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C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course > C12U Systems Exam > Flashcards

C12U Systems Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of parasite drag?

A

Induced Drag

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2
Q

Why is the top an airplanes wing curved?

A

To create an area of low pressure above the wing

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3
Q

The _____________ is a theoretical point where all the aircraft’s weight is considered to be concentrated.

A

Center of gravity

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4
Q

An aircraft with its center of gravity at the aft limit will exhibit all of these performance characteristics except?

A

Highest stall speed

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5
Q

What is the purpose of a dihedral of a wing?

A

Create a stabilizing moment

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6
Q

The initial tendency of the aircraft to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed is called?

A

Positive static stability

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7
Q

Which is NOT a purpose of a high lift device?

A

Important for high-speed characteristics of aircraft

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8
Q

Which method is most often used to increase the coefficient of lift?

A

Increase camber of airfoil

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9
Q

The only condition that can cause a stall is an excessive ___________

A

Angle of attack

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10
Q

A method of stall progression from the root section to the wingtip where the wing consists of both a cambered and symmetrical airfoil is called _________.

A

Aerodynamic Twist

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11
Q

The _________ should be used during takeoff when obstacle clearance is a primary concern. The most altitude is gained for the horizontal distance covered.

A

Vx Best angle of climb

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12
Q

When airspeed is held constant, a larger _________ will result in a smaller turn radius and greater turn rate.

A

Angle of bank

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13
Q

Ground effect reduces or cancels out the downwash and _________behind the wing during takeoff and landing near the runway surface. This causes lifting surfaces to become more effective.

A

Wingtip vortexes

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14
Q

Takeoff distance is directly _________ to takeoff velocity squared.

A

Proportional

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15
Q

A _______ propeller setting obtains maximum power for takeoff.

A

Low Pitch, high RPM

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16
Q

The function of the propeller governor is to:

A

Control the blade angle to maintain a constant propeller RPM

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17
Q

Define “critical engine”

A

Engine whose loss presents the greatest controllability problem

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18
Q

Vmc is highly sensitive to which condition?

A

Bank Angle

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of structural icing?

A

Induction

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20
Q

Which of the following should you perform in the event you inadvertently penetrate a thunderstorm while flying?

A

Plan and hold course to get through thunderstorm in minimal time

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21
Q

_____________ can cause you to become disoriented with the horizon at night.

A

Ground lighting

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22
Q

A_____________ runway can create an illusion that the aircraft is lower than it actually is leading to a higher approach.

A

Wide

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23
Q

The PT6A-42 engine has two ignitor plugs which are located at?

A

4 and 9 o’clock

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24
Q

The outlet pressure at the high pressure fuel pump is

A

900-1100 psi

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25
Q

The torque limiter monitors torque-meter oil pressure and if the engine produces excessive torque, the limiter bleeds off governing air pressure within the FCU to reduce fuel flow, which in turn _______________

A

reduces N1 speed

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26
Q

The oil pressure caution range above 21,000 feet is?

A

85-100 psi

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27
Q

The max torque percent with less than 1600 propeller RPM is _________.

A

49%

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28
Q

Normal climb and cruise TGT is ______.

A

770c

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29
Q

All emergency and abnormal operations procedures can be found in which chapter of the flight manual?

A

Chapter 9

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30
Q

A ____________ system is installed in each engine to detect external fire and provide alarm to the pilot.

A

Flame surveillance

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31
Q

Infrared radiation exposure activates the relay circuit of a ___________, which causes signal power to be sent to cockpit warning systems.

A

control amplifier

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32
Q

Pulling the _________ will electrically arm the extinguisher system and close the fuel firewall shutoff valve for that particular engine.

A

fire control handle

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33
Q

Pressing the lens of the _________ switch will fire the squib, expelling all the agent in the cylinder at one time.

A

Push to extinguish

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34
Q

Beta and reverse blade angles are controlled by the ________ in the beta and reverse range.

A

Power levers

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35
Q

If the primary governor fails, the overspeed governor will activate at approximately _________.

A

2080

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36
Q

When the PROP SYN is ON, and the left propeller is operating at a higher rpm, a black and white cross pattern located on the pilots instrument panel will _____________.

A

Spin counterclockwise

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37
Q

The AUTOFEATHER system will not arm until the AUTOFEATHER swtich is in ARM, the power levers are at the 90% N1 or greater position and ________________.

A

The high and low pressure switches sense torque loss

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38
Q

The maximum propeller overspeed limit is _______ RPM and is limited to 5 seconds.

A

2200

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39
Q

During approach, propellers should be set to at least _________ RPM to prevent glide-slope interference, provide better power response during approach, and minimize altitude change when advancing propeller levers for landing.

A

1900

40
Q

If an overspeed condition occurs that cannot be controlled with the propeller lever or by reducing power, the first step the pilot must accomplish is ________.

A

Power lever (Affected Engine) - IDLE

41
Q

The C-12 fuel system consists of ___________ wing tanks.

A

Five interconnected

42
Q

If either auxiliary transfer system fails to operate, the fault condition is indicated by two illuminated MASTER CAUTION annunciators on the glareshield and a steady illuminated yellow _________ light on the Master Caution/Advisory annunciator panel.

A

1 or #2 NO FUEL XFR

43
Q

Normal gravity transfer of the main wing fuel into the nacelle tanks will begin when ________ is exhausted.

A

Aux fuel

44
Q

The ______ and ________ in each fuel system provide inlet head pressure to the engine driven primary high pressure fuel pump.

A

Engine driven fuel boost pump and standby fuel pump

45
Q

The ferry fuel system consists of two ________ aluminum fuel tanks mounted on the left and right side seat tracks on each side of the cabin.

A

120 gallon

46
Q

Do not fill the ferry fuel tanks unless the _________ tanks are full.

A

Main and Aux

47
Q

When the #1 or #2 NAC LOW annunciation on the caution/advisory panel illuminates there is approximately __________ (247 pounds) of usable fuel remaining at sea level normal cruise power consumption rate for the applicable engine.

A

30 Minutes

48
Q

Illumination of the No. 1 or No. 2 FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates failure of the respective?

A

Engine-Driven boost pump

49
Q

Where is the Hot Battery Bus physically located on the aircraft?

A

Under the right center wing section

50
Q

The aircraft battery provides _______ VDC power to the electrical system.

A

24 Volts

51
Q

What is the maximum generator load allowed at FL250?

A

100%

52
Q

What is the starter limitation during the first start attempt?

A

40 sec on 60 sec off

53
Q

How many times should you reset a circuit breaker for an essential circuit?

A

Once

54
Q

The BATTERY CHARGE annunciator should extinguish within approx how many minutes after engine start?

A

5 minutes

55
Q

______ air is tapped off each engine from the 3rd stage of the compressor section, routed through the fire seal……….

A

Bleed

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pressurization system.

A

Flow control valve

57
Q

If change in cruise altitude is necessary select a new altitude + ______ ft on the cabin alt dial.

A

500

58
Q

Which of the following is not used in determining the pressure control setting for landing.

A

Temperature

59
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential.

A

6.0 +/- .1

60
Q

Cabin air pressure rate of descent must not exceed _______ when extended range fuel tanks are installed in the cabin and fuel caps are on.

A

1500

61
Q

Do not attempt to check security of cabin door or cargo door in flight remain as far from doors as possible with seatbelt securely fastened this is Warning associated with cabin door annunciator.

A

Warning

62
Q

Which of the following is not part of the procedure for cracked or shattered windshield.

A

Altitude - maintain 10,000 ft or less

63
Q

Which system is NOT part of the Pneumatics system?

A

Air-conditioning system

64
Q

The rudder boost system is ______________________?

A

An aid for maintaining directional stability during engine failure or large power variation between engines.

65
Q

During simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice systems, maintain the N1 at _________% or higher. If adequate pneumatic pressure cannot be provided for simultaneous operation of the brake deice and surface deice system, turn the brake deice switch to ___________.

A

85 %, OFF

66
Q

Bleed air is supplied to the landing gear power pack to __________.

A

Prevent pump cavitation

67
Q

The poly-flow is used for which system?

A

Bleed air warning system

68
Q

The gyro suction gauge normal range above 15,000 feet is?

A

2.8-4.3

69
Q

The flow control unit controls the flow of ______ and ______ air.

A

Ambient and bleed

70
Q

The landing gear safety switch ________.

A

Closes the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight.

71
Q

The ambient air mixes with cabin air during __________

A

Pressurized and unpressurized flight.

72
Q

The AFT vent blower operates continuously, when the switch is placed in the ________ position and there is a ______ command.

A

On and Cool

73
Q

The A/C system uses a ____________________

A

Automotive style compressor on the RIGHT or NUMBER TWO.

74
Q

The n1 speed switch will prevent electrical power from being delivered to the compressor clutch when engine RPM is blow ______%

A

65

75
Q

Allow _______ minutes for cabin air temp to stabilize.

A

3-5

76
Q

The left right Bleed air fail annunciators may __________ during simultaneous surface deice and brake deice operations at low N1 Speed.

A

Momentarily Illuminate.

77
Q

The duct overtemp light checklist

A

Is considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

78
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking windshield heat should be placed in the Normal position for at least ____ minutes prior to using the High position.

A

15

79
Q

What is the definition for Vyse?

A

Best single engine rate of climb

80
Q

What is the definition for Vx

A

Best angle-of-climb speed (obstacle clearance)

81
Q

How can the most accurate performance data be obtained?

A

By using existing conditions

82
Q

When computing takeoff power engine ice vanes shall be retracted above what temperature?

A

15 C

83
Q

You must re-compute a new TOLD card anytime conditions increase by?

A

+1000 feet PA, +10 c, or +500 pounds

84
Q

Nose wheel steering limits are _________° to the left and _________° to the right.

A

12 Left, 14 Right

85
Q

Full flap extension or retraction time is _________.

A

11 Seconds

86
Q

Split flap protection is set at _________° to _________° out of phase with the adjacent flap panel

A

3 to 5

87
Q

The maximum flap extension speed for approach is?

A

200 KIAS

88
Q

The stall warning horn will sound _________ above power-off stall speed

A

5 to 10 KIAS

89
Q

Brakes are applied _________.

A

Individually

90
Q

The parking brake handle can be set from _________.

A

Pilot or Co pilot positions

91
Q

Engine bleed air is used to _________.

A

Prevent pump cavitation

92
Q

Landing gear down position is indicated by three _________ lights on the pilot’s subpanel.

A

hree GREEN

93
Q

How many sources of static air are provided to the flight instruments in the normal static system?

A

Two

94
Q

What is the minimum amount of supplemental oxygen required?

A

10 minutes above 25000 feet

95
Q

For oxygen duration computations, count each diluter-demand crew mask in use as _________.

A

Two

96
Q

The PASS OXY ON light illuminates when _________.

A

Oxygen flows into passenger supply line

C12U CAE Fixed Wing Course (3 decks)

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