Anxiety Flashcards

1
Q
Cessation of diazepam after chronic use may cause all of the following except
A. Depersonalization and derealization
B. Perceptual disturbances
C. Anxiety
D. Constipation
E. Rhinorrhea
A

E. Rhinorrhea

Benzodiazepine withdrawal causes withdrawal symptoms that can last for many days. Apart from anxiety and delirium, it can also cause depression and seizures. Both constipation and diarrhea are recognized features of benzodiazepine withdrawal. Rhinorrhea is a feature of opiate withdrawal.

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2
Q

A 54-year-old man is prescribed buspirone for generalized anxiety disorder. One of the important facts the patient should know about buspirone is that it
A. Does not cause dependence
B. Acts rapidly to give symptomatic relief
C. Causes sedation
D. Can cause agitation
E. Is effective in low dosages

A

A. Does not cause dependence

Buspirone, an azaspirodecanedione, is a nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic and doesn’t cause any sedation or dependence. However, it takes up to 4 to 6 weeks to work, and the dose has to be titrated up to 30 mg per day.

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3
Q

A 26-year-old woman presents who appears to have generalized anxiety disorder with panic attacks. Terrified by the panic attacks, she requests medication, saying: “I need something to control them immediately.” She is otherwise fit and healthy and has no history of any substance abuse or dependence. A reasonable approach would be to
A. Start the patient on intensive psychotherapy
B. Start the patient on a combination of bupropion and clonazepam
C. Start the patient on any SSRI
D. Start the patient on an SSRI and refer the patient to cognitivebehavorial therapy
E. Start the patient on a combination of an SSRI for the long term and low-dose clonazepam for a short duration

A

E. Start the patient on a combination of an SSRI for the long term and low-dose clonazepam for a short duration

Although SSRIs on their own may be effective in anxiety disorders, it takes a while before they can be effective, and therefore clonazepam is often used for symptomatic relief until the SSRIs become effective. Bupropion is activating and can make the anxiety worse.

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4
Q
A 28-year-old female patient is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder and substance abuse. A trial of SSRIs fails, and the physician is reluctant to prescribe any benzodiazepines for symptomatic relief in view of the patient's history of substance abuse. He prescribes buspirone. Buspirone acts as a
A. 5HT2C agonist
B. 5HT1A agonist
C. 5HT1A antagonist
D. GABA agonist
E. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
A

B. 5HT1A agonist

Buspirone decreases the symptoms of anxiety by 5HT1A agonistic action. However, it takes a few weeks to act and the dose might have to be titrated up to 30 mg twice a day.

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5
Q
Which of the following is true about specific phobias?
A. More common in men
B. More common in women
C. Phobic avoidance uncommon
D. Onset in adult life
E. Treatment usually not effective
A

B. More common in women

Specific phobias are the most common phobias and more common in women than men. By definition, avoidance should be present for the condition to be called a phobia. Systematic desensitization, exposure, and response prevention are found to be effective treatments.

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6
Q

People with anxiety disorders have all of the following cardiac abnormalities EXCEPT:

A. Decreased deceleration after stress
B. High beat-to-beat fluctuation
C. Higher baseline heart rate
D. Higher subjective awareness of heartbeats
E. Increased deceleration after stress
A

E. Increased deceleration after stress

Patients with anxiety disorders have higher baseline heart rates than the norm. The rates continue to be higher after stress; hence, they have decreased deceleration after stress.

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7
Q

All of the following neurotransmitter abnormalities are detected in anxiety disorders EXCEPT:
A. Increased platelet MAO activity
B. Increased activity of central noradrenaline
C. Increased central GABA activity
D. Increased circulating adrenaline
E. Increased circulating noradrenaline

A

C. Increased central GABA activity

Patients with anxiety disorders have increased levels of activating neurotransmitters like adrenaline and noradrenaline and decreased GABA activity.

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8
Q

In patients with anxiety spectrum disorders, all of the following are observed EXCEPT:
A. Decreased skin conductance
B. Panic in response to sodium lactate infusion
C. Increased cutaneous blood flow
D. Decreased splanchnic blood flow
E. Decreased habituation following electrodermal stimulation

A

A. Decreased skin conductance

Patients with anxiety spectrum disorders have numerous electrodermal abnormalities, including increased skin conductance, decreased habituation, and higher spontaneous fluctuations.

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9
Q

All of the following statements are true about mitral valve prolapse (MVP) and panic attacks EXCEPT:
A. The incidence of MVP in the general population is 5-20%.
B. The incidence of MVP in panic-disorder patients is up to 40-50%.
C. MVP causes panic attacks.
D. No evidence suggests MVP causes panic attacks.
E. MVP and panic may represent part of primary autonomic syndrome.

A

C. MVP causes panic attacks.

Numerous studies have been done to see if there is any causal relationship between MVP and panic but, to date, there is no evidence to prove MVP causes or predisposes patients to have panic attacks.

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10
Q
A 34-year-old female patient is referred by her psychiatrist for systematic desensitization therapy because of a specific phobia. However, before she starts therapy, the patient wants to know if there are any factors that would result in a less-than-ideal response in her case. All of the following are predictors of good response EXCEPT:
A. Good relaxation response
B. Free-floating anxiety
C. Good motivation
D. No secondary gain from the phobia
E. No obsessions
A

B. Free-floating anxiety

Presence of free-floating anxiety is a predictor of a poor response, as it does not allow the patient to relax or divert attention from the phobic stimulus.

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11
Q
A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with social phobia. All of the following are effective treatments EXCEPT:
A. SSRIs
B. Flooding
C. Modeling
D. Systematic desensitization
E. ECT
A

E. ECT

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12
Q

Regarding phobias, all of the following are true except
A. The phobia is associated with major depressive disorder.
B. Patients come from stable families.
C. Traits are anxiety and dependency.
D. People with phobias are no different from the general population in terms of education and social class.
E. Phobias are usually triggered by major life events.

A

A. The phobia is associated with major depressive disorder.

Major depressive disorder is no more common in phobia patients than in the general population. There is also an association between phobias and childhood enuresis.

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13
Q
All of the following have higher incidence in women than men EXCEPT:
A. Needle phobia
B. Social phobia
C. Animal phobia
D. Hospital phobia
E. Claustrophobia
A

B. Social phobia

All anxiety-related problems are more common in women, except social phobia, where the prevalence is equal.

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14
Q
All of the following theories have been put forward to explain phobias EXCEPT:
A. The concept of “preparedness”
B. Classic conditioning
C. Neurodevelopmental theory
D. Operant conditioning
E. Observational learning
A

C. Neurodevelopmental theory

Neurodevelopmental theory is often used to explain the etiology of schizophrenia.

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15
Q
Pathological anxiety is distinguished from a normal emotional response by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Autonomy
B. Physical health status
C. Intensity
D. Duration
E. Behavior
A

B. Physical health status

Pathological anxiety is autonomous; that is, it may or may not have a trigger. Intensity and duration are out of proportion to real or imagined stressors, and behavior is impaired. Physical health status is not a criterion used to distinguish normal fear from pathological anxiety.

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16
Q
Which of the following structures is the main source of the brain's adrenergic innervations?
A. Nucleus raphe
B. Locus ceruleus
C. Nucleus of Meynert
D. Midbrain
E. Medial temporal lobe
A

B. Locus ceruleus

Locus ceruleus is a small retropontine structure and is the main source of the brain’s adrenergic innervations. Stimulation of the center causes panic attacks; blockade of locus ceruleus decreases panic attacks.

17
Q
According to Epidemiological Catchment Area studies, which of the following is the most common anxiety disorder in the United States?
A. Panic disorder
B. Social phobia
C. Agoraphobia
D. Specific phobia
E. Generalized anxiety disorder
A

D. Specific phobia

Specific phobia is the most common anxiety disorder; it has a lifetime prevalence of 11%. Social phobia is the next most common.

18
Q

A 65-year-old man experiences a panic attack for the first time. He also has angina and COPD. The physician makes a diagnosis of organic anxiety syndrome. All of the following are features of organic anxiety syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Onset of symptoms after 35 years of age
B. Family history of anxiety disorders
C. No history of childhood anxiety disorders
D. Poor response to the usual treatments of panic disorder
E. No avoidance behavior

A

B. Family history of anxiety disorders

Patients with organic anxiety syndrome usually do not have a family history of anxiety disorders. Another feature that helps to distinguish organic anxiety syndrome from primary panic disorder is the absence of triggering factors for the anxiety syndrome.

19
Q

All of the following are true regarding anxiety seen in primary care settings EXCEPT:
A. High rates of anxiety are seen in patients with chest pain, dyspnea, and dizziness.
B. Presenting problem in 11% of patients visiting PCPs
C. Most common psychiatric disorder in PCP’s office
D. More than 90% of patients present with somatic symptoms
E. High utilizers of PCPs’ time and resources

A

C. Most common psychiatric disorder in PCP’s office

Depression is in fact the most common psychiatric disorder seen by primary care physicians. (Source: Sartovius et al. Depression comorbid with anxiety. Results from WHO study on psychological disorders in primary health care. Br J Psychiatry 1996; 168 Suppl 30:538-43.)

20
Q
Patients with generalized anxiety disorder have excessive anxiety and worry on more days than not for at least how long?
A. 2 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 6 weeks
D. 6 months
E. 4 weeks
A

D. 6 months

Patients with generalized anxiety disorder have symptoms of excessive worry and anxiety on most days for at least 6 months. They find it hard to control worrying and should have three of the following six symptoms: muscle tension, restlessness, easy fatigability, difficulty concentrating, irritability, and insomnia.

21
Q

All of the following are true about specific phobias EXCEPT:
A. If the patient is under 18 years, the phobia should last for longer than 6 months.
B. Natural environment phobias (fear of heights, water) have an onset in childhood.
C. Situational phobias (fear of elevators, airplanes) have an onset in the mid-thirties.
D. Lifetime prevalence is 10%.
E. CBT offers good benefits.

A

C. Situational phobias (fear of elevators, airplanes) have an onset in the mid-thirties.

Situational phobia typically has a bimodal onset, with one peak in childhood and the other in midtwenties.

22
Q

A 23-year-old male patient believes he has social phobia and would like to know if the information he has about social phobia is true or not. All of the following facts are true about social phobia except
A. Most common anxiety disorder
B. More common in women in clinical samples
C. Onset is usually in adolescence
D. Has two specific subtypes: performance anxiety versus generalized anxiety
E. Most common comorbidities are depression and substance abuse (alcohol or drug abuse)

A

B. More common in women in clinical samples

Although the prevalence of social phobia is higher in women in both epidemiological and community samples, the prevalence is found to be greater in men in clinical samples. This may be because of increased awareness of the condition because of the pressure to perform.

23
Q

Regarding post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A. Symptoms should last for more than 1 month.
B. There are four subtypes: acute, subacute, chronic, and delayed onset.
C. Prevalence is about 8% in the general population.
D. Prevalence is up to 20% in people exposed to combat.
E. Acute stress disorder is a different diagnosis.

A

B. There are four subtypes: acute, subacute, chronic, and delayed onset.

There are three subtypes of PTSD based on duration: Acute symptoms last for less than 3 months. Chronic symptoms last for more than 3 months. Delayed onset symptoms appear more than 6 months after the trauma. In acute stress disorder, symptoms occur within 4 weeks of the traumatic event and last for at least 2 days and a maximum of 4 weeks.

24
Q
The DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for acute stress disorder include most of the criteria for PTSD, but they add and emphasize one of the following groups of symptoms. Which group?
A. Dissociative symptoms
B. Psychotic symptoms
C. Neurotic symptoms
D. Depressive symptoms
E. Cognitive symptoms
A

A. Dissociative symptoms

The diagnostic criteria for acute stress disorder emphasize dissociative symptoms like depersonalization, derealization, and dissociative amnesia.

25
Q
Which of the following people have the highest prevalence of post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. People involved in traffic accidents
B. Vietnam veterans
C. Victims of a violent assault
D. Torture victims
A

D. Torture victims

Torture victims have the highest prevalence of PTSD. The prevalence in Vietnam veterans is about 30%. Prevalence in victims of a violent assault is 20%.

26
Q

Of all the following factors, which is the most important risk factor for the development of post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. Individual vulnerability
B. Nature of the trauma
C. Sex of the victim
D. Age of the victim
E. All of the above are equally important.

A

B. Nature of the trauma

27
Q
A 36-year-old woman is diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder following a violent assault and rape. Over the next 2 years, although the post-traumatic stress disorder abates, she feels anxious and depressed and starts using alcohol and other illicit drugs. Which of the following is the most common comorbid condition in women with PTSD?
A. Substance abuse (alcohol or drugs)
B. Eating disorders
C. Anxiety disorder
D. Psychotic disorders
E. Depression
A

E. Depression

The most common comorbid condition in women with post-traumatic stress disorder is depression (49%), whereas the most common comorbid condition in men is substance abuse (52%).

28
Q
For a diagnosis of chronic PTSD according to DSM-IV, for at least how long must the patient have symptoms of PTSD?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 months
E. 1 month
A

D. 3 months

29
Q
Which of the following SSRIs has been approved by the FDA for the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder?
B. Fluoxetine
C. Sertraline
D. Citalopram
E. Escitalopram
A

C. Sertraline

Although all SSRIs are found to be effective in the treatment of PTSD, only sertraline and paroxetine are FDA-approved.

30
Q

All of the following therapies have been found to be effective in the treatment of PTSD except
B. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
C. Cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy
D. Group therapy
E. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

A

B. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy

31
Q

According to DSM-IV, all of the following are the criteria for somatization disorder except
B. Two gastrointestinal symptoms that are not pain related
C. One sexual symptom
D. One pseudoneurologic symptom
E. Age of onset after 30 years

A

E. Age of onset after 30 years

For a diagnosis of somatization disorder, the onset of symptoms should be before 30 years of age; the multiple, recurring, physical symptoms usually start in adolescence and the diagnostic criteria are usually met by the age of 25 years.