Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Medicine > CA-EXAM#2 > Flashcards

CA-EXAM#2 Flashcards

1
Q

what should you always do before and AFTER exams?

A

visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why shouldn’t you use topical anestetic

A
  1. can be cytotoxic to the epithelium
  2. retard healing
  3. increased risk of corneal scaring or infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hordeolum

A

“stye”, swelling at the margin of the eyelid by plugging of eyelash follicle to tear gland, can harden into a chalazion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

swelling and pain of the outer portion of the upper eyelid, inflammation of the lacrimal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

corneal abrasions

A 
severe pain, photophobia, and foreign body sensation
Examination:
1. penlight, look for penetrating trauma
2. visual acuity
3. fundoscopic exam
4. fluorescin stain
5. evert upper eyelid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pterygium

A

triangle wedge of fibrovascular tissue that starts at the nasal conjustiva and extends into the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

strabismus

A

dysconjugate gase

  1. imbalance of occular muscle tone
  2. cover-uncover test (the eye will look forward again when the good eye is covered because it is trying to compensate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cataracts, who are they common in? what do you loose?

A

opacity of the lense, problems with night driving or difficulty with fine print

RF: older age, smoking, corticosteroid use

LOSS OF RED REFLEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

open angle glaucoma; how about the cup?

A

rarely symptomatic, usually incidental finding

slow and progressive

“tunnel vision”

increased cupping, cup plaes, Cup>1/2 diameter of the disc, retinal vessels displaced nasally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

closed angle gluacoma

A

EMERGENCY rapid increase in IOP, severe pain, nausea, halos around lights

cilliary injection, dilated and fixed pupils, decreased vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

papilledema

A

EMERGENCY, increase in IOP, swelling of the optic disk, blurred margins

Causes: intracranial mass, lesion, or hemmorage meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hypertensive retinopathy

A

AV Nicking- vein appears to stop abruptly on either side of the artery

coper wiring-arteries become full, increased light reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

neovascularization

cotton wool spots-white or grayish over lesions due to infarction nerve fibers and reintal ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what tool do you use to remove cerumen?

A

ear curettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ottitis externa

A

ear pain, discharge, tenderness with tragal pressure or when auricle is pulled

wick placement for sever infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what two methods can you use to check for TM mobility and confirm middle ear effusion?

A

pneumatic otoscopy: creates a puff of air, confirm middle ear effusion

tympanogram: creates vibrations of ear pressure in the canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tympanosclerosis

A
  1. chalky white patches with irregular margins

2. scarrring from severe AOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

serous effusion; what are two common causes

A

fullness, popping sensation

fluid line and/or bubbles behind the TM

often caused by atmospheric pressure or URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

otitis media, what two bacteria can cause it?

A

TM erythematous and bulging, landmarks obscured, dilated vessles

S.pneumoniae and H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

eutachian tube dysfunction

A

ear fullness, ear pain, tiniitis, autophony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Weber test

A

UNILATERAL HEARING LOSS

conductive: sound in IMPAIRED ear
[bones aren’t working and sensineural is working so it works in overdrive and works more to pick up the sounds, think of jordan putting the virbrating thing on my head, heard it bad ear]

senorineural loss: sound in GOOD ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rinne test

A

checks air vs bone conduction

Normal hearing AC>BC

Conductive: BC>AC or BC=AC

sensorineural: AC>BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Benign positional vertigo, what causes it? what helps it?

A

triggered by head position change, N/V, NYSTAGMUS

caused by CANALITHIASIS, calcium deposit in the semicircular canal

correct with dix-hallpike position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acute sinusitis; what is important to do?

A

mucopurlulent nasal drainage, inferior turbinate hypertrophy, sinus pressure and pain, transluination of the sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

allergic rhinitis; color. what are two signs

A

pale, boggy nasal mucosa with blueish hue, allergic shiners and allergic salute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

foreign body; what can you remove it with?

A

foul smelling, purlulent, unilateral discharge, preschoolers

removal: blowing nose, sneezing, aligator forcepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nasal polyp; what can cause them?

A

grape like growths

intranasal corticosteroid spray, refer to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

angular cheilitis; what can cause it? what do you use to diagnose it?

A

erythema, maceration, scaling, fissures at the angle of the mouth

causes: overclosure of the mouth, nuitritional deficiency

candida albicans, KOH prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

gingivostomatitis; what can cause it?

A

cole sole, HSV, cluster of small vesicles, coalesce to form ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

aphthous ulcer; what is the coloration like?

A

canker sore, round well definied ulcer, GRAYISH BASE, surrounded by halo of reddened mucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

dental decay; what do you want to know?

A

tooth pain, gum swelling

want to know if the infection source is coronal or root surface of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

gingivitis; what is the coloration? what causes it?

A

swelling and blueish purple discoloration of gingiva, bleeding gums after eating or brushing

cause: dental plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

oral candidiasis; what can you loose?

A

thrush
pain with eating or swallowing, loss of taste
thick white plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

leukoplakia; what type of cell is this in?

A

thick white plaques, painless

reactive process of squamous eipthelium, doesn’t go away if you rub it! biopsy it!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

sialolothiasis; what should you have to patient do in order to diagnose beter

A

stones in the salivary glands or ducts, aggrevated by eating,

CP: have patient close mouth slightly to relax muscles, allows for better palpation of the floor of the mouth

36
Q

sialadentitis; where would you find swelling?

A

gland pain and swelling with pus draining from duct, consider CT, US

swelling by the parotid gland or submandicular glands

37
Q

actue pharyngitis; what is an importantant characteristic? what/where should you look?

A

viral, bacteria, allergies, irritants (smoke)

COBBLESTONING

look for epiglottis, peritonsillar abcess, submandibular space infections, retropharyngeal space infection form HIV

38
Q

submandibular space infections

A

ludwigs angina

39
Q

what are two conditions that cause exudative tonsillitis

A

EBV, infectious mono

GAS pharyngitis

40
Q

infectious mono; what two tests can you do? where should you palpate?

A

POSTERIOR cervical LAD, splenomegly, EBV,

monospot and CBC

41
Q

GAS pharyngitis (Group A Strep); what test do you want to do? where do you want to palpate and what might you see?

A

ANTERIOR cervical LAD, scarlatiniform rash

RADT (rapid antigen detecting test) +/- throat culture

42
Q

when will you commonly see a erythematous maculopapular rash?

A

patient with EBV aftering taking ampicillin/amoxicillin

43
Q

epiglottis; what should you never do? whats something interesting can you see on a xray? symptoms?

A

muffled voice, drooling, sniffling and tripodding position

DO NOT VISUALIZE THROAT WITH TONGUE BLADE

Lateral xray and look for THUMB SIGN

44
Q

peritonsillar abscess; explain what happens with the uvula? where is this located? what are the three stages of disease?

A

muffled voice, trismus

pus between palatine tonsil and pharyngeal muscles, FLUCTULANT TONSIL, DEVIATION OF THE UVULA TO OPPOSIT SIDE

polymicrobial…..tonsilitis then cellulitis then abcess

45
Q

Jugular venous pressure; what side can you visualize this better on? what can cause it to increase and decrease?

A

pressure in right atrium, best asscessed in the right internal jugular vein

decreased in blood loss and increases in heart failure, pulmonary hyper tension, and tricuspid stenosis

46
Q

the sternal sternal angle remains roughly ____ above the right atrium

A

5 cm

47
Q

where do you see the internal jugular venous pulsations

A

suprasternal notches, along the sternocleomastoid muscle, lower neck basicaly

48
Q

normal JVP findings

A

Less than 4 cm above sternal angle or 9 from right atrium (add 5 to the measurement from sternal angle to get the total distance).

49
Q

what are the differences between carotid and venous pulsations

A

carotid: palpable, single outward movement, stronger, not elimated when pushing, heigh unchanged by position, height not effected by pulsations

internal jugular: rarely palpable, soft, height changes with position, falls with inspiration

50
Q

what are you accessing for when you listen to carotids?

A

bruits

51
Q

thrills; How do you find it? what does it sound like?

A

humming vibrations, like a cat when purring PALPABLE MURMER, FEEL FOR IT

52
Q

bruits; how do you find it

A

a mumur like sound from tuburlent flow, LISTEN FOR IT

53
Q

lift and heaves; where do you access for these? specifically? How do you access for them?

A

on chest, you feel for them not listen, S3 and S4 at the apex

54
Q

PMI-point of maximum impulse

A

apical pulse, 4th or 5th interspace along the mid clavicular line

55
Q

2nd right intercosta space you hear

A

aortia

56
Q

2nd left intercostal space you hear

A

pulmonary area

57
Q

3rd intercostal space you hear; what can you hear best here

A

erbs point, best for S2 auscultation

58
Q

4th/5th inercostal space you hear

A

tricuspid area

59
Q

5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line you hear

A

apex, mitrial area

60
Q

left lateral decubitus position; where do you listen? what does it help you to hear?

A

ascultate with the bell at the apex at the apex or 5th intercostal space, brings left ventricle closer to the chest wall and accentuates MITRIAL MURMERS S3 and S4

61
Q

by having the person lean forward and listening to their left 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces, it accentuates

A

an aortic murmer

62
Q

explain the sounds you would hear when precussing

A

flat-thigh
dull-liver
resonant- healthy lung
tympanic-gastric air bubbles in the intestines

63
Q

vesicular sound explination

A

inspiration>expiration

64
Q

broncho-vesicular

A

expiration=inspiration, 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces anteriorly

65
Q

bronchial

A

exp>inspiration over manubrium

66
Q

tracheal

A

insp=exp over trachea

67
Q

where do you place your hands to measure respiratory excursion

A

10th ribs

68
Q

what are the number of percussion and auscultation fields on the back and front for the lungs?

A

4 anterior, 2 lateral, and 7 posterior

69
Q

what is the difference between respiratory expasion and diaphragmatic excursion

A

respiratory expansion is when you pinch the skin in the back and have them take a deep breath in

diaphragmatic excursion is when you have them take a deep breath in and measure where the percussion sounds change from resonant to dull, and do the same thing coming back up 3-5.5 cm normal values

70
Q

what is the normal measurement for diaphragmatic excursion

A

3-5.5 cm

71
Q

where do you precuss on your hand

A

pleximeter finger at the dip joint

72
Q

explain the different between pleximeter finger and plexor finger when precussing

A

pleximeter finger is the left middle finger

plexor finger is the right middle finger

73
Q

how do you distinguish between resonant and tympanic?

A

resonant: loud intensity, low pitch
tympanic: loud intensity, HIGH pitch

74
Q

coarse crackles or rales

A

20-30 sec, louder

75
Q

fine crackles or rales

A

5-10 sec, very brief and soft

76
Q

wheezes

A

whistles, high pitched

77
Q

rhonchi

A

snoring, coarse

78
Q

what are the grades for pulses

A

0-none, unable to palpate/absent
1- weak pulse, diminished
2+ normal pulse, brisk
3+ too strong, bounding

79
Q

what is the order for the cardiac exam

A
  1. look at neck
  2. palpate down the sternal boarder, the the PMI which is between 4th and 5th intercostal in mid clavicular line
  3. roll over and listen to the apex
  4. proceed with listening to the rest
  5. then have them sit up and lean forward listening to the aorta
80
Q

where should your hands be to palpate the kidney on the back?

A

12th ribs

81
Q

striking the back allows you to access for

A

costovertebral tendernous

82
Q

what is the rating scale for pitting

A 
0-none
1+- depression, disappeares 
2+-2-4 mm, 10-20 seconds
3+-4-6 mm, >1 min
4 6-8 mm for many minutes
83
Q

S1 systolic is usually ______ than S2

A

S1 systolic is usually louder than S2 at apex

84
Q

T or F, you PALPATE for heaves, lifts and thrills. where do you palpate for them?

A

TRUE, 4-5th intercostal space on midclaicular line

85
Q

average size of the aorta is

A

2.5 cm

86
Q

HOW DO YOU FIND LIFTS, THRILLS, AND HEAVES?

A

FEELING THEM, NOT LISTENING!!

Clinical Medicine (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions