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CGSC X100 > C400 Doctrine > Flashcards

C400 Doctrine Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?

A

Economic, infrastructure, time

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2
Q

_____________ is a location or condition, in any domain, relative to an adversary or enemy that provides an opportunity to progress towards or achieve an objective.

A

Relative advantage

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3
Q

What are the tenets of multidomain operations?

A

Agility, convergence, endurance, depth

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4
Q

Which of the following is an Army warfighting function?

A

Protection

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5
Q

An ___________ is an operational area defined by a commander for the land or maritime force commander to accomplish their missions and protect their forces.

A

Area of operations

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6
Q

_____________ is the U.S. Army’s current operational concept.

A

Multidomain operations

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7
Q

Which of the following is a tactical mission task?

A

Control

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8
Q

Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?

A

Destroy

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9
Q

After visualizing the broad operational approach to achieve the end state, the commander met with the staff and provided COAs to develop in addition to direction for each warfighting function. What BEST describes what the commander did?

A

Provided planning guidance

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10
Q

What are the main elements contained within the commander’s intent?

A

Broad purpose, key tasks for the unit as a whole, end state conditions

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11
Q

What are the major integrating processes within the operations process?

A

Information operations, intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB), knowledge management, risk management, and targeting

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12
Q

What planning methodology would you recommend during the execution of the mission if an unanticipated threat is likely to cause a change in the concept of the operations?

A

Rapid decision making and synchronization process

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13
Q

What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?

A

Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented

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14
Q

When comparing fundamentals of reconnaissance and security operations, which fundamental is considered in both?

A

Continuous reconnaissance

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15
Q

What are the forms of reconnaissance operations?

A

Zone, Area, reconnaissance in force, and special

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16
Q

What are the four primary types of security operations?

A

Screen, guard, cover, area security

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17
Q

What doctrinal concept is a BCT commander describing if, during receipt of mission, he describes his understanding of the BCT’s mission as gaining control of key terrain to protect the flank of the division’s main effort, setting the conditions for withdrawal of enemy forces?

A

Purposes of the offense

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18
Q

What doctrinal concept does the commander want to make sure his staff addresses in each COA if he directs his staff to ensure all COAs include surprise, concentration, tempo, and audacity?

A

Characteristics of the offense

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19
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about forms of maneuver?

A

Frontal attacks and envelopments destroy enemy in their current positions

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20
Q

What does this graphic control measure depict?

A

Forward line of own troops

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21
Q

What does this graphic control measure depict?

A

Line of departure

22
Q

graphic control measure

A

FM 1-02.2, Military Symbols, May 22

23
Q

During the offense which protection tasks would a commander most likely place special emphasis?

A

Survivability and detention operations

24
Q

In offensive zone force tactics (OPFOR), what is a garrison zone?

A

An area that is free of significant enemy action and to permit the effective logistics and administrative support of forces

25
Q

Which of the following is a reason that a BCT would reach a culmination point?

A

Equipment repairs and personnel replacements do not keep pace with losses

26
Q

Which of the following is a purpose of defensive operations?
a.
Seize terrain, resources, and population centers

Correctb.
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy

c.
Seize population centers

d.
Disrupt an enemy attack

A

Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy

27
Q

What characteristic of the defense does a unit exhibit by planning the use of natural terrain, minefields, and likely avenues of approach to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas?

A

Preparation

28
Q

The commander directs the staff to develop a defensive operation where effects can be concentrated, depth of the defensive area is maximized, the ability to take full advantage of the terrain, build flexibility within defensive actions, and buy time for resumption for future offensive operations. What type of defense is the staff planning?

A

Area defense

29
Q

Of the five kinds of battle positions, which statement below describes a supplementary position?

A

A defensive position that provides the best sectors of fire along an enemy avenue of approach

30
Q

What are some high priority sustainment considerations during a defensive operation?

A

Availability of Class IV and Class V

31
Q

According to OPFOR tactics, what are the types of attack?

A

Attacking a fortified enemy, Attacking an unprepared enemy, Amphibious landing operations, urban offensive operations, airborne operations, operations under special conditions

32
Q

If you are conducting a defensive operation, and it is unsuccessful, what will your unit most likely transition to?

A

Retrograde operations

33
Q

Foreign instigated insurgencies, domestic rebellions, and humanitarian crises are sources of what?

A

Instability

34
Q

In stability operations, what is the “whole-of-government approach?”

A

The development, integration, and coordination of all instruments of national power and integrates the collaborative efforts of the departments and agencies of the USG to achieve unity of effort toward a shared goal

35
Q

The stabilization framework is designed to accomplish which of the following?

A

Provide a sequenced response model for intervening actors

36
Q

Which of the following Army stability tasks nests within Department of State’s justice and reconciliation sector?

A

Establish/support civil control

37
Q

Stability operations are planned as part of any large-scale combat operation (LSCO), but at what stage of an operation are stability tasks initiated?

A

As soon as conditions permit, no matter the combat environment

38
Q

What are designated events called that may be targeted by terrorist or other criminal activities by virtue of their political, economic, social, or religious significance (i.e., Olympics, presidential inaugurations, and state funerals) that require DSCA mission support?

A

National special security event

39
Q

Which processes allow a command to support local communities in an emergency situation/incident?

A

MOA/MOU, immediate response authority

40
Q

Which law governs the President’s authority to deploy federal military forces, including federalized National Guard forces, within the United States to put down lawlessness and rebellion?

A

Insurrection Act

41
Q

You are a member of a USNORTHCOM situational assessment team deployed to the Kansas City area to assess recent natural disaster conditions in advance of the potential commitment of federal military forces. What military representative does your team coordinate with for information sharing with other local, state and federal agencies?

A

Defense coordinating officer (DCO)

42
Q

What is a service or DoD agency installation within the homeland tasked to serve as a base for military forces engaged in DSCA or homeland defense called?

A

Base support installation (BSI)

43
Q

The __________ is an orderly, analytical process that integrates the activities of the commander, staff, and subordinate headquarters in the development of a plan or order.

A

Military decision-making process (MDMP)

44
Q

What are the doctrinally correct titles and sequence for the five paragraphs of an operations order?

A

Situation, mission, execution, sustainment, command and signal

45
Q

__________________ is the systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and informational considerations in each of the other factors, in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations.

A

Intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB)

46
Q

Initial intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB) occurs during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)?

A

Mission analysis

47
Q

What is the process that staffs use to develop courses of action during MDMP?

A

Assess relative combat power, generate options, array forces, develop a broad concept, assign headquarters, develop COA statements and sketches, conduct COA briefing, select or modify COAS for continued analysis

48
Q

War gaming is conducted during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)?

A

Course of action analysis

49
Q

A ________________ help subordinate units and staffs prepare for new missions by describing the situation, providing initial planning guidance, and directing preparation activities.

A

Warning order (WARNORD)

50
Q

When preparing an operations plan or order, which Army reference specifies format standards and information requirements?

A

FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production

51
Q

As the commander develops the defensive plan, what is the first and most critical security consideration at the beginning of any defensive operation?

A

Conduct reconnaissance to gain and maintain contact with the enemy

CGSC X100 (4 decks)

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