C & L Flashcards

1
Q
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. Grave's disease
C. Administration of exogenous thyroid
D. TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
E. Hydatidiform mole
A

B. Grave’s disease

Hyperthyroidism is the condition resulting from the effect of excessive amounts of thyroid hormone on body tissues. Grave’s disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis causes hypothyroidism. Excess ingestion of thyroid hormone is relatively common when patients are given higher doses than that necessary to maintain a euthyroid state. TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma is very rare.

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2
Q

Which of the following is not the role of the psychiatry liaison consultant?
A. Comprehensive assessment of the patient
B. Accurate note keeping
C. Detailed psychodynamic formulation
D. Documentation of plans for follow-up

A

C. Detailed psychodynamic formulation

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3
Q

Which of the following is true regarding mental disorders in patients with epilepsy?
A. Ictal psychosis is more common than interictal psychosis.
B. Violence is common during a seizure.
C. Rates of attempted suicide are increased in people with epilepsy.
D. Mood symptoms are more common than schizophrenia-like symptoms.

A

C. Rates of attempted suicide are increased in people with epilepsy.

Interictal psychotic states are more common than ictal psychosis. An estimated 10-30% of all patients with complex partial epilepsy have psychotic symptoms. Risk factors are female gender, lefthandedness, onset of seizures during puberty, and a left-sided lesion. Mood symptoms like depression and mania are seen less often than schizophrenia-like symptoms. There is an increased incidence of attempted suicide in patients with epilepsy.

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4
Q
In which of the following regions of the brain is a tumor most likely to cause psychiatric symptoms?
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Temporal
D. Occipital
A

A. Frontal

Approximately 50% of patients with brain tumors experience psychiatric symptoms. In approximately 80%, the tumors are located in the frontal or limbic region. Meningiomas are likely to cause focal symptoms by compressing a limited region of the cortex, whereas gliomas are likely to cause diffuse symptoms.

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5
Q
What is the most common reason for psychiatric consultation in rehabilitation medicine?
A. Anxiety
B. Pain
C. Depression
D. Psychosis
A

C. Depression

Depression is the most frequent reason for psychiatric consultation in rehabilitation medicine. It is associated with longer duration of inpatient rehabilitation, deficient self-care, and delay in resumption of premorbid social activities.

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6
Q
What is the most common psychiatric manifestation of Cushing syndrome?
A. Mania
B. Psychosis
C. Depression
D. Panic attacks
E. Anxiet
A

C. Depression

The most common psychiatric manifestation of Cushing syndrome is depression. Cushing syndrome refers to a diverse symptom complex due to excess steroid hormone production by the adrenal cortex or sustained administration of glucocorticoids. The depressive symptoms are moderate to severe in 50% of patients. Many patients also experience psychotic features. In patients who demonstrate depression, it may be necessary to institute therapy for the depression itself while awaiting the eventual resolution of the manifestation of Cushing syndrome.

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7
Q
With which of the following is exogenous administration of steroids most commonly associated?
A. Mania
B. Psychosis
C. Depression
D. Panic attacks
E. Anxiety
A

A. Mania

Exogenous administration of steroids is most commonly associated with mania. It can also cause psychosis, depression, panic attacks, or anxiety.

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8
Q
What is the most common psychiatric condition seen in patients with hyperparathyroidism?
A. Mania
B. Depression
C. Psychosis
D. Anxiety
E. Panic attacks
A

B. Depression

Depression is common in patients with hypercalcemia. The severity of symptoms intensifies as the level of hypercalcemia increases. Delirium, psychosis, and cognitive impairment are more commonly seen in patients who have calcium levels more than 50 mg per dl. Depressive symptoms, but not cognitive symptoms, tend to resolve with treatment. Cognitive symptoms may improve; however, residual symptoms may remain.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding diabetes mellitus?
A. Dementia is less common.
B. There is a negative correlation between depression and good diabetic control.
C. In ketoacidotic coma, the level of consciousness correlates with plasma osmolality.
D. MAOIs potentiate the effect of oral hypoglycemic drugs.

A

A. Dementia is less common.

Dementia is more common in persons with diabetes mellitus. There is a negative correlation between emotional symptoms and diabetic control. Patients exhibiting persistent psychiatric symptoms who receive psychiatric intervention may have less disease morbidity. Between one-third and two-third of patients with diabetes mellitus have some kind of psychiatric disorder, ranging from anxiety and depression to substance abuse.

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10
Q
Which of the following is not a psychiatric manifestation of hyperthyroidism?
A. Depression
B. Anxiety
C. Schizophrenia-like symptoms
D. Opiate dependence
E. Cognitive impairment
A

D. Opiate dependence

Hyperthyroidism is associated with a variety of psychiatric manifestations including anxiety, depression, psychosis, and cognitive impairment. More than 90% of patients presenting with depression and anxiety who do not have a preexisting psychiatric condition will experience resolution of the symptoms during the course of treatment for hyperthyroidism. Opiate dependence is not known to be associated with hyperthyroidism.

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11
Q
All of the following are associated with psychiatric illness with steroid treatment except
A. Male sex
B. Higher dose
C. Longer duration of therapy
D. Previous psychiatric illness
E. Depressed mood
A

A. Male sex

Psychiatric illness with steroid use is associated with female sex, high doses of steroids, longer duration of treatment, previous history of psychiatric illness, and depressed mood.

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12
Q

Which of the following is true regarding SSRIs used in treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder?
A. They cannot be combined with hormonal treatments.
B. They are poorly tolerated.
C. They inhibit ovulation.
D. They can be used exclusively in the luteal phase.
E. They have few side effects.

A

D. They can be used exclusively in the luteal phase.

Most serotonin-enhancing antidepressants have been shown to be effective in the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder in comparison with placebo. Some SSRIs given in the latter half of the cycle can be as effective as continuous daily doses. In the case of citalopram, half-cycle dosing was found to be better than daily dosing. It has been postulated that some woman may have reduced serotonergic activity across the menstrual cycle as a trait, and during the luteal phase, further abnormalities of serotonergic function may occur. The beneficial effects of SSRIs on dysphoric symptoms are evident soon after initiation of treatment. They are generally well tolerated and do not interfere with ovulation.

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13
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pituitary disease?
A. There is an increased rate of mania in hypopituitarism.
B. Libido is increased in acromegaly.
C. Psychosis is common in acromegaly.
D. Increased energy and activity are seen in hypopituitarism.
E. Symptoms of hypopituitarism fully resolve with treatment.

A

E. Symptoms of hypopituitarism fully resolve with treatment.

Symptoms of hypopituitarism generally fully resolve with treatment. There is an increased rate of lethargy and depression in hypopituitarism. Libido is reduced in acromegaly, and psychosis is not common.

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14
Q
All of the following are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency EXCEPT:
A. Macrocytic anemia
B. Depression
C. Polyneuropathy
D. Dementia
E. Memory impairment
A

B. Depression

Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause macrocytosis, polyneuropathy, dementia, and memory impairment. Its association with depression is not established.

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15
Q
All of the following are symptoms of Wilson's disease except
A. Cognitive impairment
B. Visual symptoms
C. Epilepsy
D. Changes in personality
E. Rigidity and dystonia
A

B. Visual symptoms

Wilson’s disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder that occurs between the first and third decades of life. It is characterized by the excess deposition of copper in the liver and brain. It tends to present as liver disease in adolescence and neuropsychiatric disease in young adults. The neurologic manifestations are related to basal ganglia dysfunction and include resting, postural, or kinetic tremor; rigidity; and dystonia of the bulbar musculature with dysarthria and dysphagia. Psychiatric features include behavioral and personality changes and emotional lability. The pathognomonic sign is the brownish Kayser-Fleischer ring in the cornea

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16
Q

All of the following are symptoms of premenstrual dysphoric disorder except
A. Pelvic discomfort
B. Irritability
C. Occurrence of the disorder soon after menstruation
D. Carbohydrate craving
E. Occurrence of the disorder for 2 consecutive months

A

C. Occurrence of the disorder soon after menstruation

The essential features required for a diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) are symptoms of marked and persistent anger or irritability, depressed mood, anxiety, and affective lability that have occurred regularly during the last week of luteal phase in most menstrual cycles during the last year. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder diagnosis requires that symptoms be present for a minimum of 2 consecutive months. PMDD must also be differentiated from premenstrual exacerbation or magnification of other conditions.

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17
Q

Which of the following is true about premenstrual dysphoric disorder?
A. It is seen in 10% to 20% of women.
B. It indicates abnormal ovarian function.
C. Symptoms are more severe in a middle-aged woman.
D. It is linked to abnormal central serotonergic function.
E. It is not associated with sexual abuse.

A

D. It is linked to abnormal central serotonergic function.

A number of studies have consistently demonstrated an important role for serotonin in the pathophysiology of PMDD. Patients have lower whole-blood serotonin levels and lower platelet serotonin uptake during the premenstrual phase. Estimates of prevalence vary with severe symptoms reported in 4-7% of women. The presence of PMDD does not indicate abnormal ovarian function, and women with PMDD show no consistent differences in basal levels of ovarian hormones. Younger age has been associated with more severe symptoms. It is also associated with low levels of education. Past sexual abuse is reported by a significant proportion of women seeking treatment for PMDD.

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18
Q

All of the following are true of porphyria except
A. Peripheral neuropathy may be seen.
B. Elevated ceruloplasmin is seen.
C. Benzodiazepines may be used.
D. Symptoms may resemble schizophrenia.
E. Acute intermittent porphyria is the most common form.

A

B. Elevated ceruloplasmin is seen.

Acute intermittent porphyria is the most common form of porphyria. It is an autosomal dominant condition. Clinical illness usually develops in women. Many drugs may precipitate attacks including alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, phenytoin, and valproic acid. Patients present with abdominal pain, autonomic and peripheral neuropathy, seizures, psychosis, and abnormalities of the basal ganglia. Benzodiazepines are generally considered to be safe for use in porphyria.

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19
Q
Which of the following inborn errors of metabolism can not be treated by diet?
A. Homocystinuria
B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Galactosemia
A

B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that affects boys exclusively. Infants with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome develop attacks of hypertonia within a few weeks of birth. They also develop spasticity with ataxia and choreoathetosis. Most children have severe mental retardation and become wheelchair bound. They also show verbal and physical aggression and self-injurious behavior. The condition is not treated by dietary control. Treatment by dietary modification is a part of the treatment for homocystinuria, phenylketonuria, and galactosemia.

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20
Q

Which of the following is true about prion diseases?
A. It is more common in men.
B. Patients usually have a normal EEG.
C. There is a reduced risk with E4 apolipoprotein allele.
D. It is encoded on chromosome 10.
E. The familial form is autosomal recessive.

A

A. It is more common in men.

Prion diseases are called subacute spongiform encephalopathies. They are associated with the accumulation in the brain of abnormal partially protease-resistant glycoproteins known as prion proteins. The human prion diseases can be divided into inherited, sporadic, and acquired forms. CJD is a rapidly progressive multifocal dementia with myoclonus. Onset occurs between 45 and 75 years of age. The clinical progression is typically over weeks, progressing to akinetic mutism and death within 2 to 3 months. Patients with progressive dementia and two or more of the following signs in the setting of an EEG finding of pseudoperiodic sharp wave activity nearly always have CJD: myoclonus; cortical brightness; pyramidal, cerebellar, or extrapyramidal signs; or akinetic mutism. The familial form of prion disease, called Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome, has an onset in the third and fourth decades of life and is characterized by cerebellar ataxia with pyramidal features and dementia. It is an autosomal dominant disorder.

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding affective disorder in patients on renal dialysis?
A. Adjustment disorder can lead to behavioral problems.
B. Major depression is the most common psychiatric diagnosis.
C. Adjustment disorders can influence physical outcome.
D. Adjustment disorders may become chronic.
E. Lack of energy and insomnia are less indicative of depression than in patients who are not on dialysis.

A

B. Major depression is the most common psychiatric diagnosis.

The most common psychiatric diagnoses in patients on renal dialysis are adjustment disorders (30%), mood disorders (24%), and organic mental disorders. Symptoms useful in identifying major depressive disorders are low mood, reduced interest, feelings of worthlessness, excess guilt, anorexia, weight loss, and slow thoughts. Symptoms not useful in making a diagnosis are lack of energy, insomnia, and reduced libido, because these occur in end-stage renal disease. Behavioral problems such as self-neglect, social withdrawal, and noncompliance with treatment are common and can affect physical outcome.

22
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding cognitive therapy in liaison settings?
A. It teaches techniques to deal with future problems.
B. It can modify negative automatic thoughts about physical illness.
C. It helps patients regain control of their illness.
D. It is supported by evidence in liaison settings.
E. It is directed by therapists’ perception of the patient’s problems.

A

D. It is supported by evidence in liaison settings.

Cognitive therapy can be used in the treatment of psychological problems related to physical illness. Patients’ attitude about their illness is of considerable importance to the outcome. The less control patients perceive themselves as having in a situation, the more depressed they are likely to be. Therapy involves the patient and therapist understanding the patient’s perception of problems. As well as assessing cognition, it is important to target physical symptoms and problems that can be assessed and baselines accorded to measure future change. Therapy should improve patients’ sense of control over their physical state and educate them in techniques they can use to deal with problems in the future.

23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding denial in patients on renal dialysis?
A. It is rarely present.
B. It may cause problems with compliance.
C. It is always pathological.
D. If denial is low, less mood dysfunction occurs.
E. High denial results in rapid readjustment.

A

B. It may cause problems with compliance.

Denial is a defense mechanism often used by patients with end-stage illness. Some patients may use this more than others. Patients with low denial scores have been found to have greater interpersonal sensitivity and greater mood and sleep dysfunction than those with high denial scores. Automatic thoughts in patients with low denial tend to focus on their losses, leading to affective disturbance. Therefore, denial may be adaptive in complementing a patient’s ability to break the cycle of automatic thoughts that may lead to affective problems, allowing gradual adjustment to occur.

24
Q
Which of the following is not useful in diagnosing depression in the patient on a medical inpatient unit?
A. Hopelessness
B. Morning depression
C. Depressed mood
D. Sleep disturbance
E. Suicidal thoughts
A

D. Sleep disturbance

Depression is more difficult to diagnose in patients with physical illness. Depressed mood, hopelessness, and morning depression have been shown to be effective as differentiating symptoms to distinguish depression from the effects of physical illness. Sleep disturbance, anorexia, lethargy, and psychomotor retardation may be due to physical illness.

25
Q

Which of the following is true about the treatment of depression in diabetes mellitus?
A. Fluoxetine is the preferred drug.
B. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause hypoglycemic episodes.
C. Tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided even in well-controlled diabetes mellitus.
D. Sodium valproate can give false-positive urine tests for glucose.
E. Amitriptyline is contraindicated in diabetic neuropathy.

A

D. Sodium valproate can give false-positive urine tests for glucose.

SSRIs can reduce serum glucose by up to 30% and cause appetite suppression resulting in weight loss. Fluoxetine should be avoided owing to its increased potential for hypoglycemia. Tricyclic antidepressants can increase serum glucose levels, increase appetite, and decrease the metabolic rate. These are generally safe unless the diabetes mellitus is poorly controlled or is associated with significant cardiac or renal disease. Amitriptyline and imipramine can be used to treat painful diabetic neuropathy. Sodium valproate may give false-positive results on urine tests for glucose in patients with diabetes mellitus. Lithium can be used safely in patients without renal disease.

26
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of depression in hepatic disease?
A. Tricyclic antidepressants are safe in the presence of liver disease.
B. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice in the presence of liver disease.
C. SSRIs are contraindicated in liver disease.
D. MAOIs are safe in hepatitis B.
E. Half-lives of drugs are reduced in liver disease.

A

B. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice in the presence of liver disease.

Antidepressants are predominantly metabolized in the liver and so have increased half-lives with reduced clearance. As the dose of drug toxicity increases with disease severity, lower starting and total doses of medications are recommended. Paroxetine prescribed at the lower end of the dose range is probably the safest option. The sedative and constipating side effect of tricyclic antidepressants may unmask or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. MAOIs are hepatotoxic and may precipitate coma. As lithium undergoes minimal hepatic metabolism, it is the mood stabilizer of choice in liver disease.

27
Q

Which of the following is true regarding delirium?
A. It rarely involves mood symptoms.
B. It includes a narrow range of psychiatric symptoms.
C. Clouding of consciousness is sufficient for the diagnosis.
D. Attention disturbance is the core cognitive disturbance.
E. Sleep-wake cycle is preserved.

A

D. Attention disturbance is the core cognitive disturbance.

Delirium is a constellation of physical, biological, and psychological disturbances. Impaired attention is considered the core cognitive disturbance. In addition, most patients experience disturbances of memory, orientation, language, mood, thinking, perception, motor behavior, and the sleep-wake cycle. Although individual delirium symptoms are nonspecific, their pattern is highly characteristic with acute onset, fluctuant course, and transient nature. Delirium is commonly seen in general hospital settings with a point prevalence of 10-30%. It is more frequent among older patients and those with preexisting cognitive impairment and medical or surgical problems.

28
Q

Which of the following is true of hypoactive delirium?
A. Psychotic symptoms are rare.
B. It responds poorly to antipsychotics.
C. It is frequently missed in practice.
D. It has a better prognosis than agitated delirium.
E. Patient is commonly unarousable.

A

C. It is frequently missed in practice.

Delirium is frequently missed in clinical practice. Cases of hypoactive delirium are more likely to be missed. Prognosis is poorer for hypoactive delirium than agitated delirium. Patients are usually arousable although they are lethargic. Psychotic symptoms are common and show good response to antipsychotics and treatment of the underlying condition.

29
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the management of delirium?
A. Iatrogenic causes are rare.
B. Involvement of the patient in management should be discouraged.
C. Antipsychotics are effective due to their sedative actions.
D. Reduction of risk factors can prevent further episodes.

A

D. Reduction of risk factors can prevent further episodes.

Delirium is associated with longer hospital stays, reduced independence after discharge, and increased mortality. Involvement of relatives and patients should be encouraged. Antipsychotics have an effect that goes beyond their sedative actions. Iatrogenic causes are common in the etiology of delirium. Reduction of risk factors can be useful in preventing further episodes.

30
Q
Wernicke's syndrome can cause all of the following except
A. Ataxia
B. Diplopia
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Dysphasia
E. Confusion
A

D. Dysphasia

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia. Ophthalmoplegia responds rapidly to treatment with high-dose vitamins. These features are also associated with a peripheral neuropathy. Dysphasia is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

31
Q

Which of the following is true of Korsakoff syndrome?
A. It can be caused by continuous vomiting.
B. Confabulation is always present.
C. Disorientation is usually present.
D. Clouding of consciousness is characteristic.
E. Immediate memory is affected.

A

A. It can be caused by continuous vomiting.

Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine deficiency, the most common cause of which is alcohol abuse. Continuous vomiting can also cause it. Confabulation is a feature and may be present. Patient is usually not disoriented and retains a clear consciousness. There is usually an anterograde memory loss.

32
Q
HIV can manifest as all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hypomania
B. Alzheimer's dementia
C. Depression
D. Transient panic attacks
E. Schizophreniform psychosis
A

B. Alzheimer’s dementia

HIV can manifest as dementia. However Alzheimer’s is a distinct type of dementia and is not due to HIV.

33
Q

Which of the following is true concerning AIDS encephalitis?
A. The EEG is normal in the early stages.
B. Frank dysphoria is common.
C. Insight is preserved until late.
D. Memory is usually preserved.
E. Treatment does not alter course of disease.

A

C. Insight is preserved until late.

Insight is characteristically preserved in AIDS encephalitis until late in the course of the disease. The EEG is normal from an early stage. Frank dysphoria is uncommon. Cognitive deficits may be apparent fairly early on in the illness. Treatment has a favorable impact on the outcome of the disease.

34
Q

Which of the following is true about suicide in medically ill patients?
A. Most terminally ill patients develop a psychiatric disorder.
B. Most terminally ill patients are at risk of suicide.
C. Anger is an important factor in suicide.
D. Mental illness is not common in patients who commit suicide.

A

C. Anger is an important factor in suicide.

Most terminally ill people do not develop depressive disorder and suicidal thoughts. Anger is an important factor in suicide. Suicides are usually committed by medically ill patients who have morbid, often unrecognized, psychiatric illnesses.

35
Q
What is the risk of completed suicide in a person who has made a previous suicide attempt?
A. 2 times
B. 25 times
C. 50 times
D. 100 times
A

D. 100 times

History of suicide attempts is an important predictor of future suicide. One of every hundred persons who survive a suicide attempt will die by suicide within one year of their index attempt, a risk that is 100 times that for the general population. Of those who complete suicide, 25% to 50% have tried it before.

36
Q

All of the following are exceptions to confidentiality between psychiatrist and the patient except
A. Child abuse
B. Danger to self or others
C. Intent to commit a crime
D. Communication with other physicians not involved in the care of the patient
E. Competency procedures

A

D. Communication with other physicians not involved in the care of the patient

Once the doctor-patient relationship is created, the clinician assumes a duty to safeguard the patient’s disclosures. This duty is not absolute and in some circumstances, breaking confidentiality is both ethical and legal.

37
Q

Which of the following is true regarding competency?
A. Most depressed patients are mentally incompetent.
B. Cognitively impaired patients do not have the capacity to make decisions.
C. Competency is a clinical determination.
D. Capacity and competency are the same.
E. Capacity to consent is specific to the issue and the situation.

A

E. Capacity to consent is specific to the issue and the situation.

The presence of mental illness or cognitive impairment does not necessarily render the person incompetent. Competency is a legal decision, whereas capacity is a clinical determination. Competency is not a scientifically determinable state and it is situation specific. The person must be examined to determine whether specific functional incapacities render the person incapable of making a particular kind of decision or performing a particular type of task.

38
Q

Which of the following is true regarding advance directives?
A. Advance directives are a means for people to indicate their wishes and decisions about future healthcare in the event of their incompetency.
B. Power of attorney is valid even if the person becomes incompetent.
C. Durable power of attorney empowers an agent to make only business decisions on behalf of the patient.
D. The determination of a patient’s competence is specified in a durable power of attorney and healthcare proxy statutes.

A

A. Advance directives are a means for people to indicate their wishes and decisions about future healthcare in the event of their incompetency.

Advanced directives provide a method for individuals, while competent, to choose alternative healthcare decision makers in the event of their future incompetency. An ordinary power of attorney becomes null and void if the person becomes incompetent. A durable power of attorney is constrained to empower an agent to make healthcare decisions. The healthcare proxy is a legal instrument akin to the durable power of attorney but specifically created for the delegation of healthcare decisions.

39
Q

The use of seclusion and restraint is contraindicated for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. To prevent harm to the patient or others
B. To assist the staff during staff shortages
C. To assist in treatment
D. To prevent significant disruption to a treatment program
E. To decrease sensory stimulation

A

A. To prevent harm to the patient or others

Restraints and seclusion are appropriate only when a patient presents a risk of harm to self or others and less restrictive alternatives are not available. Restraints are contraindicated in patients with extremely unstable medical or psychiatric conditions, in patients with severe drug reactions, in those with delirium or dementia who are unable to tolerate reduced stimulation, for punishment of the patient, or for the convenience of the healthcare staff.

40
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of depression associated with medical illness?
A. Earlier age of onset
B. Increased rate of family history of depression
C. Decreased rate of alcoholism in family members
D. Greater likelihood of suicide
E. Poor response to ECT

A

C. Decreased rate of alcoholism in family members

Depression secondary to medical illness has some distinct clinical features. It is more likely to begin at a later age, respond to ECT, and present with impaired cognition. It is less likely to be associated with a family history of alcoholism or dependence and is less likely to result in suicide.

41
Q

Which of the following is true regarding psychiatric illness in cancer patients?
A. Twenty-five percent of patients with cancer develop a psychiatric illness.
B. Depression is the most common psychiatric diagnosis.
C. Suicide is rare among patients with cancer.
D. Patients with pancreatic cancer are at highest risk of suicide.

A

C. Suicide is rare among patients with cancer.

The incidence of psychiatric illness is high in patients with cancer, and about half of them develop a diagnosable psychiatric disorder. The prevalence of adjustment disorder is highest, at more than 25%. The next most common is depression, which occurs in approximately 8-14% of patients. Suicide is rare among patients with cancer. Men with head and neck cancer may be at the highest risk of suicide.

42
Q
Which of the following is the most common course of mania in patients with cancer?
A. Bipolar I disorder
B. Cerebral metastasis
C. Diencephalic tumors
D. Corticosteroid use
E. Bipolar II disorder
A

D. Corticosteroid use

Mania is rarely related to cancer itself. Corticosteroids are the most frequent cause of mania in patients with cancer. Diencephalic tumors and cerebral metastasis can rarely cause mania.

43
Q
Depression following stroke is associated with lesion in which of the following regions of the brain?
A. Left occipital
B. Left temporal
C. Left frontal
D. Right parietal
E. Right frontal
A

C. Left frontal

The association between lesion location and depression following a stroke is controversial. Some studies support the contention that the risk of depression is higher the closer the lesion is to the left frontal pole, with left anterior frontal lesions being the most highly associated with depression. There is also evidence that left frontal cortical and left basal ganglia strokes produce depression to a greater degree than do lesions in the right side of the brain.

44
Q
Which type of dementia is typically seen in patients with HIV?
A. Alzheimer's dementia
B. Subcortical dementia
C. Lewy body dementia
D. Infectious dementia
E. Vascular dementia
A

B. Subcortical dementia

The dementia associated with HIV is typically a subcortical dementia with difficulties with attention and concentration and speed of processing.

45
Q
What is the most common neuropsychiatric complication in hospitalized patients with AIDS?
A. Depression
B. Dementia
C. Psychosis
D. Mania
E. Delirium
A

E. Delirium

Delirium is the neuropsychiatric complication that occurs frequently in hospitalized patients with AIDS. Patients with advanced systemic disease and HIV dementia are at high risk for delirium. In the management of delirium, the primary goal is identification and treatment of underlying factors. Specific medications associated with delirium include narcotics, benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, antihistamines, and steroids. Symptomatic treatment with neuroleptics may be necessary to control agitation and help resolve confusion.

46
Q
Which of the following is commonly seen in AIDS dementia complex?
A. Psychosis
B. Aphasia
C. Agnosia
D. Word-finding difficulties
A

D. Word-finding difficulties

AIDS dementia complex (ADC) is characterized by cognitive, affective, behavioral, and motor dysfunction. Patients describe short-term memory loss, word-finding difficulties, and difficulty with sequential tasks. They also report depressed mood, social withdrawal, and reduced energy. Patients also describe slowing of their movements, clumsiness, and gait disturbances. Aphasia and agnosia are rare, as is psychosis except in end-stage AIDS dementia complex.

47
Q
Which of the following is associated with high HIV risk behaviors?
A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. LSD
D. Crack cocaine
A

D. Crack cocaine

Substance-related disorders occur frequently in patients with HIV disease. The prevalence of substance-related disorders in ambulatory patients with HIV who are referred for psychiatric evaluations may be about 45%. Noninjection psychoactive drugs impair the use of judgment and may lead to recidivism due to behavioral changes toward low HIV risk behaviors. Some studies have shown such an effect with alcohol use. Crack cocaine and inhalant abuse are commonly associated with high HIV risk behaviors.

48
Q
What proportion of people with chronic pain also have an axis I psychiatric disorder?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 75%
A

C. 25%

About 25% of people with chronic pain also have an axis I disorder. Despite the psychiatric morbidity associated with chronic pain, emotional symptoms are more often a consequence of pain than an antecedent to pain.

49
Q

Which of the following is true about ECT?
A. It can be administered to patients with epilepsy.
B. It is contraindicated in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
C. Seizures are the most common cause of death in patients given ECT.
D. The use of bilateral electrodes reduces the risk of cognitive deficits.
E. ECT should be used after medication failure in catatonia.

A

A. It can be administered to patients with epilepsy.

Patients with concurrent psychiatric illness and epilepsy may be safely treated with ECT. Patients should continue to receive their anticonvulsant medication during ECT; higher stimulus settings are typically necessary. ECT is effective for the mood and motor symptoms in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Cardiac complications are the most common cause of death in patients who receive ECT. The use of unilateral electrodes is associated with reduced cognitive deficits. ECT may be used as a first-line treatment in patients with catatonia and should be considered the treatment of choice once the diagnosis of catatonia is made and the patient does not respond to lorazepam.

50
Q
What is the most commonly used neuroleptic agent in the intensive care unit?
A. Risperidone
B. Haloperidol
C. Olanzapine
D. Chlorpromazine
A

B. Haloperidol

Haloperidol is the most commonly used neuroleptic in the intensive care unit. It is also safe and effective when administered intravenously. Pharmacologic treatment can usually be safely discontinued once the patient is symptom-free for 24 to 48 hours.