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CA KV 2020 > CA KV 2020 > Flashcards

CA KV 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

CA - What time is a crew member expected to report for duty

A

Report time listed on trip sheet (45min dom - 1hr I’ntl)

FOM 4.15

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2
Q

FO - What time is a crew member required to report to the aircraft or expected arrival gate?

A

35 minutes FOM 4.15

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3
Q

CA - What action should be taken to modify a report time due to late arrival at an overnight station?

A

PIC coordinates with Crew Support to determine a report time consistent with the required crew rest. FOM 4.15

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4
Q

FO - when is a crew member released from duty?

A

15 minutes after completion of the last scheduled flight segment or aircraft movement. FOM 4.15

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5
Q

CA - how is the fit for duty affirmation accomplished?

A

Flight view activation attests fit for duty FOM 4.4

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6
Q

FO - in the absence of EFB connectivity, what must be done to accomplish fit for duty affirmation?

A

Contact the dispatcher for a manual activation. Both crew members must independently state each is fit for duty FOM 4.5

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7
Q

CA - what documents are crew members required to possess when reporting for duty on a domestic flight?

A

Pilot certificate, Medical, company ID and FED/state ID

FOM 4.16

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8
Q

FO - What documents/equipment is required for international flights

A

Radio operators permit, Passport, if corrective lenses are required for flight - spare set. FOM 4.16

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9
Q

CA - What actions should be taken in the event a crew member has lost or misplaced their pilot certificate or medical certificate?

A

The pilot contacts crew support and requests issuance of the required proof of certificate. FOM 4.17

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10
Q

FO - how long is the company issued temporary proof of airman or medical certificate valid for?

A

72 hours FOM 4.17

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11
Q

CA - what equipment must a crew member posses when reporting for duty?

A

working headset, Flashlight, EFB, flight bag suitable for carrying EFB FOM 4.17

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12
Q

FO - regarding report for duty requirements and EFB requirements, what does good working order mean?

A

no damage, no screen cracks, defects, or other known conditions that prevent it from working properly. FOM 4.17 3105 EFB 2.2

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13
Q

CA - what are the report for duty requirements for the backup battery?

A

100 % 3105 EFB 2.2

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14
Q

FO - what are the currency requirements for the Jeppesen Flight Deck Pro and Company Manuals?

A

data must have been synced and downloaded within the preceding 4 calendar days 3105 EFB 2.2

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15
Q

CA - when reporting for duty with flying on that day, must be in uniform

A

yes FOM A.12 definition of FDP

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16
Q

CA - what does emergency fuel provide? What are the values?

A

30 minutes of endurance, 1050/1500/1550

SOPM 5-01.7

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17
Q

FO - what does minimum fuel provide? what are the values?

A

go-around fuel 450/600 plus emergency fuel. 1500/2100/2150

SOPM 5-01.7

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18
Q

CA - you are holding over JAKSN, what is the minimum fuel on board before you would need to divert to KPDX

A

fuel at JAKSN - hold and contingency fuel

RLS

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19
Q

FO - Assuming an inoperative FMS. how much fuel is required to fly to an unplanned diversion airport 100 miles away based of the landing weight on the release?

A

Unplanned diversion chart and release, account for HW/TW and Planned landing weight.

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20
Q

CA - when is a cold weather pre-flight inspection required?

A
  • OAT is 5C degrees or less
  • Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist
  • Aircraft has remained overnight and may have been subject to contamination
  • Through flight and residual ice from inbound may have accumulated
  • Wing fuel temp is 0C or less
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21
Q

FO - how is a cold weather preflight pre-flight inspection conducted

A

visual and tactile check to determine if critical surfaces are free from frozen contamination GDPM 2800

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22
Q

CA - what is the clean aircraft concept

A

an aircraft must not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, and other critical surfaces of the aircraft GDPM 2800

23
Q

FO - is it ever permissible to takeoff with contaminants on the under surface of the wing and if so what type of contamination and what maximum thickness?

A

yes - frost when fuel temp is 0C or less and to a maximum depth of 1/8 of an inch. GDPM 2800

24
Q

CA - what is holdover time?

A

it is an estimate of the time the deice/anti-icing fluid is effective in preventing the formation of frost, ice, or the accumulation of snow on a treated surface. HOT begins when the first application of the last stage of deice/anti-ice begins and end when the fluid looses its effectiveness.

25
Q

FO - what is the HOT for the following conditions?

A

Clariant SW MP IV launch -10C, FZDZ

26
Q

CA - if the snowfall intensity is absent in an official weather observation, how is snowfall intensity determined when calculating a HOT

A

use the visibility table (table 43) in the eHOT app

27
Q

FO - is it advisable to use the snowfall intensities as a function of prevailing visibility chart when visibility is reduced by snowfall as well as other forms of obscuration like FU, DZ, FG?

A

no, use the METAR reported snowfall intensity. Table 43 last note

28
Q

CA - during the Pre Deice/Anti-ice check, what elements are communicated with the flight deck.

A

Element A - type and location of fluid to be used GDPM 2800

29
Q

FO - What elements are required to be communicated from de-ice personnel to flight crew?

A

Element E - post de-ice and or anti-ice check for clean surface is complete. GDPM 2800

30
Q

Is the flight deck de-ice /anti-ice checklist run as a challenge and response?

A

YES

31
Q

FO - what is a pre-takeoff check and when is it required

A

check that representative surfaces are clear of frozen contamination as close to takeoff as possible using PIC determined representative surfaces. There is a (within HOT and HOT exceeded PTC)

32
Q

CA - what is normally the representative surface on SkyWest aircraft

A

outer left wing viewable from the PIC flight deck seat

33
Q

FO - what action must be take if the crew member conducting the pre-takeoff check is unable to determine if the representative surface is free of frozen contamination.

A

repeat the De-ice/ anti ice procedure

34
Q

CA - how do you determine if the Anti-ice fluid as failed?

A

fluid is not glossy- dull rough, unable to discern surface features below fluid, frozen contamination accumulation on the surface.

35
Q

FO - when is the pre-takeoff contamination check required

A

1- hot exceeded, 2- operations is heavy snow (700/900/175) 3 - HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions

36
Q

CA - how is the pretakeoff contamination check conducted?

A

Pilot out of flight deck procedures are utilized, parking brake is set and aircraft will be static, landing-taxi lights are out. announcement is made. check made from the cabin ask passengers to move from appropriate seats, flashlight in one window and looking through another.

37
Q

CA - what is the definition of a dry runway

A

one that is neither wet or contaminated

38
Q

FO - what is the definition of a wet runway?

A

more that 25% of the runway portion to be used is covered by visible dampness 1/8 inch in depth or less

39
Q

CA - what is the definition of a contaminated runway?

A

more that 25% of length and width to be used had more that 1/8 inch of water or its frozen contamination equivalent or any depth of compacted snow or ice.

40
Q

FO - are runway RwyCC values permitted to be used when calculating takeoff performance?

A

N0, FOM 7.5 adverse weather

41
Q

CA - how are FICON contaminants applied to takeoff performance if RwyCC values are not permitted to be used for takeoff?

A

FICON NOTAMS are used to determine runway contamination level.

42
Q

FO - what limits are considered by the dispatcher when calculating MFPTW?

A

Structural - MTOW, METW, MLDW+ planned burnoff

43
Q

CA - if actual OAT is greater that POAT is it permissible to use the reduced power settings from the TLR?

A

NO - normal thrust is required

44
Q

FO - when are flight crews required to make a landing distance performance assessment and determine actual landing distance.

A

when conditions at the destination are different from those planned or when the crew needs to know the absolute performance capability in an emergency abnormal/irregular condition (SOPM 4.10-12) Non-normal conditions (performance handbook)

45
Q

CA - Based on the planned landing weight and conditions, what is the minimum landing distance if the RCC is reported a 5/3/5.

A

use the TLR for RCC 3, ACARS aerodata performance or QRH PERF ch 6 or 7 as appropriate.

46
Q

FO - what RwyCC values or braking action reports prevent a takeoff or landing with a crosswind component of greater than 10kts

A

-RwyCC 1 or 2
-BA poor
FOM 7.7

47
Q

CA - if a discrepancy exists between a braking action PIREP and a reported RwyCC, which report shall be used to determine landing performance.

A

the most conservative estimation shall be used (FOM 7.5)

48
Q

FO - what is the minimum runway length for all aircraft types

A

5400 feet

49
Q

CA - what is the minimum runway length for a sat level 3 or lower less that 4000 ft for a CRJ700

A

5200 feet

50
Q

FO - what is the engine fail procedures for the planned departure runway?

A

STD, Simple special and complex special procedures

51
Q

CA - on a simple special engine failure procedure in IMC, when can radar vectors be accepted if available.

A

above FRA

52
Q

FO - is a complex special engine failure procedure mandatory in VMC

A

YES

53
Q

yes fliteview manual manifest image from the briefing and have the crew calculate the following performance section.
V speeds
flex?
MRTW with EAI N1 with EAI

A

?? old release?

CA KV 2020 (2 decks)

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