C Flashcards

1
Q

Calendar Anomaly

A

An irregular securities pattern that emerges
during certain times of the year, such as the
January Effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Call date

A

A day on which the issuer of a debt security
or preferred share may choose to buy back
the security in full or in part. See also Call
feature, Call price, and Callable bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Call feature

A

A clause of many debt securities and
preferred shares whereby the borrower has
the right to buy back all or a portion of the
security at specified times before the final © CSI GLOBAL EDUCATION INC. (2012)
GLOSSARY G•5
maturity date. A standard call feature
includes a schedule of the dates and prices
at which a borrower can buy back the issue.
See also Call date, Call price, and Callable
bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Call price

A

The price at which the issuer of a debt
security or preferred share can redeem the
security. See also Call date, Call feature,
Callable bond, and Canada yield call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Callable bond

A

A debt security with a call feature. See also

Call date, Call feature, and Call price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Canada yield call

A

A callable bond with a call price based on
the greater of (a) par or (b) the price based
on the yield of an equivalent-term
Government of Canada bond plus a
specified yield spread. Also known as a
Doomsday call. Sell also Call price and
Callable bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Candlestick chart

A

A type of chart that records the open, high,
low, and closing price for each period
(which can be a minute, hour, day, week,
month, etc.). The candlestick chart differs
from a bar chart in that the candlestick for
each period has a real body, which is a box
that visually represents the difference
between the period’s opening and closing
prices. When the closing price is higher
than the opening price, the real body is
white or empty; when the closing price is
lower than the opening price, the real body
is black or filled in. See also Bar chart, Line
chart, and Real body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Capacity constraints

A

Limits on the availability of trading
opportunities consistent with the manager’s
strategy and risk/return expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Capital Asset Pricing Model

CAPM

A

A theory that describes the relationship
between the expected return and risk on
any asset. The CAPM asserts that the only
for which investors can expect to be
compensated is systematic or market risk,
because it cannot be eliminated by
diversification. See also Systematic risk
and Unsystematic risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Capital gain

A

Selling a security for more than its purchase

price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Capital securities

A

Subordinated debentures that rank below
all other indebtedness of the issuer, but
above that of all equity stakeholders. See
also Capital trust security and Preferred
security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Capital trust security

A

A type of capital security that resembles a
bond issue because it has $1,000 par values
and is traded in the bond market. See also
Capital securities and Preferred securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Capture ratio

A

The relative proportion of after-tax return

to pre-tax return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cash flow yield

A

The internal rate of return on a portfolio
of debt securities. See also Internal rate
of return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Client profile

A

A document containing information
about a client that can be used to create
an appropriate investment policy. This
includes information about the client’s
personal and financial situation, goals and
objectives, personality, attitude toward
investing, experience with investing,
willingness to bear risk, and more. See also
Investment policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Client questionnaire

A

A series of multiple-choice or open-ended
questions designed to acquire information
from a client. Some questionnaires have a
scoring key to help interpret responses to
the multiple-choice questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Closed-end fund

A

An actively managed fund that initially
raises capital by selling units to investors,
after which additional units are rarely
issued. Once issued, the units are listed
for trading on a stock exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Closed-ended questions

A

Questions that seek specific pieces of

information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Closed mortgage-backed security

A

Closed mortgage-backed security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coefficient of determination

A
The percentage of the variability in the 
dependent variable (as measured by 
variance) that can be explained by the 
variability in the independent variable. See 
also Dependent variable and Independent 
variable.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cognitive bias

A

Basic statistical, information processing or
memory errors that are common to all
human beings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Collars

A

The purchase of an out-of-the-money put

while simultaneously writing an out-of-the money call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Collateralized mortgage obligation

CMO

A

A mortgage-backed bond that separates
mortgage pools into staggered maturity
groups (tranches) that reallocate the interest
and principal payments. Each tranche is
sold as a separate security and has a
different claim on the underlying cash flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Commercial Mortgage-Backed

Security (CMBS)

A

A mortgage-backed security backed by a
pool of commercial mortgages. See also
Mortgage- backed security.

25
Q

Commercial paper

A

An unsecured money market security issued
by a corporation, or in asset-backed security
form, backed by a pool of underlying
financial assets.

26
Q

Commodity pools

A

Managed futures funds that are structured
and sold as mutual funds. Managed futures
funds actively trade derivatives products as
well as physical commodities, financial
assets, and currencies

27
Q

Commodity Trading Manager

A

A Canadian-based discretionary futures

advisor.

28
Q

Common shares

A

Securities issued by a corporation that
represent ownership interest in the
corporation. Common shareholders have
voting rights and a claim on the company’s
residual earnings and assets, and may be
entitled to receive dividends, if declared by
the company’s Board of Directors

29
Q

Company analyst

A

See Equity analyst.

30
Q

Competitive tender basis

A
A type of bid in an auction of debt 
securities (particularly Government of 
Canada fixed- coupon marketable bonds) 
in which the amount won at the auction is 
based on the bids submitted, which are 
accepted in rising order of yield until the 
full amount of the auction has been 
allocated. See also Non-competitive 
tender basis.
31
Q

Compound interest

A

Interest paid on principal and previously

earned interest.

32
Q

Composite market indices

A

Indices designed to measure the movements
of specified markets, not benchmark
performance.

33
Q

Conference Board Consumer

Confidence Index

A

A monthly nationwide survey of U.S.
consumer confidence released by the
Conference Board.

34
Q

Consensus earning forecast

A

The average of a group of analysts’ earnings

forecasts. See also Earnings forecast.

35
Q

Consensus forecast

A

An average forecast of several economists or

analysts.

36
Q

Consolidation

A

See Continuation pattern

37
Q

Continuation pattern

A

A chart formation that helps if a previous
trend (which has ended) is likely to resume
after a period of consolidation. Also known
as a consolidation. See also Trend

38
Q

Contrarian indicator

A

An indicator that suggests buying a stock
when most investors are bearish, and selling
a stock when most investors are bullish. See
also Public short ratio and Put/call ratio.

39
Q

Convertible arbitrage hedge fund

A

A hedge fund designed to identify and
exploit mispricings between convertible
securities (convertible bonds or preferred
shares) and the underlying common stock.
See also Hedge fund.

40
Q

Convertible bond

A

A debt security that is exchangeable into
common shares of the issuer at the option
of the holder. See also Exchangeable bond

41
Q

Convexity

A

A measure of the rate of change in modified
duration as yields change. A much closer
estimate of the actual percentage change in
the price of a bond is the sum of the bond’s
modified duration and convexity for a given
change in yield. For option-free bonds,
convexity is always positive. For bonds with
embedded options, convexity can be
negative. See also Modified duration,
Negative convexity, and Positive convexity.

42
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

A standardized measure of the tendency of
two variables to move in the same direction
(relative to their average or expected values)
at the same time. The correlation coefficient
is equal to the covariance divided by the
product of the two variables’ standard
deviation. Unlike the covariance, the
correlation coefficient measures both the
direction and strength of the liner
relationship.

43
Q

Corridor

A
The percentage around which an asset class 
is allowed to vary from its strategic weight 
before it is rebalanced back. The corridor is 
also known as the Tolerance band
44
Q

Counter cyclical indicator

A

An indicator or variable that tends to move
in the opposite direction of the economic
cycle. See also Pro cyclical trend

45
Q

Coupon payment

A

The periodic payment of interest on a debt

security

46
Q

Coverage universe

A

The companies covered by a particular

equity analyst. See also Equity analyst.

47
Q

CPI ex-8 index

A

A variant of the Consumer Price Index
(CPI) that excludes the eight components
with the most volatile prices – fruit,
vegetables, gasoline, fuel oil, natural gas,
mortgage interest, intercity transportation,
and tobacco products, as well as the effect
of changes in indirect taxes on the
remaining CPI components. Also known as
Core CPI. See also Consumer Price
Index

48
Q

Creation units

A

The large share blocks in which ETFs are
issued. Usually a creation unit is a block of
50,000 ETF shares that track the index.
Investors, known as authorized
participants, do not purchase creation
units with cash. Instead, they exchange, on
an in-kind basis, baskets of securities that
mirror the index to acquire the units

49
Q

Credit analysis

A

An evaluation of a debt security issuer’s
ability to service and repay its debt. The
evaluation typically includes: determining
the issuer’s existing obligations and the
assets that are available as protection for
debt holders in the event of a default;
analyzing liquidity and borrowing needs;
and analyzing cash flow needs. See also
Credit rating and Default risk.

50
Q

Credit rating

A

A credit rating agency’s opinion of the
general credit-worthiness of an issuer with
respect to a debt security or other financial
obligation, based on relevant risk factors.

51
Q

Credit risk

A

The risk that an issuer of a debt security
may be unable to make timely principal
and interest payments. More accurately
termed Default risk.

52
Q

Credit spread

A

The portion of a debt security’s yield spread
attributable to the difference in credit risk.
See also Credit risk and Yield spread.

53
Q

Crystallization

A

Is similar to tax-loss harvesting but takes
the process one step further. After the offset
trades are executed, more of the security in
the gain position is purchased. See also
tax-loss harvesting.

54
Q

Cushion

A

The difference between the investment in
the underlying asset and the value of the
zero-coupon bond needed to meet the
principal guarantee in a PPN structure

55
Q

Cyclical growth industry

A

An industry that shares attributes of both a
cyclical and growth industry. The industry
tends to have long-term growth prospects
that vary with the economic cycle. See also
Cyclical industry and Growth industry

56
Q

Cyclical industry

A

An industry with a growth pattern similar
to that of the economic cycle. As such, the
industry tends to suffer during recessions,
but grow during periods of economic
prosperity.

57
Q

Cyclical trend

A

A trend following a recurring pattern with
four basic components: expansion, peak,
contraction, and recession

58
Q

A trend following a recurring pattern with
four basic components: expansion, peak,
contraction, and recession

A

An approach to tactical asset allocation that
involves monitoring economic activity,
looking for patterns that have historically
led to stock market movements.