable frequency generators (67.5kVA for 5 min, 75kVA for 2 min, 90kVA for 5 sec)
•One 115VAC 60kVA APU generator (67.5kVA for 5 min, 75kVA for 2 min, 90kVA for 5 sec)
•One 115VAC 9kVA Ram air turbine RAT when all other AC sources have been lost (23.5kVA for 5 min, 18kVA for 5 sec)

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53
Q

In the event of a single generator operation which AC buses are automatically shed.

A

None a single generator supplies power to all three AC buses although some high load users such as certain hydraulic system pumps are load shed

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54
Q

What doesn’t EXT AC “AVAIL” annunciator on the electrical panel indicate

A

•External AC power is connected
•The power is the correct voltage & frequency
•External power is not on line

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55
Q

Where is the location of the external ground power panel

A

Lower body fairing below the right engine

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56
Q

Which buses are powered with external AC connected, on and in normal mode

A

All AC and DC buses are powered

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57
Q

What is the AC priority source for AC BUS 1 & 2

A

•Onside engine VFG
•APU Generator
•External AC Power
•Opposite side engine VFG

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58
Q

What Is the voltage and ampere-hours ratings for the batteries?

A

24VDC, 28Ah

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59
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for start

A

22VDC

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60
Q

Where are the APU and Main Batteries located

A

•APU battery is in the belly fairing compartment below the baggage bay door
•Main battery is in forward equipment bay in the nose of the airplane

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61
Q

How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole source of power?

A

Minimum of 5 minutes

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62
Q

How do you know when a battery is not being charged

A

•A cyan DISCHARGING indication on top of the battery on the ELEC synoptic page
•A cyan BATT DISCHARGING CAS message
•If the ELECT synoptic page shows 24VDC or less and decreasing, it is not being charged

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63
Q

Which DC buses are automatically shed during a single TRU fail

A

None all remain powered

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64
Q

Which DC buses are automatically shed during a TRU one and two fail

A

DC BUS 1 & 2

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65
Q

Can a thermal circuit breaker be reset from the electronic circuit breaker application ECB

A

No the affected cb can only be manually reset at its location

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66
Q

Will a physical CB trip generate a CAS message

A

Yes a cyan CB TRIP CAS message

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67
Q

How do you determine the location of an open CB

A

Viewing the location on the CB application

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68
Q

When does the RAT automatically deploy

A

In the event of a complete loss of AC power in flight

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69
Q

Can the RAT be stowed

A

On the ground only by maintenance

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70
Q

If the RAT generator trips offline how can it be reset

A

By moving the RAT deployment handle to stow and back to deploy position

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71
Q

When does the RAT generator go off line

A

Below 147kt
Note Slat-Flap, Pitch Trim, Left window heat, ESS TRU disconnected, and reversion to direct mode may occur. Then at 102kts hydraulic pressure is lost

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72
Q

If a generator is reset after the RAT has deployed which buses will the RAT power

A

AC ESS BUS

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73
Q

Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located

A

•Accessory gear box
•Engine core
•Fixed cowl

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74
Q

What must happen to activate the fire warning system?

A

• Both paired loops in a section must sense heat
• If only one loop is operative only that loop is needed to activate the FIRE warning

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75
Q

What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles

A

Halon

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76
Q

During an engine fire what warning indications come on?

A

•The respective L/R ENG FIRE PBA illuminates
•Red L/R ENG FIRE CAS
•FIRE icon in the N1 gauge
•Aural warning voice message “Left or Right Engine Fire”
•Master Warning PBA flashes red on the glare shield

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77
Q

What six events occur when the L/R ENG FIRE PBA is pressed

A

•Firewall fuel SOV closes
•Engine PRSOV closes
•Hydraulic SOV closes
•Generator is taken offline
•BTL 1 & 2 PBAs illuminate green AVAIL to indicate armed
•Ignition is disabled

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78
Q

What happens when the APU FIRE PBA is pressed

A

•APU firewall fuel SOV closes
•APU fuel control unit shuts off the fuel
•APU generator is taken offline
•APU Beed Control Valve BCV is closed
•BTL 2 Squib armed, AVAIL green PBA come on

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79
Q

Does pressing the ENG FIRE PBA command an immediate engine shutdown

A

•No the fire PBA closes the fuel feed SOV at the firewall, the engine will run for up to 20 seconds to empty the fuel line
•Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch per the checklist

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80
Q

If an APU fire is detected on the ground what is the automatic shutdown and extinguishing sequence of events

A

•APU fire warning horn sounds outside of the airplane
•APU Bleed control valve BCV closes
•FIDEEX triggers APU shutdown
•Within 10 sec of detection BTL 2 discharges

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81
Q

May the APU be left unattended

A

Yes

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82
Q

How is fire detection/suppression for the baggage compartment provided

A

•Smoke detectors
•BTL 1 can be discharged into the baggage compartment

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83
Q

What is the Max fuel imbalance on the ground and in-flight

A

600 lb ground

1,100 lb in-flight

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84
Q

What level of fuel imbalance will the auto transfer system activate?

A

340 lb on the ground

510 lb in-flight when the total fuel volume is over 16,000 lb

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85
Q

What is the maximum useable fuel load during pressure refueling

A

•Wings 17,550lb each 35,100lb total
•Center 14,200lb
•Aft 2,550lb.
•Total 51,850

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86
Q

What is the limitation when using wide cut fuels

A

They are prohibited

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87
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for manual wing to wing fuel transfer.

A

2,500 lb per wing tank

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88
Q

When must the fuel cross-feed system be selected off?

A

•Takeoff & Landing
•Both engines operating below 10,000 ft

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89
Q

Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled

A

Center & Aft

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90
Q

How is positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight

A

Ram air via NACA scoops on the bottom of each surge tank located at the wing tips

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91
Q

To avoid fuel spillage at what fuel quantity should the pressure relief valve PRV handles not be pulled.

A

Wing tanks quantity more than 11,300 lb pounds or center tank is more than 12,000 lb

Note There is a placard on the aircraft adjacent to the valve

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92
Q

What does the amber FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE CAS message indicate

A

Their’s a mis-compare between the FMS calculated fuel and the sensed fuel on board

Note This is probably a leak the checklist will direct you to the fuel leak in’flight checklist.

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93
Q

When does FRTT (fuel return to tank) automatically operate

A

Above 30,000 ft and wing fuel temperature is colder than -20° c

Note automatically closes when any fuel tank temp sensor is -5°c or higher or below 30,000ft

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94
Q

When do the primary AC fuel pumps operate in-flight

A

•ENGINE RUN switches to ON
•XFEED SOV is selected open

Note this is most noticeable during single engine operations, however is not a normal procedure during single engine operations

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95
Q

When do the auxiliary DC fuel pumps automatically operate

A

When low pressure is sensed at the AC fuel pump outlet

Note may be caused by an AC pump failure, loss of power to the primary pump, or deselection of the primary pump

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96
Q

Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed

A

• Located in the engine feed line at the firewall
•Closed by pressing the engine FIRE PBA

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97
Q

When does the fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing inner tanks begin

A

When the inner tanks quantities decrease to about 14,000lb continues until wing inner tanks reach full capacity approximately 15,000lb

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98
Q

When does fuel transfer from the aft tank to the wing inner tanks begin?

A

When either wing inner tank quantity decreases to 6,800lb

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99
Q

When will the wing outer tanks deplete into the wing inner tanks

A

When the wing inner tanks decrease to about 10,850lb

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100
Q

Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?

A

Right wing collector tank

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101
Q

When does longitudinal CG control inhibited

A

•Pressing the CG CTRL PBA
•When wing to wing transfer is automatically or manually initiated
•When the fuel quantity of each wing inner tank reaches 10,850lb

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102
Q

Why must the crew monitor manual operation of the wing to wing transfer system.

A

No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection provided to stop operation.

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103
Q

What powers the refuel/defuel panel

A

MAIN BATT BUSS

Note This makes it possible to refuel without external or airplane generated power.

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104
Q

During the refuel SOV test, what does display of the “SOV FAIL” message in the PRESEL window indicate

A

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full

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105
Q

What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations

A

●5 min with both engines
●10 min single engine

Note: This is automatically adjusted by the FADEC, no pilot action is required

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106
Q

How does the pilot know when the engine limitations are exceeded

A

The numbers turn RED

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107
Q

At what RPM should starter engagement not be attempted

A

56% N1

Note: because of the starter clutch design, the starter can’t engage above this RPM

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108
Q

What are the starter duty cycle limits?

A

Start attempt 1 and 2, 5 min on 5 min cool down between starts. Start attempts 3 through 10, 5 min on 15 min cool down between starts.

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109
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start

A

-40°c. Note: when the number turns GREEN

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110
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature before selecting take off power

A

+43°c

Note: when the number turns GREEN

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111
Q

What is the maximum engine oil temperature permissible for continuous operation

A

160°c

Note: when the number turns RED

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112
Q

How much thrust do the engines supply at sea level

A

18,920lb at sea level up to 30° c

Note: The thrust is flat rated to ISA +15°C, the value is only valid at temps at or below ISA +15°C

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113
Q

How is the FADEC powered once the engine is running

A

●Permanent Magnet Alternator serves as the primary electrical power source
●Aircraft power is available during starting and if PMA fails

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114
Q

What powers the FADEC when the Permanent Magnet Alternator, the primary source, is not available.

A

Aircraft electrical system

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115
Q

What is the maximum oil consumer of each engine.

A

.31 quarts/hour

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116
Q

When and how is engine oil replenishment allowed?

A

●On the ground with engines off
●Between 15 & 60 minutes after engine shutdown
●The ORS reservoir OIL QTY should be GREEN before servicing
●Prohibited when OAT is -12°c or colder
●Via the OIL REPLENISH Tab on the SERVICE Synoptic

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117
Q

When can the engine oil levels be accurately checked

A

Between 15 & 60 minutes after shutdown the Replenish soft key is only available within 15 to 60 minutes after shutdown

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118
Q

How can the oil quantity be checked

A

●Oil quantity is displayed on the OIL REPLENISH tab in the SERVICE synoptic
●An oil level sight gauge on the side of the oil reservoir

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119
Q

Where is the oil replenishing tank located

A

Aft equipment bay

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120
Q

What is the capacity of the oil replenishment reservoir?

A

6 quarts

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121
Q

How is engine oil cooled?

A

2 fuel/oil & 2 air/oil heat exchangers

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122
Q

What is the usable capacity of each engine oil tank

A

11.6 quarts

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123
Q

Which fuel shut-off valve closes after selecting the engine run switch to off.

A

HPSOV within the fuel metering unit

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124
Q

When is approach idol commanded by the FADEC

A

●In flight
●gear down and locked or SLAT/FLAP 2 (flaps are set at or above 5°)
●Steep approach mode not selected

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125
Q

What are the two auto start air envelopes and associated air speeds

A

●ATS ENVELOPE, CAS message less than 250kt
●WINDMILL ENVELOPE, CAS message greater than 250kt and 7.5% N2

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126
Q

What is the engine “quick relight” function

A

If the engine run switch is accidentally selected off then back to on the FADEC will recover the existing power setting
Fuel schedules and ITT limits are adapted for each quick relight scenario.

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127
Q

When does the ENGINE FLAMEOUT message appear

A

When the N2 reduces abnormally and an automatic relight has failed.

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128
Q

What is the maximum altitude for an airborne engine start?

A

30,000ft

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129
Q

What is the maximum altitude in flight for an APU assisted engine start?

A

23,000 ft

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130
Q

What are the limitations on the thrust reversers

A

●May not use in flight
●Not permitted for touch-and-go landings
●May not back up the airplane

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131
Q

How are the thrust reversers controlled and actuated?

A

● Controlled by the FADEC
● Actuated by the respective engine hydraulic system.

Note the reverser only operates when the associated engine is operating and the engine driven hydraulic pump is producing pressure.

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132
Q

What will occur if the thrust reverser becomes inadvertently unlocked?

A

●RED L(R) REVERSER UNLOCKED CAS message along with red Master Warning light flashing
●Aural Warning “L (R) Reverser Unlocked”
●RED REV icon in the N1 display
●FADEC limits thrust to idle

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133
Q

What is the maximum APU RPM

A

105%

Note the APU FADEC governs the APU to 100% rpm. If the value is anything other than 100% there is something wrong

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134
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU generator operations?

A

51,000 ft

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135
Q

What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU in flight

A

45,000 ft

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136
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU?

A

25,000 ft

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137
Q

What is the minimum temperature for starting an APU on the ground

A

-40°c

138
Q

Starter limit for the APU

A

3 per hour

139
Q

What is the maximum OAT for APU Bleed air extraction on the ground for air conditioning operations

A

48°c

140
Q

Is the maximum electrical load for the APU?

A

●60KVA up to 45,000 ft without restriction
●40KVA above 45,000 ft

141
Q

When does the APU door position appear on the EICAS and the SERVICE synoptic

A

If the door is not in the commanded position?

Note an amber APU DOOR FAIL CAS message also comes on

142
Q

When is the manual operation of the APU bleed control valve BCV not possible?

A

●Anti-Ice is active
●LH engine pressure-regulating valve PRV is manually opened
●RH engine PRV and the crossbleed valve are manually opened

143
Q

Can you dispatch with the APU door failed open

A

Yes with restrictions. QRH2

144
Q

What conditions must be met before using the oil replenishment system for the APU?

A

●Weight on wheels
●APU must have been shutdown for at least 10 minutes
●OAT is warmer than -12°c

145
Q

Which fuel pump supplys pressure to the APU during start?

A

●When AC power is not available, the right auxiliary DC pump supplies fuel pressure
●When AC power becomes available from the APU generator or another source, the right primary AC fuel pump starts, and the right auxiliary DC pump shuts down

146
Q

What happens to the APU bleed control valve BCV if the APU is pressurizing the pneumatic manifold, and then the left engine bleed valve opens

A

The APU BCV automatically closes

Note: Interlock protection the BMC control logic ensures that the BCV cannot be opened when another bleed source is supplying the bleed air manifold

147
Q

How is the emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished

A

●Pressing APU FIRE PBA
●Pushing the APU SHUTOFF button on the aft services panel
●Pushing the red APU shutdown switch in the APU compartment

148
Q

What is the sequence of actions when the APU FIRE PBA is pressed?

A

●APU firewall fuel SOV closes
●APU fuel control unit shuts off the fuel
●APU generator is taken off line
●APU Bleed Control Valve BCV is closed
●BTL 2 squib armed, AVAIL green PBA comes ON

149
Q

What are the primary functions of the bleed air system

A

● Transfer bleed air from the low and high pressure ports to individual systems requiring bleed air
● Control bleed air pressure
● Supply and control temperature of bleed air supplylird to the air conditioning system
● Supply bleed air for engine starting.
● Supply bleed air for the wing and cowl anti-ice system
● Supply and control temperature and pressure of bleed air to the air preparation system APS also known as FITS in the fuel chapter.

150
Q

What is both the normal and maximum positive relief differential pressure?

A

●Normal: 10.3psi at FL510
●Maximum: 10.73 psi

151
Q

What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?

A

-0.5psi

152
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure during taxi and takeoff?

A

0.1 psi

153
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure upon landing

A

1.0 psi

154
Q

What is the maximum altitude AUX PRESS may be used?

A

41,000 ft

155
Q

How is landing elevations set during QFE operations?

A

●Must be manually set to 0
●Via the CTP by MIN/LDG, LDG ELEV, MAN
●ON any MFW, MISC page, AVIONICS tab

156
Q

Where is the cabin pressure and landing elevation information depicted?

A

●Below the fuel quantities on the EICAS
●ON the BLEED synoptic page

157
Q

Which stage in the high pressure compressor HPC are bleed air extracted?

A

●4th stage LP bleed
●7th stage MP bleed
●10th stage HI bleed

158
Q

When is the high pressure valve HPV prevented from opening

A

When N2 is less than 55%

Note: The pressure bleed source changes when LP doesn’t provide enough pressure

159
Q

During ground operation, what is the priority of bleed sources for engine starting?

A

●APU
● External high pressure ground connection
● Crossbleed

160
Q

How are bleed air leeks monitored

A

Dual loops sensing elements (loop A & B) Are routed along the HP duct and monitored by the IASC

161
Q

What occurs automatically when a bleed air leak is detected

A

IASC automatically close the bleed air valve that supplies the affected duct.

162
Q

How is the bleed leak depicted on the synoptic page?

A

● Amber flow lines
● The corresponding valves are closed

163
Q

What happens to the PACK airflow schedule when the heating/cooling demand is high

A

PACK FLOW HI schedule is automatically selected by the IASCs to drive maximum airflow

164
Q

What are the two functions of the air conditioning packs

A

● Decreasing the air temperature
● Decrease in the water contained in the hot bleed air

165
Q

When do the IASCs Automatically close the flow control valve

A

● When the pack fails
● Either the DITCHING PBA is selected on
● A pack system fault is detected

166
Q

Which valves close when selecting the TRIM AIR PBA switch to OFF?

A

Both hot air shutoff valves HASOV and all 4 trim air valves.

167
Q

What malfunctions will require the use of AUX PRESS

A

Failure of both packs

Note: a CAS message will take the crew to a checklist

168
Q

What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system

A

● Cool the packs and APS heat exchangers
● Alternate source of fresh air at altitudes less than 15,000 feet

169
Q

What is the typical cabin altitude at FL510? FL450?

A

FL510 not more than 5,673 ft
FL450 not more than 4,500 ft

Note this is more for pointing out how low the cabin is compared to other aircraft.

170
Q

Describe the 2 modes of operation. with the cabin pressure control system CPCS in AUTO

A

●Primary mode (predictive) FMS has an active flight plan with altitude, autopilot is on, VNAV selected
●Secondary mode (Reactive) uses airplane altimeter & vertical speed ADC

171
Q

During the loss of pressurization what cabin altitudes trigger the CABIN ALT caution/warning CAS message for airports below 7,230 ft

A

●CABIN ALT (caution) 8,200 ft
●CABIN ALT (warning) 9,000 ft

172
Q

How does the cabin altitude warning system react to airports above 7,230 ft

A

●CABIN ALT caution/warning thresholds are increased progressively during TO & LDG sequences up to 14,500 ft
●A Cyan CABIN ALT HI message is posted

Note The Caustion will remain 1,000 ft above the field elevation until it reaches the maximum value of 14,500 ft. The Warning will remain 1,800 ft above the field elevation until it reaches a maximum value of 14,500 ft

173
Q

What is the required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the EICAS or BLEED synoptic

A

An active flight plan with a destination programmed into the FMS.

174
Q

How is the landing elevation manually programmed

A

●From the CTP. TUNE/MENU, MIN/LDG, LDG ELEV to MAN
●From the MFW MISC page, AVIONICS tab

175
Q

When would a pilot need to manually set the field elevation

A

●QFE operations
●Airport not in the data base
●Airport not WGS84

Note Selecting bot GNSS to OFF will force the system to navigate DME/DME. Historically this will allow proper navigation in non-WGS84 areas like India

176
Q

What occurs when the guarded EMER DEPRESS PBA is selected ON

A

● The outflow valve opens to depressurizes the cabin at a rate of 2,500ft/min
●Cabin altitude will climb to 14,500 ft for high altitude airports, or 13,800 ft for lower altitude airports

177
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING PBA to ON provide

A

●Packs off
●Outflow valves full open
●Once cabin is completely depressurized, both OFVs close

178
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valves?

A

Ensure overpressure and negative pressure relief, when the max pressure is reached, the safety valves open to outside pressure, independent from the IASC

Note A cyan SAFETY VALVE OPEN CAS will appear when opened

179
Q

How many oxygen cylinders does the crew and passenger oxygen system have

A

2

180
Q

Where is the oxygen overboard discharge indicator

A

The blowout disc is on the left forward nose near the oxygen service panel

181
Q

What does the overboard discharge indicator look like if the oxygen system becomes overpressurized

A

It is missing, broken, or torn

182
Q

Where is the oxygen service panel

A

Lower left side of the fuselage forward of the passenger door

183
Q

When do the passengers oxygen masks automatically deploy

A

14,500 ft +/- 500 ft cabin altitude

184
Q

How is the crew alerted when the oxygen quantity drops below 49%

A

●Amber OXYGEN LO QTY CAS
●Oxgen quantity indications on the EICAS change from green to amber

185
Q

How do you deploy the passenger oxygen masks manually

A

PAX OXYGEN knob to OVERRIDE

186
Q

When is the cowl anti-ice required on the ground

A

When OAT is +10°c or below and visible moisture is present or while operating on contaminated taxiways/runways.

187
Q

When is wing anti-ice required on the ground

A

Must be ON for takeoff when OAT is +5ﾟC or below and visible moisture is present or operating on contaminated runways.

188
Q

What are the conditions for in-flight icing operations

A

Visible moisture and temperature at a TAT of 10°c or below, except when the SAT is -40°c or below

189
Q

What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions

A

Do not hold an icing with the slats extended.

190
Q

Ice protection is provided for which systems and surfaces

A

● Wing leading edge
● Engine Cowls
● Windshields & side windows
● Air data smart probes and sensors
● Total air temperature probes.
● Angle-of-attack sensors
● Enhanced vision system window and fairing

191
Q

When does the cowl anti-ice operate when selected to AUTO

A

When the ice detector system detects ice

192
Q

When is the wing anti-ice system inhibited on take off if set in auto?

A

Up to 1,500ft or 2 minutes after the airspeed passes 60kt

193
Q

Under what conditions will the wing cross bleed valve automatically open?

A

WING XBLEED rotary switch is in AUTO, and one system is not pressurized

Note: This could be a valve failure or an inoperative engine.

194
Q

What is the purpose of the wing anti-ice cross bleed valve?

A

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be supplied bleed air from a single engine.

195
Q

Which engine bleed source is used for cowl anti-ice?

A

7th stage medium pressure MP of the high pressure compressor HPC

196
Q

The cowl anti-ice valve CAIV defaults to what position

A

It’s a Spring load open design to open in the event of loss of electrical power.

197
Q

Why is it recommended to remove all pitot & AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external power.

A

All probe heaters are tested and powered when AC power is applied to the aircraft as part of the built-in test.

Note: When AC power is applied to the aircraft there is a continuity test of the heaters. This is not enough voltage to generate the heat necessary to damage the pitot covers. When the 1st engine is started, the pito heat is on full. Removing the covers before AC is applied is a convenience: the pilot may be outside already and doesn’t have to remember before the engine start later

198
Q

When are the ADSP heaters automatically tested and operated?

A

● All heaters are tested when AC power is initially applied.
● The system turns on automatically when one engine is running or airspeed is greater than 50 kt.

199
Q

When does automatic application of TAT heat occur?

A

● Airplane is inflight or
● Airspeed is greater than 50 kt
● RAT is deployed, and air speed is greater than 120 kt

200
Q

When does the seat belt sign illuminate if the seat belt switch is selected to AUTO?

A

● Landing gears down
● Flaps are not in the flap zero position
● Cabin altitude is greater than 8000 ft (depressurization)

201
Q

When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminate if selected to ARM

A

No power to the DC ESS BUS 1

202
Q

What type of lighting does the AREA LIGHTS knob operate?

A

Floor and dome lights

203
Q

How does the flight crew control the nose landing gear maintenance light

A

Switch on the forward external ground communications panel.

204
Q

When on battery power when will the service lights turn off automatically?

A

After 20 minutes

Note: Lights will blink 2 minutes prior to shutting off.

205
Q

What type of brakes are installed on the global 7500?

A

Carbon disks 4 per wheel

206
Q

How are the wheel brakes powered and actuated

A

Electrohydraulic brake-by-wire control system

207
Q

How is weight-on-wheels sensing accomplished

A

Via 6 proximity sensors total, 2 mounted on each gear

208
Q

How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled

A

Electrically controlled by the landing gear and steering control unit. LGSCU

209
Q

Which hydraulic systems operate the landing gear?

A

Hydraulic system 2 and 3.

210
Q

How is excessive air pressure due to heat build-up in the main wheel/tire assembly released?

A

4 heat sensitive fuse plugs in each MLG wheel.

211
Q

How is the main landing gear overheat condition detected in the gear bays

A

Single-loop heat sensing elements.

212
Q

How are the main landing gear doors operated?

A

● Outboard doors are attached to the gear
● Inboard doors are operated by a hydraulic actuator powered by hydraulic system 2.

213
Q

How are the nose gear forward and aft doors normally actuated?

A

● Forward doors are operated by a hydraulic actuator
● Aft doors is attached to the gear

214
Q

How are the gear doors opened for gear bay inspection on the ground?

A

With the LG PULL handle in the flight compartment

215
Q

How are the gear doors closed after the gear bays has been inspected on the ground

A

●The LG manual release handle is returned to normal position
● Number 2 hydraulic system pressure is applied
●PRESS and hold the GEAR DOOR CLOSE pushbutton on the forward external service panel until all gear doors are closed.

216
Q

When is the “TOO LOW GEAR” warning sounded

A

Any landing gear is not down and locked and radio altimeter less than 500ft AGL and less than 190kt

Note: this is part of the TAWS system

217
Q

When is the gear aural warning mutable

A

Any gear is not down and locked, and both thrust lever angles TLAs set to approach, and Both radio altimeters invalid, and below 16,500 ft

218
Q

What happened when the LG manual release handle is pulled.

A

● Shutoff and dump valve mechanically open
● Uplocks for both MLG doors release.
● Both MLG uplocks release
● NLG door unlock releases
● NLG uplock releases
● Alternate power valve is mechanically open to pressurize the downside of the MLG retraction actuators to assist free fall.

219
Q

After the manual landing gear extension, which caution CAS message are displayed

A

● L MAIN GEAR DOOR
● R MAIN GEAR DOOR
● NOSE GEAR DOOR

220
Q

How will the nose wheel steering operate after manual gear extension?

A

Free-caster mode

Note: This is assuming you have followed the checklist and placed the NWS switch in off

221
Q

How is NWS system controlled and actuated

A

Electrically controlled hydraulically actuated hydraulic system 2.

222
Q

What are the NWS limits for the tiller and rudder?

A

●Tiller +/- 82.5°
●Rudder +/- 9°

223
Q

What is recommended to be done to the nose gear before towing operations?

A

● Disconnect the nosewheel steering torque link.
● Disconnect and stow the tire pressure lead

224
Q

How are the brake wear indicator pins normally checked?

A

Parking brake set or pedal brake application applied with hydraulic system 2 and 3 pressurized?

225
Q

Which breaks operate from the PARK/EMER handle

A

All four brakes

226
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the brakes when using the PARK/EMER handle

A

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

227
Q

Which hydraulic systems operate the normal brake system?

A

● Hydraulic system 2 outboard brakes
● Hydraulic system 3 inboard brakes

228
Q

How is the PARK/EMER brake actuated

A

Mechanical linkage to the parking break valve.

Note: The system is completely mechanical it will operate in flight.

229
Q

If selected on under what conditions will the autobreak disarm

A

●AUTOBRAKE rotary switch selected to OFF or RTO.
● Break pedal application greater than 20%.
● Failure of the BCS or loss of critical input data to BCU from other airplane systems.

230
Q

When will the auto break RTO function be applied?

A

● When autobreak rotary switch is enabled in RTO.
● Speed is above 60 knots.
● Engine thrust levers are at idle or
● Thrust reversers are applied.

231
Q

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated

A

● Electrically controlled by the fly-by-wire systems
● Hydraulically actuated by the power control units PCU

232
Q

What are the FBW normal mode tactile pitch protections?

A

● Progressive increase in required sidestick force as sidestick deflection is increased.
● Soft stop in the pitch axis at the operational flight envelope.
● Hard stop at the sidestick travel limit in the pitch axis at the airplane structural limit.
●Stick shaker

233
Q

What is the normal mode nose up pitch attitude limit in flight?

A

30°

234
Q

What is the normal mode nose-up pitch attitude limit during takeoff

A

17.5° to assist in preventing a tail strike on takeoff

235
Q

What is the normal mode nose-down pitch attitude limit in flight?

A

20°

236
Q

Is the airplane aerodynamically stalled in the normal mode while maintaining V AOA hard? (hard stop)

A

NO, In smooth air the hard stop maintains an AOA value for activating the stick shaker.

Note: Environmental factors such as turbulence or gusts can cause airspeed to decrease below V AOA hard. In this case, the airplane may stall in FBW normal mode momentarily as the airplane pitch is adjusted to regain V AOA hard

237
Q

In FBW normal mode what is the maximum bank angle limit?

A

80°

238
Q

Passed what bank angle in normal mode will FBW return to?

A

30°

239
Q

To what degree is pitch compensation in turns provided?

A

33°

240
Q

What are the 3 FBW direct modes?

A

● PFCC (primary flight control computer) direct
● REU (remote electronic unit) direct
● AFCU (alternate flight control unit) direct

241
Q

What causes PFCC direct mode

A

Loss of inputs to the PFCCs. (IRS,ADC,Gs,IIU),etc

242
Q

What causes REU direct mode?

A

Loss of all 3 PFCC.

243
Q

What causes AFCU direct mode

A

Loss of all REU to a single flight control surface.

244
Q

Is the auto pilot available in FBW direct modes?

A

No

245
Q

How do you regain FBW normal mode after a complete PFCC failure?

A

All PFCC’s must be reset by pressing the PBA’s to OFF then ON this is in the checklist.

246
Q

What will occur if the rudder or stab trim is outside the allowable takeoff range during thrust level advancement?

A

● RED CONFIG RUDDER TRIM, or CONFIG STAB TRIM CAS will appear
●”No takeoff” Aural alert

247
Q

What function does the AP/PTY switch on the sidestick provide when pressed momentarily?

A

● Disconnect the autopilot if engaged
● Select sidestick momentary priority if the autopilot is not engaged.

248
Q

What is the function of the ALTN FLAP PBA

A

Will extend the slats and flaps to position 2.

Note: The slats and flaps begin movement only if the airspeed is at or below 200kt. This control is a workaround for a failed flap handle. There is only an alternate control and not an alternate operating system.

249
Q

Will failure of the flaps prevent operation of the slats?

A

No; The slats and flaps have independent dual motor power drive units PDUs

250
Q

What is the purpose of the FLAP OFF PBA on theTAWS panel

A

Use to cancel the flap aural warning if the flaps are not set at 4 with the gear down airspeed below 159kt and altitude below 245ft for landing.

251
Q

How many pairs of spoiler panels are located on each wing

A

●3 multi-functional spoilers MFS
●1 ground spoiler GS

252
Q

How are the spoilers controlled and actuated

A

● Electrically controlled
● Hydraulically actuated.

253
Q

What do the multi-functional spoilers MFS panels provide.

A

●Roll
●Drag
●Ground lift dumping

254
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the ground spoilers?

A

HYD system 1

255
Q

What is the activation logic for the ground spoilers?

A

Either MLG is weight on wheels and speed is greater than 16kt and one of the following
●RAD ALT below 7ft or
●Both MLG are weight on wheels & airplane pitch angle is less than 2°

256
Q

When in AFCU direct mode what spoilers are available?

A

None

257
Q

What happens if both sidesticks are operated simultaneously?

A

● RED DUAL annunciation is shown on both PDFs
●”DUAL INPUT” aural warning message
● The total summed input signal of both sidesticks is limited to the maximum deflection of a single sidestick.

258
Q

What happens when the AP/PTY push button is pressed and held?

A

● The autopilot if engaged disconnects
● The opposite sizestick and it’s pitch trim switch are deactivated
● The PTY legend on the on side glareshield sidestick guarded PBA flashes.
● A red arrow illuminates on the opposite sidestick guarded PBA
● A “priority left” or “priority right” aural message is announced once.

Note when both AP/PTY pushbuttons are pressed, the last one pressed has priority if the AP/PTY pushbuttons are pressed simultaneously the left sidestick has priority.

259
Q

What happens when the guarded sidestick PBA on the glare shield is pressed

A

● The autopilot if engaged, does not disconnect
● The PTY legend on the onside glareshield sidestick PBA remains on without flashing
● The AP/PTY pushbutton on the disabled sidestick has no effect

Note Pressing the guarded sizestick PBA on the disabled side transfers sidestick priority

260
Q

When the flight compartment or cabin temperatures are in excess of 40ﾟC. What is the ground operation limitation on the DUs?

A

Operation for more than 30 minutes is prohibited.

261
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engagement height on takeoff

A

400 ft AGL

262
Q

What is the minimum height for autopilot use on an approach?

A

80 ft AGL

263
Q

What is the steepest angle for approach?

A

●Up to 3.5° without AFM supplement 8
●3.5°-4.5° with AFM supplement 8

264
Q

What will the autopilot do in ROLL mode

A

● If the bank angle is less than 5ﾟ the flight director will command a heading hold.
● Will command a ROLL hold if current bank is more than 5ﾟ limited to 30ﾟ
● If above the bank limit 30° will command a reduction of bank to 30ﾟ

265
Q

If you press the CPL pushbutton on the FCP what happens to the active flight director modes?

A

● The FD mode revert to ROLL and FPA.
● An amber FD MODE CHANGE message appears
● The pilot must manually re-select the desired modes

266
Q

Do the green indicator lights on the FCP indicate that the adjacent mode is currently active?

A

● No, they only indicate selection
● The crew must confirm mode status/operation from the flight mode annunciator FMA.

267
Q

How are active/armed flight director and autothrottle modes indicated on the FMA?

A

● Active modes displayed in green
● Armed modes displayed in white

268
Q

If the FD is off and the AP button is pushed which mode will become active.

A

Basic modes roll and flight path angle.

269
Q

What ways can the AP be manually disengaged?

A

● Pressing AP/PTY on either sidestick
● Pressing the AP pushbutton on the FCP
● Pitch Trim switch on either sidestick
● Overcoming the resistance on either sidestick

Note: Only the red AP/PTY button will silence the AP disconnect warning

270
Q

When does the autopilot automatically disengage

A

● Reversion to direct mode.
● Invalid data.
● AP monitor fault detection a disagreement between autopilots.
● Stick shaker activation

271
Q

When is use of the FMS as a primary lateral navigation source beyond the FAF for instrument approaches prohibited.

A

Localizer based approaches ( ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, IGS)

272
Q

When will nav-to-nav transfer occur

A

● Localizer-based approach is loaded in the FMS
● Lateral mode is FMS or HDG.
● APPR mode is selected on FCP
● LOC is captured

273
Q

When is the ILS frequency automatically tuned by the FMS?

A

● Localizer-based approach is loaded in the FMS?
● Within 31nm direct distance from the destination airport.

274
Q

When does the independent ILS approach mode occur?

A

At GS capture and landing gear down.

Note: The pilot and co-pilots PFDs must be displaying LOC data from different navigation receivers on the 2 PFD displays.

275
Q

What pitch angle does the FD command for a normal takeoff and an engine inoperative takeoff.

A

● Normal takeoff starts at 17.5ﾟ for 5 seconds then adjust to maintain the selected speed.
● OEI takeoff adjust to 13ﾟ for 5 seconds then adjust to maintain the selected speed.

276
Q

During go-around, what are the lateral and vertical commands during climb-out when TOGA is selected?

A

● Latterly commands hold heading at TOGA selection limited to 5ﾟ bank until reaching 400 FT then changes to FMS
● Vertically it maintains a pitch from 10ﾟ minimum to 20ﾟ maximum to maintain active target speed.
●VNAV armed, capturing a VNAV altitude

277
Q

How is the TO lateral and vertical modes cleared?

A

● By selecting another vertical mode
● With VNAV armed, capturing a VNAV altitude.

278
Q

How is the GA lateral mode cleared?

A

● NAV is automatically selected climbing through 400 ft on an instrument approach.
● If on a visual approach the crew must select another mode.

279
Q

What is the bank angle for 1/2 bank

A

17°

280
Q

At what altitude will the AFCS automatically switch to half bank?

A

35,000 ft

281
Q

In what lateral modes is 1/2 bank available

A

●Below 35,000 ft ROLL, HDG, VOR, NAV lateral mode.
● Above 35,000 ft all lateral modes

Note: The key concept is half bank is not available in FMS NAV below FL350.

282
Q

How do you fly in half-bank mode on a published departure or missed approach procedure with the autopilot engaged?

A

● Center the heading bug and select HDG.
● Select 1/2 BANK
● Manually follow the turns

Note: If using half bank the crew must inform ARTCC and turns should be started earlier to roll out on course. It may be simpler to just turn off the autopilot and fly at half bank.

283
Q

When does emergency descent mode EDM automatically activate?

A

● Autopilot is engaged
● Aircraft altitude is above FL250
● Cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500ft

284
Q

What will occur upon automatic activation of EDM?

A

● FD enters HDG and FLC modes
● FD will command a descent to 15,000ft (ALT SEL changes to 15,000ft)
● FD will command a turn of 90ﾟleft (using the heading bug)
● Autothrottles automatically engage and will target an airspeed Vmo-10 until15,000ft (or selected altitude) then 250kt
● Transponder code squawks 7700

Note: Once initiated, any of these parameters may be adjusted by the crew

285
Q

How does the crew cancel the EDM mode?

A

Disengage the AP.

286
Q

What will occur upon manual activation of EDM?

A

●The AP & AT engage if not already engaged
●FD enters HDG & FLC modes
●FD Will command a descent to 15,000ft (ALT SEL resets to 15,000 ft)
●FD Will command a turn of 90ﾟ left (using the heading bug)
● Autothrottles will target an airspeed of Vmo-10 until 15,000ft (or selected altitude) then 250kt

Note once initiated any of these parameters may be adjusted by the crew.

287
Q

If the autothrottles are armed prior to takeoff, when do they engage?

A

When thrust levers are advanced through approximately 60% N1

Note: The engagement is actually a throttle angle value and not the engine rpm. The autothrottles will engage near 60% RPM on a standard day.

288
Q

When is the autothrottle HOLD mode activated?

A

On the ground above 60kt until the airplane climbs to 400ft AGL.

289
Q

What happens to the AP, AT and FD mode during the windshield warning?

A

● AP remains in its current state (engaged or disengaged) when WSHR mode is triggered
● If the AT is engaged at the time of the windshear warning, it remains engaged.
● The AT advances to takeoff thrust setting
● Escape guidance is automatically provided by the TAWS
● The autothrottle mode and the vertical mode change to a red WSHR.
● The lateral mode will not change if the pilot’s presses TO/GA then the lateral mode will be GA below 400ft and NAV above 400 ft.

290
Q

When will the autothrottles transition to the RETARD mode?

A

Radio altitude of 50ft during landing

Note: This requires flaps full in gear down.

291
Q

What does an amber LIM in the FMA indicate?

A

The selected airspeed requires an engine thrust above or below the N1 limit shown on the EICAS.

292
Q

Which colors are on the EICAS and synoptic pages and what do they mean?

A

● Green normal range.
● Amber caution arrange.
● Red limits exceeded.
● Magenta invalid data (unknown data)

293
Q

Which colors are used to depict the flow lines on the system synoptic pages

A

● Black no flow
● Amber abnormal value
● Green normal value
● Red exceeding Normal value
● Magenta invalid (unknown data)

294
Q

What pilot actions are required after a DU failure?

A

●None inflight all reversions are automatic
● If on the ground the checklist will direct turning the DU to off and back on to attempt a reset.

295
Q

What is the result of pushing the EVENT pushbutton on the forward auxiliary panel on the center pedestal.

A

● Marks a moment in time in the data being recorded for future reference.
● The data recorded will be higher resolution and contain more information than is normally recorded.

296
Q

If the current acceleration or deceleration is maintained what does the airspeed trend vector represent?

A

The end of the trend vector line represents the projected speed in 10 seconds.

297
Q

Based on current vertical rate what does the altitude trend vector represent?

A

The end of the trend vector line represents what the altitude will be in 10 seconds.

298
Q

How does the pilot change the selected altitude readout above the altitude tape from indicated feet to meters.

A

Turn the large outer portion of the ALT knob on the FCP to M.

Note: The tape doesn’t change to meters the metric value is added below the ASEL value in feet to meters

299
Q

Will an air data source ADS failure on the ground automatically switch to an alternate air data source.

A

No the bad data will be removed and red flags will be in their place

Note: Automatic reversions on ADS and IRS will not happen on the ground dispatch with avionics reversions are not permitted.

300
Q

What will happen to the system if an IRS failure occurs in flight

A

● The side with the failure will automatically revert to IRS 3
● A cyan IRS 1(2) FAIL CAS message illuminates.

301
Q

How do you verify the correct database part number of the ECL is loaded?

A

The database part number Is shown at the bottom of the summary page unless there are active checklist limitation items on the summary page

Note: If there are active limitations, the word LIMITATIONS is shown in the footer of all ECL pages and replaces the database on the SUMMARY page

302
Q

How many ECLs can be displayed simultaneously?

A

The ECL can be shown on 2 separate MFWs one on the pilot side and the other on the co-pilot side.

Note: When 2 instances of the ECL are displayed, interactions with the ECL on either MFW are synchronized there is only 1ECL displayed 2 times.

303
Q

If the ECL fails what are acceptable alternatives

A

● Electronic flight bag
● Ipad or similar device if approved
● AFM, QRH, and FCOM1 publications

304
Q

Where does the ECL appear when the CHKL QAK key is pressed? And where does it appear when that MFW has failed or off

A

1st The inside half of the lower DU
2nd The inboard half of the DU containing the onside ADI
3rd The onside half of the center DU
4th The offside half of the center DU
5th The inboard half of the offside DU

Note: The target DU must be failed or off for the next step in the sequence.

305
Q

If a CAS message is displayed what will happen when the ECL is opened?

A

The checklist procedure associated with the CAS message is automatically placed in the active checklist group on the summary page.

306
Q

How do you find a non-normal checklist for a condition without a correlating CAS message.

A

On the ECL in the PROC tab.

307
Q

What pilot actions are required in initializing the FMS?

A

● It is not necessary to initialize manually the FMS self-initializes when a valid GNSS signal is received
● If manual initialization is necessary, press the load softkey to the right of the desired Navigation sensor or Lat/Long indications.

Note: This practice is highly discouraged due to the errors induced in the system if the aircraft is not in the specific location.

308
Q

What information is displayed on the FMS INIT page?

A

● Time and date (synchronized with the GPS)
● Navigation database status
● Databases and part numbers
● Sensor status/position.

309
Q

How does the crew inhibit the terrain awareness alerting when landing at an airport not in the navigation database?

A

Select the TAWS TERRAIN PBA to OFF

Note: There is no written procedure for landing outside the FMS database.

310
Q

How does the pilot change radio frequency spacing? (8.34 or 25kHz)

A

Via the CTP or CNS on the VHF control mode page

311
Q

How is DME hold activated

A

Via the CTP Nav control mode page or vis the CNS checkbox

312
Q

When GNSS data is not available? What does the FMS revert to for position computations

A

● The FMS reverts to DME/DME
● If 2 suitable DME stations are not in range, the FMS reverts to VOR information (radial and DME)
● If no ground based navigation aid is available, the system will revert to IRS.
● Switching between modes is automated.

Note: If operating in DME/DME, selecting AUTO TUNING will cause the system to operate in DME/DME/DME, which is more accurate

313
Q

From the audio panel How does the pilot enable the hot mic?

A

VOX button is unlatched (raised position)

314
Q

What does turning the VOX button on the audio control panel do

A

Adjust the microphone sensitivity.

315
Q

What does turning the ST button on the audio control panel do?

A

Adjusting the sidetone audible feedback level for transmissions.

316
Q

What is the meaning of a black FMS MSG soft key at the bottom of the MAP or FMS format

A

Message(s) have been read

Note: A gray message means no FMS messages, an amber or white MSG indicates the color of the most urgent unread message.

317
Q

What color will manually entered V-speeds be on the airspeed tape

A

Cyan

318
Q

Where are manual adjustments to Vref made?

A

On the VNAV-THRST page, the ARR tab

Note: The dialog box is limited to corrections of +10kt or less.

319
Q

What does changing the RWY ID on the ARR PERF page 1 accomplish

A

● Changes the runway used for calculation landing distance and crosswinds.
● It only changes the runway for the performance data and doesn’t change any navigation function.

Note: Typically used for circle to land.

320
Q

What page in the FMS can climb gradient calculations be made

A

DEP PERF page 2

321
Q

When will takeoff V-speeds post to the airspeed tape?

A

● When the actual airplane configuration matches the settings selected for takeoff and an altitude is set in the ASEL and the data is sent

322
Q

What is accomplished by rotating the HUD control knob

A

Adjust the brightness of the HUD display

323
Q

What is accomplished by rotating the CVS control knob?

A

Controls the contrast between the CVS image and HUD symbology.

Note this is seen by the crew as brightness of the CVS image.

324
Q

When does the 60ﾟ tick mark appear on the HUD?

A

When the actual bank angle exceeds 40ﾟ

Note the tick marks are removed when the bank angle is less than 30ﾟ

325
Q

Where can the indication be found for which HUD display mode has been selected

A

Upper right corner of the HUD annunciated as EVS, SVS, or nothing.

326
Q

Where is the vertical speed indication displayed on the HUD

A

The vertical speed value is in a digital format below the altitude tape.

327
Q

When is radio altitude displayed?

A

Below 2,500 ft AGL

Note this is the same as the PFD.

328
Q

If the airplane is in takeoff position on the runway but there are no runway markings indicated on the SVS display what does it suggest

A

The airplane is not on the runway that was entered in the FMS flight plan

329
Q

What is the SVS limitation when conducting an approach in airspace not referenced to WGS-84

A

SVS shall be deselected prior to passing the FAF

330
Q

What types of emergency equipment can be found on board the aircraft

A

● Overwater emergency equipment life vests life rafts lifelines
● Fire fighting equipment portable fire extinguishers protective breathing equipment
● Other emergency equipment first aid kit flashlights placards
● Portable oxygen (1 bottle with mask) 2 therapeutic oxygen outlets with masks
● Evacuation equipment crash ax

331
Q

How many fire extinguishers required on the aircraft?

A

3

332
Q

What must the crew wear if discharging a fire extinguisher in the flight compartment

A

Oxygen masks with EMGCY mode selected to deliver 100% pure oxygen with a positive pressure to facilitate goggle and mask ventilation against smoke and fumes.

333
Q

Is the cargo door an emergency exit?

A

No only the passenger door and overwing emergency exit door are considered emergency exits.

Note: The distance from the ground to the baggage door is too far for use as an exit.

334
Q

If the BTMS reading is in the white band following a rejected takeoff? How much time must be allotted for the BTMS to peak so that determination can be made about brake energy limitations

A

35 minutes

335
Q

What is the maximum BTMS temperature for takeoff?

A

Maximum BTMS of 15 and decreasing.

336
Q

Describe the crosswind take off procedure and when to use it.

A

● When the crossword component is 18kt or more do not exceed 60% N1 below 30kt.
● At 30kt promptly set TO thrust.

337
Q

What is the takeoff field length correction when the crosswind take off procedure is used

A

1,700ft is added to TOFL

Note: This additive is automatically accomplished in the FMS when the winds are entered.

338
Q

If you are taking off in type 2,3, and 4 anti-ice fluids, what corrections must be made to VR, V2, and TOFL.

A

●Increase Vr V2 by 5kt
●Increase TOFL by 20%

339
Q

What would the operational landing distance penalty factor be for a ten knot tailwind

A

Penalty factor +30%

340
Q

What engines are installed on the airplane

A

General Electric GE Passport 20-19BB1A

341
Q

What is the maximum ITT for ground/air start

A

750 ground
875 air, 975 quick windmill relight

Note: The numbers turn red. On the ground, the start is automatically aborted. In-flight, the starter will continue the start attempt until the crew intervenes.

Global 7500 (5 decks)

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