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Qs Maty > Butler bookclub > Flashcards

Butler bookclub Flashcards

1
Q

What may be seen in an angiogram of a horse with guttural pouch mycosis (2 answers)?

Beading

Arterial roughening

Aneurysm

Arterial narrowing

A

Arterial roughening

Aneurysm

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2
Q

In myelography, accumulation of contrast in the cranial cervical region is thought to be characteristic of…?

Insufficient volume of contrast

Insufficient concentration of contrast

Subdural injection

Failure of the contrast to mix with cerebrospinal fluid

A

Subdural injection

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3
Q

In myelography what change in the dural diameter is considered significant when assessing spinal cord compression?

10% increase

20% decrease

30% increase

50% decrease

A

20% decrease

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4
Q

When does ossification of the pubis and ischium as well as fusion of these bones with the iliu occur?

At birth

6 months

1 year

18 months

A

1 year

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5
Q

When do the iliac crest and tuber coxae fuse with the rest of the ilium?

2-3 months

4-6 months

6-8 months

10-12 months

A

10-12 months

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6
Q

Which statement is correct?

The physis of the femoral head closes at 30-42 months

The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months

The lesser trochanter fuses with the femoral shafter at 12 months

The distal femoral physis closes at 20-28 months

A

The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months

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7
Q

Luxation of the coxofemoral joint normally occurs in which direction?

Craniodorsal

Caudodorsal

Cranioventral

Caudoventral

A

Craniodorsal

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8
Q

What view can be used to highlight fractures of the third trochanter of the femur?

Craniocaudal

Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique

Caudal 25o lateral craniomedial oblique

Lateromedial

A

Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique

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9
Q

What is a fontanelle?

A radiodensity between the nasal bones

A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

A radiolucency between the spheno-occipital suture

A radiodensity between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

A

A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

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10
Q

When is the spheno-occipital suture likely not to be visible?

3 years

1 year

6 years

5 years

A

5 years

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11
Q

When do the left and right manibular bones fuse?

1 month

4 months

3 months

6 months

A

3 months

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12
Q

Dentigerous cysts are commonly associated with which bone?

Parietal bone

Petrous temporal bone

Basiocciptial bone

Basisphenoid bone

A

Petrous temporal bone

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13
Q

A tumour of the equine head that appears well-demarcated with a septate configuration causing a ‘soap bubble’ appearance is likely to be an…?

Ameloblastic odontoma

Ameloblastoma

Osteoma

Adenocarcinoma

A

Ameloblastoma

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14
Q

Which two in this list are differntials that could explain increased lucency of the maxillary sinus?

Neoplasia

Maxillary sinus cyst

Maxillary cyst

Sinusitis

A

Neoplasia

Maxillary cyst

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15
Q

To highlight the caudal cheek teeth on a dorsoventral image, in which direction should the x-ray beam point?

Dorsorostral to ventrocaudal

Dorsocaudal to rostroventral

Dorsomedial to ventrolateral

Dorsolateral to ventromedial

A

Dorsocaudal to rostroventral

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16
Q

When does the fontanelle close?

3-4 months

5-7 months

1-3 months

1-2 months

A

3-4 months

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17
Q

What structure is denoted by the star?

Hypoglossal foramen

Accessory foramen

External acoustic meatus

Oval foramen

A

Hypoglossal foramen

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18
Q

The separate centre of ossification for the tuber calcanei fuses with the rest of the calcaneus at what age?

6 – 12 Month

9 – 16 Months

16 – 24 Months

24 – 36 Months

A

16 – 24 Months

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19
Q

What is pointed to by the arrow in this image?

Osseous cyst like lesion

Tarsal canal

Sinus Tarsi

Compositional artefact

A

Sinus Tarsi

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20
Q

With congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali and medial slipping of the DDFT which angular limb deformity is often seen at the tarsus?

Valgus

Varus

Contracture

Hyperextension

A

Valgus

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21
Q

Fractures of the distal tibial physis are most commonly what type?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

A

Type II

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22
Q

The most common tarsal bone fracture in the racehorse is most likely to be detected on which projection

DP

DLPMO

LM

DMPLO

A

DMPLO

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23
Q

For a gastrointestinal contrast study in an adult horse what volume of 30% barium sulphate suspension is recommended?

2ml/kg

3ml/kg

5ml/kg

7ml/kg

A

3ml/kg

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24
Q

How long should it take for a food bolus to travel from the pharynx to the stomach?

4-10s

8-16s

10-20s

15-30s

A

4-10s

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25
Q

What contrast media is best suited to diagnose an oesophageal stricture?

Barium paste

Barium suspension

Barium coated pelleted feed

B and C

A

B and C

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26
Q

In foals, distention of small intestinal loops is considered to be present which the width of the bowel is greater than the?

Length of L7

Length of L1

Length of two rib spaces

Width of the proximal femur

A

Length of L1

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27
Q

The distal radial physis closes at what age?

12 Months

18 Months

20 Months

24 Months

A

20 Months

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28
Q

Partial ossification of a vestigial ulna is present in what percentage of horses?

5%

10%

20%

35%

A

35%

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29
Q

Enthesopathy of the horizontal intra-articular intercarpal ligaments is most common between which bones?

Radial and intermediate

Intermediate and ulnar

Third and fourth

Second and third

A

Second and third

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30
Q

What is the significance of osseous cyst like lesion in the carpal bones of foals?

Incidental finding

Can sometimes cause lameness especially if present in the distal radius

Only likely to cause lameness as the horse matures and is brought into work

May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation

A

May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation

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31
Q

Carpal angular limb deformities are often centred on the?

Distal radial physis

Antibrachiocarpal joint

Middle carpal joint

Carpometacarpal joint

A

Distal radial physis

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32
Q

In some horses there is a narrow, vertical, more opaque line in the middle of the proximal quarter of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone can be seen, this is more common in?

Hindlimbs

Forelimbs

Thoroughbreds

Warmbloods

A

Hindlimbs

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33
Q

The distal metacarpal physis closes radiographically at approximately?

3-6 months

6-9 months

9-12 months

12-15 months

A

3-6 months

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34
Q

Dorsal cortical stress fractures of the third metacarpal bone of racehorses usually have what configuration.

Dorsodistal to palmaroproximal

Dorsoproximal to palmarodistal

Mediodistal to lateroproximal

Medioproximal to laterodistal

A

Dorsodistal to palmaroproxima

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35
Q

When palpable new bone develpeds between the metacarpal/metatarsal bones know colloquially as a ‘splint’ this is most likely to occur where?

Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd

Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd

Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd

Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd

A

Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd

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36
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

55o

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37
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

35o

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38
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

35o

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39
Q

How many ossification centres does the radius have?

1

2

3

4

A

2

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40
Q

When do the lateral styloid process of the radius and the distal radial physis close?

Styloid process within 8 months, distal radial physis at 15 months

Styloid process within 6 months, distal radial physis at 12 months

Styloid process within 10 months, distal radial physis within 10 months

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

A

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

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41
Q

How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have?

1

2

3

4

A

1

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42
Q

By what age are the carpal bones fully developed?

6 months

12 months

18 months

24 months

A

18 months

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43
Q

What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna?

5%

15%

25%

35%

A

35%

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44
Q

What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone?

2%

5%

10%

15%

A

2%

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45
Q

How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated?

Cast in the first few days of life

Casting after 2 weeks

Transphyseal bridging

Paddock rest

A

Cast in the first few days of life

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46
Q

Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis?

Osteochondroma

Radial exostosis

A

Radial exostosis

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47
Q

Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation?

Antebrachiobcarpal joint

Middle carpal joint

Carpometacarpal joint

A

Carpometacarpal joint

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48
Q

Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus

Dorsodistal radial carpal bone

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone

Dorsodistal radius

A

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

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49
Q

Carpal slab fractures are most common in which three bones

Ulnar carpal bone

Radial

Third

Fourth

A

Radial

Third

Fourth

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50
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for arthrography?

Suspected synovial cyst

Suspected joint capsule rupture

Inflammation

Osteoarthritis

A

Inflammation

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51
Q

When preforming an air tendogram how should you adjust your xray settings?

Half mAs and kVp

Half kVp

Half mAs

No change required

A

Half mAs

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52
Q

What does the blue arrow indicate?

Linguofacial artery

Vertebral artery

Occipital artery

Internal carotid artery

A

Occipital artery

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53
Q

In a normal horse the ventral contrast column become narrower in which neck position?

Flexed

Neutral

Extended

Flexed and extended

A

Flexed

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54
Q

What reduction in the total dural diameter is considered abnormal?

>10%

>20%

>30%

>50%

A

>20%

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55
Q

‘Clipping’ artefact is a result of?

Underexposure

Overexposure

Use of an incorrect gird

Use of an incorrect postprocessing algorithm

A

Overexposure

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56
Q

The normal dimensions of a foals heart relative the length of a mid thoracic vertebral body should be?

CC 4.5-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3

CC 5.0-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3

CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8

CC 4.6-5.6, DV 6.7-7.8

A

CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8

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57
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the mainstem bronchi?

The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right

The left mainstem bronchus is more ventral than the right

The left mainstem bronchus has a larger end on diameter than the right

The left mainstem bronchus has a smaller end on diameter than the right

A

The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right

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58
Q

Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis is associated with which EHV?

1 and 4

3

5

6

A

5

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59
Q

Differences between observers measuring intra and intervertebral sagittal ratios can be up to:

1-2%

2-5%

5-10%

10-15%

A

5-10%

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60
Q

The cranial physis of cervical vertebra C3-7 closes?

From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo

From ventral to dorsal at 4-5yo

From dorsal to ventral at 2yo

From dorsal to ventral at 4-5yo

A

From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo

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61
Q

What is indicated by the arrow

Fracture of the cranial articular process

Articular process joint margin

Normal finding

B and C are correct

A

Normal finding

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62
Q

What does the radiolucent area shown by the blue arrow represent?

Osseous cyst like lesion

Osteomyelitis

Neoplasia

Pressure atrophy

A

Pressure atrophy

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63
Q

At what age is the distal phalanx completely ossified?

6 months

9 months

12 months

18 months

A

18 months

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64
Q

The crena marginis solearis is variable in size and can but up to?

  1. 9cm
  2. 2cm
  3. 5cm
  4. 7cm
A

1.5cm

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65
Q

The diameter of separate centres of ossification at the apex of the palmar processes of the distal phalanx and usually but not always bilateral and biaxial and they usually do not exceed what size?

5mm

10mm

15mm

17mm

A

10mm

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66
Q

Small radiopaque fragments proximal to the extensor process of the distal phalanx have been found in what percentage of warmbloods as prepurchase examination?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 5

7

A

4.5

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67
Q

Osseous cyst like lesions that do not communicate with the distal interphalangeal joint may be associated with?

Laminitis

Historic fracture

Infectious osteitis

Must be congenital

A

Infectious osteitis

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68
Q

OCLL at the insertion of the collateral ligaments of the DIPj reflect bone necrosis and are more common?

Medially

Laterally

In forelimbs

In hindlimbs

A

Medially

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69
Q

Keratomas are most commonly found in the?

Dorsal hoof wall

Solar margin

Frog

There is no common location

A

Dorsal hoof wall

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70
Q

Grade 5 ossification of the collateral cartilages is defined as ossification to the level of the?

Midpoint of the middle phalanx

Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx

The proximal 1/3 of the middle phalanx

The proximal aspect of the middle phalanx.

A

Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx

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71
Q

At what age does the distal physis of the third metacarpal/metatarsal bone close?

6-8 months

8-12 months

12-14 months

12-18 months

A

6-8 months

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72
Q

If the PSBs form of two ossification centres what age should they fuse by?

40 days

60 days

3 months

5 months

A

60 days

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73
Q

Supracondylar lysis can be seen in association with chronic injuries to which soft tissue structure?

Common/ Long digital extensor tendon

Lateral digital extensor tendon

Suspensory ligament

DDFT

A

Suspensory ligament

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74
Q

What is the prognosis for horses with infection osteitis of the palmar or abaxial aspect of a proximal sesamoid bone?

Favourable with conservative management

Favourable with surgical debridement

Guarded

Guarded with conservative management but surgical debridement may be indicated in selected cases.

A

Favourable with surgical debridement

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75
Q

What is the reference value for horses with laminitis for the thickness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx?

>20 mm, 28%

> 25 mm, 27%

<20 mm, 27%

<25 mm, 28%

A

>20 mm, 28%

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76
Q

What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole?

Keratoma formation

Haemorrhagic laminar tissue

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

Hoof abscess formation

A

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

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77
Q

In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first?

Medial

Lateral

Dorsal

palmar

A

Medial

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78
Q

Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram?

Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein

Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues

Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

A

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

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79
Q

What is abnormal in the below image?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. nothing

A

d. nothing

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80
Q

Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal?

5

7

9

No number accounted for

A

7

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81
Q

When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image?

The APJs closest to the plate

The APJs closest to the generator

A

The APJs closest to the plate

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82
Q

How many centres of ossification does C2 have?

1

2

3

4

A

4

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83
Q

At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2?

1 month

4 months

7 months

10 months

A

7 months

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84
Q

From which position do the cranial physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?

Ventrally and 4-5 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

Ventrally and 2 years

Dorsally and 2 years

A

Ventrally and 2 years

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85
Q

From which position do the caudal physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?

Ventrally and 4-5 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

Ventrally and 2 years

Dorsally and 2 years

A

Dorsally and 4-5 years

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86
Q

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?

Bone spur on caudoproximal epiphysis

Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF

Osseous fragment on the caudal aspect of C2

Superimposition of the caudal physis of C2 on the IVF

A

Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF

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87
Q

Which developmental abnormality is most likely to be associated with spinal cord compression? (2 answers)

Enlargement of the caudal epiphysis

Vertebral angulation

Vertebral stenosis

Extension of caudal vertebral arch caudally

A

Vertebral angulation

Vertebral stenosis

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88
Q

Which two statements are false?

Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.

Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C2-C3 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.

Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4

Rooney type 2 lesions involve axial enlargement of the articular processes of C4 occasionally C5

A

Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.

Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4

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89
Q

Subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint is associated with?

A rotated neck posture

Kyphosis

A flexed neck posture

An extended neck posture

A

An extended neck posture

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90
Q

Which statements are correct?

Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens

Atlantoaxial subluxation is often involves distal displacement of the dens

Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal

Subluxation of C6-C7 is normally ventral

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens

Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal

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91
Q

Fractures through the physis tend to involve which cervical vertebra?

C1

C2

C3

C4

A

C2

92
Q

Which statement is incorrect?

The cranial physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 6-12 months

The caudal physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 2-4 years

A significant number of horses have 5 lumbar vertebrae

Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae

A

Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae

93
Q

Which thoracic vertebra has a spinous process without a separate centre of ossification?

T1

T2

T7

T8

A

T1

94
Q

In a study of 582 horses what proportion of horses with abnormalities of the spinous processes showed thoracolumbar pain?

16%

26%

46%

66%

A

46%

95
Q

In a review of 670 horses with thoracolumbar region pain, in what percentage was spondylosis identified and at which vertebrae is it seen most commonly?

  1. 8%% T8-T14
  2. 4% T10-T16
  3. 2% T5-T10

10% T8-T12

A

3.4% T10-T16

96
Q

Loss of fine structural detail in aerated lung is known as ? and caused by?

Cropping artefact underexposure

Clipping artefact overexposure

Cropping artefact overexposure

Clipping artefact underexposure

A

Clipping artefact overexposure

97
Q

What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern?

Accumulation of mucus

Mucosal thickening

Wall thickening

Peribronchial infiltrates

A

Peribronchial infiltrates

98
Q

Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct?

Cranioventral

Caudodorsal

Craniodorsal

Caudoventral

A

Caudodorsal

99
Q

The sternum comprises of how many segments?

3

5

7

9

A

7

100
Q

How many centres of ossification comprise the stifle?

5

6

7

8

A

6

101
Q

The tibia apophysis and the metaphysis fuse at what age?

8-12 m

12-18 m

24-30 m

30-36 m

A

30-36 m

102
Q

Physitis most commonly occurs in which location in the stifle

Tibial apophyseal – metaphyseal

Tibial apophyseal – epiphyseal

Distal femoral

A and B

A

Distal femoral

103
Q

What is shown in the bellow image?

Sequestrum

Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus

Enthesopathy of the biceps femoris

Normal separate centre of ossification

A

Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus

104
Q

At what age is the patella fully ossified?

2 months

4 months

6 months

8 months

A

4 months

105
Q

When does the medial trochlear ridge of the femur become larger than the lateral trochlear ridge?

1 month

2 months

3 months

4 months

A

2 months

106
Q

When does the distal physis of the femur close?

12-16 months

16-20 months

20-26 months

24-30 months

A

24-30 months

107
Q

The apophyseal metaphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age?

9-12 months

16-20 months

30-36 months

24-30 months

A

30-36 months

108
Q

When does the proximal tibial physis close?

9-12 months

16-20 months

30-36 months

24-30 months

A

24-30 months

109
Q

The apophyseal epiphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age?

9-12 months

16-20 months

30-36 months

24-30 months

A

9-12 months

110
Q

Where is physitis most common in the stifle?

Distal femoral physis

Proximal tibial physis

A

Distal femoral physis

111
Q

Which view is most useful to examine degenerative joint disease in the femoropatellar joint?

Lateromedial

Caudocranial

Caudal 60 degrees lateral craniomedial

Caudal 45 degrees lateral craniomedial

A

Lateromedial

112
Q

What caudal anatomic soft tissue structure is denoted by *?

Caudal cruciate ligament

Meniscofemoral ligament

Caudal ligament of the medial meniscus

Caudal ligament of the lateral meniscus

A

Meniscofemoral ligament

113
Q

Where does calcinosis circumscripta most commonly occur in the stifle?

Medial femorotibial joint

Lateral femorotibial joint

Femoropatellar joint

A

Lateral femorotibial joint

114
Q

Fracture of the medial part of the patella is associated with what injury?

Avulsion of the insertion of the lateral collateral ligament

Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament

Avulsion of the origin of the medial collateral ligament

Avulsion of the insertion of the medial collateral ligament

A

Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament

115
Q

What is the most commonly fractured region of the shoulder?

Corocoid process

Supraglenoid tubercle

Intermediate tubercle

Greater tubercle

A

Supraglenoid tubercle

116
Q

Which is not an ossification centre of the distal humerus?

Diaphysis

Distal epiphysis

Epiphysis of medial epicondyle

Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle

A

Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle

117
Q

When does the apophysis of the ulna extend to cover the proximal metaphysis of the ulna?

4-6 months

6-8 months

10-12 months

13-15 months

A

10-12 months

118
Q

When does the proximal ulnar physis close?

8-12 months

12-20 months

24-36 months

>36 months

A

24-36 months

119
Q

When do the proximal radial and distal humeral physes close?

8-12 months

11-24 months

24-36 months

>36 months

A

11-24 months

120
Q

When does the distal radial physis close?

8-12 months

11-24 months

24-36 months

22-42 months

A

22-42 months

121
Q

When does the lateral styloid process of the ulna fuse with the distal epiphysis of the radius?

Within 6 months

Within 1 year

Within 1.5 years

Within 2 years

A

Within 1 year

122
Q

Where has osteochondrosis of the elbow been noted to occur? (more than one answer)

Medial condyle of the humerus

Medial proximal radius

Medial epicondyle of the humerus

Lateral condyle of the humerus

A

Medial condyle of the humerus

Medial proximal radius

123
Q

Where have OCLs of the elbow been noted to occur?

Lateral radial epiphysis

Medial distal humeral condyle

Medial radial epiphysis

Lateral distal humeral condyle

A

Medial radial epiphysis

124
Q

Enthesous new bone on the radial tuberosity is associated with the insertion of which muscle

Ulnaris lateralis

Deltoideus

Flexor carpi radialis

Biceps brachii

A

Biceps brachii

125
Q

Avulsion of the origin of the ulnaris lateralis results in displacement of a bone fragment from which location?

Distal lateral humerus

Distal medial humerus

Proximal lateral radius

Proximal medial radius

A

Distal lateral humerus

126
Q

How many ossification centres does the scapula have?

1

2

3

4

A

4

127
Q

Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the scapular body at 5 months

Cranial part of the glenoid cavity

Caudal part of the glenoid cavity

Scapular cartilage

Supraglenoid tubercle

A

Cranial part of the glenoid cavity

128
Q

Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the rest of the bone at 12-24 months?

Cranial part of the glenoid cavity

Scapular body

Scapular cartilage

Supraglenoid tubercle

A

Supraglenoid tubercle

129
Q

How many ossification centres does the proximal humerus have?

1

2

3

4

A

3

130
Q

Which humeral tubercle develops from the same ossification centre as the humeral head?

Greater tubercle

Lesser tubercle

Intermediate tubercle

A

Lesser tubercle

131
Q

When do the humeral head and the greater tubercle merge with the diaphysis?

1-2 months

3-4 months

4-8 months

8-10 months

A

3-4 months

132
Q

When does the proximal humeral physis close?

4-6 months

6-10 months

16-20 months

24-36 months

A

24-36 months

133
Q

A small lucent zone in the middle of the glenoid cavity of the scapula is present in what % of horses?

2%

5%

10%

20%

A

5%

134
Q

Where do osseous cyst like lesions of the shoulder most commonly occur?

Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis

Caudal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis

Caudal scapula and caudal humeral epiphysis

Cranial scapula and cranial humeral epiphysis

A

Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis

135
Q

Mineralisation of the tendon of biceps brachii can occur as a sequel to…?

Fracture of the ventral angle of the scapula

Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle

Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii

Chronic tendinitis of the deltoideus

A

Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle

Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii

136
Q

The proximal and middle phalanges both ossify from how many centres?

1

2

3

4

A

3

137
Q

In the proximal phalanx when does the distal epiphysis unite with the shaft?

1 month old

2 weeks old

Before birth

6 months

A

Before birth

138
Q

When does the proximal physis close in the proximal phalanx

1 month

6 months

18 months

12 months

A

12 months

139
Q

When does the proximal physis close in the middle phalanx?

1-2 months

2-6 months

10-12 months

8-12 months

A

8-12 months

140
Q

In a study of 321 foals, in what percentage were osseous cyst like lesions seen close to the proximal interphalangeal joint

  1. 6%
  2. 2%

26%

62%

A

6.2%

141
Q

In a study of 321 foals with osseous cyst-like lesions near the PIPJ, what percentage of horses had OCLs at 18 months which were also visible at 6 months of age?

20%

40%

60%

80%

A

60%

142
Q

In a study of 3749 German Warmbloods what was the prevalence of osteochondral fragments of the PIPJ?

  1. 9%
  2. 9%
  3. 9%
  4. 9%
A

0.9%

143
Q

What view best highlights the proximal palmar cortex of metacarpal or metatarsal III?

Lateral 25o dorsal palmaromedial oblique

Lateral 15o dorsal palmaromedial oblique

Lateral 25o palmar dorsomedial oblique

Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique

A

Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique

144
Q

To highlight the palmar articular surface of metacarpal or metatarsal III, what angle should the x-ray beam be at, compared to the axis of Mc/MtIII?

100o

115o

125o

150o

A

125o

145
Q

Which statements are not true?

The distal dorsal cortical contour of MtIII is convex

The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex

The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect

The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsomedial aspect

A

The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex

The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect

146
Q

Edge enhancement results in…

Mach lines

Moire lines

Uberschwinger artefact

Ghosting

A

Mach lines

147
Q

Which of these statements is true?

The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months

The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 6-8 months

The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 3-6 months

The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 6-8 months.

A

The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months

148
Q

At what age range does the distal epiphysis of the second and fourth metacarpal bones ossify?

4-6 months

1-9 months

8-16 months

12-20 months

A

1-9 months

149
Q

Radiological changes associated with suspensory ligament desmopathy are more commonly seen…?

On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus

On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus

On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus

On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus.

A

On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus

150
Q

Angular limb deformities involving the diaphysis of the third metacarpus or metatarsus most commonly originate at…?

The distal third

The middle third

The proximal third

All sites are equally common

A

The proximal third

151
Q

Physitis of the distal metarcarpal physis can result in angular limb deformity at the metacarpophalangeal joint. If needed, before what age should surgical correction be performed?

6 weeks

8 weeks

10 weeks

12 weeks

A

8 weeks

152
Q

Dystrophic mineralisation associated with a soft tissue mass unrelated to an anatomical structure is suggestive of…?

Marie’s disease

Mastocytosis

Squamous cell carcinoma

Fibrosarcoma

A

Mastocytosis

153
Q

Which are radiological features of an enostosis-like lesion?

Lesion close to the nutrient foramen

Lesion contiguous with the endosteum

No cortical or periosteal reaction

All of the above

A

All of the above

154
Q

Fractures of the distal metacarpal physis are commonly…?

Type 1

Type 2

Type 4

Type 6

A

Type 2

155
Q

Incomplete longitudinal stress fractures of the McIII palmar cortex occur most commonly at which location?

Proximomedial

Proximolateral

Distomedial

Distolateral

A

Proximomedial

156
Q

What view is best to assess the palmar aspect of the metacarpal condyles?

Flexed lateromedial

Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique

Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

A

Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

157
Q

What view is best to highlight the palmar articular margins of the P1 palmar process?

Flexed lateromedial

Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique

Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedialo oblique

A

Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

158
Q

Which 2 views will highlight the abaxial aspect of the lateral proximal sesamoid bone?

Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique

Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique

Palmar 85o proximal 15o lateral palmarodistal medial oblique

Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique

A

Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique

Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique

159
Q

The physis of the proximal phalanx closes at what age?

4 months

8 months

12 months

16 months

A

12 months

160
Q

The distal physis of McIII fuses at what age?

2-4 months

4-6 months

6-8 months

8-10 months

A

6-8 months

161
Q

When does ossification of the PSBs occur?

4-8 weeks

12-16 weeks

16-20 weeks

8-10 weeks

A

12-16 weeks

162
Q

In a study of 321 French foals in what percentage were dorsal and plantar fragments identified and which were most common in which breed?

10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters)

9% dorsal (Warmbloods), 10% plantar (Trotters)

10% dorsal (Trotters), 9% plantar (Warmbloods)

9% dorsal (Trotters), 10% plantar (Warmbloods)

A

10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters)

163
Q

Degenerative joint disease normally originates on which aspect of the fetlock

Proximolateral

Proximomedial

Distolateral

Distomedial

A

Proximomedial

164
Q

Dorsoproximal P1 fragments are commonly

Medial

Lateral

A

Medial

165
Q

Which of these statements are true?

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly seen in the forelimb

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly lateral

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

A

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

166
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

55o

167
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

35o

168
Q

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones?

35o

85o

55o

45o

A

35o

169
Q

How many ossification centres does the distal radius have?

1

2

3

4

A

2

170
Q

When do the lateral styloid process of the radius and the distal radial physis close?

Styloid process within 8 months, distal radial physis at 15 months

Styloid process within 6 months, distal radial physis at 12 months

Styloid process within 10 months, distal radial physis within 10 months

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

A

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

171
Q

How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have?

1

2

3

4

A

1

172
Q

By what age are the carpal bones fully developed?

6 months

12 months

18 months

24 months

A

18 months

173
Q

What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna?

5%

15%

25%

35%

A

35%

174
Q

What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone?

2%

5%

10%

15%

A

2%

175
Q

How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated?

Cast in the first few days of life

Casting after 2 weeks

Transphyseal bridging

Paddock rest

A

Cast in the first few days of life

176
Q

Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis?

Osteochondroma

Radial exostosis

A

Radial exostosis

177
Q

Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation?

Antebrachiobcarpal joint

Middle carpal joint

Carpometacarpal joint

A

Carpometacarpal joint

178
Q

Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus

Dorsodistal radial carpal bone

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone

Dorsodistal radius

A

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

179
Q

When does the distal epiphysis of the fibula fuse with the tibia?

Before birth

3 months

5 months

6 months

A

3 months

180
Q

What separate ossification centre of the hock fuses to its parent bone by 16-24 months?

Medial malleolus

Medial trochlear ridge

Lateral malleolus

Tuber calcanei

A

Tuber calcanei

181
Q

When is the proximal physis of the third metatarsal bone closed?

2 months

4 months

6 months

At birth

A

At birth

182
Q

On a dorsoplantar image the tarsal canal appears as a lucency superimposed over which bone?

3rd tarsal bone

4th tarsal bone

Central tarsal bone

1st and second tarsal bones

A

4th tarsal bone

183
Q

What two structures run through the tarsal canal?

The tarsal artery

Metatarsal vein

Peroneal nerve

Metatarsal artery

A

The tarsal artery

Peroneal nerve

184
Q

Congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali results in displacement of the DDFT in which direction

Medially

Laterally

Dorsal and medially

Dorsal and laterally

A

Dorsal and medially

185
Q

Where on the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia do fragments commonly occur?(2 answers)

Cranial

Caudal

Lateral

Medial

A

Cranial Lateral

186
Q

In a survey of foals, fragments on the craniodistal aspect of the intermediate ridge of the tibia were noted in?

  1. 5% of French Trotters 10% of Selle Francais, 8% of TBs
  2. 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 20% of Selle Francais
  3. 5% Selle Francais, 8% Trotters, 10% TBs
  4. 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais
A

1.5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais

187
Q

Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is not associated with injury of which of these ligaments?

Short medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint

Long plantar ligament of the tarsus

Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint

Medial talocalcaneal ligament

A

Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint

188
Q

Which of the following is not common a feature of EORTH?

Widening of the periodontal and periapical spaces

Osteolysis

Dental fracture

Bulbous appearance to the tooth roots

A

Dental fracture

189
Q

When does the second deciduous cheek tooth erupt from the gum?

0-2 weeks

4-6 weeks

0-5 weeks

12 weeks

A

0-2 weeks

190
Q

When do the third adult upper and lower premolars erupt from the gum?

1.5 upper and 3.5 lower

3 upper and 2.5 years lower

1.5 lower and 3.5 upper

3 lower and 2.5 years upper

A

3 upper and 2.5 years lower

191
Q

Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for mandibular cysts?

Ameloblastoma

Infection

Ameloblastic odontoma

Cystic fibrosis

A

Ameloblastic odontoma

192
Q

Which bone is denoted by the number 3?

Stylohyoid

Basihyoid

Ceratohyoid

Thyrohyoid

A

Ceratohyoid

193
Q

Which of the following is the normal size for the oesophageal air column?

2-5cm

5-7cm

7-10cm

10-12cm

A

2-5cm

194
Q

Which are the most common tumours found in the guttural pouches (2 answers)?

Squamous cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Melanoma

Basal cell carcinoma

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Melanoma

195
Q

What is denoted by the star in this radiograph?

Plica salpingopharyngea

Laryngeal ventricle

Bone cyst of the vertical margin of the mandible

Rima glottidis

A

Laryngeal ventricle

196
Q

What view will most likely detect an occlusal fracture of the 107 cheek tooth?

Lateral (R) 10o ventral lateral (L) oblique

Lateral (R) 10o dorsal lateral (L) oblique

Lateral (L) 10o dorsal lateral (R) oblique

Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique

A

Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique

197
Q

Loss of fine structural detail in aerated lung is known as ? and caused by?

Cropping artefact underexposure

Clipping artefact overexposure

Cropping artefact overexposure

Clipping artefact underexposure

A
198
Q

What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern?

Accumulation of mucus

Mucosal thickening

Wall thickening

Peribronchial infiltrates

A

Peribronchial infiltrates

199
Q

Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct?

Cranioventral

Caudodorsal

Craniodorsal

Caudoventral

A

Caudodorsal

200
Q

The sternum comprises of how many segments?

3

5

7

9

A

7

201
Q

What is the correct dose of barium suspension for contrast study of an adult horse?

3ml/kg

5ml/kg

7ml/kg

12ml/kg

A

3ml/kg

202
Q

Generalised mega-oesphagus has been associated with which condition?

Atypical myopathy

Gastric ulcers

Grass sickness

Inflammatory bowel disease

A

Grass sickness

203
Q

What is the expected transit time when performing a barium contrast study of a foal?

4 hours

8 hours

16 hours

20 hours

A

8 hours

204
Q

In cases of cystitis, which portion of the bladder is often most severely affected?

Cranioventral

Craniodorsal

Caudoventral

Caudodorsal

A

Cranioventral

205
Q

For a positive contrast cystography what dose of contrast is appropriate?

12ml/kg

16ml/kg

10ml/kg

5ml/kg

A

12ml/kg

206
Q

Which two views are best to look for degenerative joint disease of the DIPJ?

Dorsopalmar

Lateromedial

Upright pedal

Flexed oblique

A

Lateromedial

Flexed oblique

207
Q

A type 4 fracture of the distal phalanx involves which part?

The extensor process

Palmar process

Solar margin

Mid sagittal portion including the articular surface

A

The extensor process

208
Q

Which type of distal phalanx fracture are articular?

Type 6 and Type 7

Type 2 and Type 3

Type 4 and Type 5

Type 1 and Type 2

A

Type 2 and Type 3

209
Q

Which types of distal phalanx fracture involve the palmar process

Type 4 and type 5

Type 1 and type 7

Type 3 and type 6

Type 2 and type 3

A

Type 1 and type 7

210
Q

In sports horses, at what location does the distal phalanx most commonly fracture?

Lateral palmar process

Extensor process

Medial palmar process

Distal solar margin

A

Medial palmar process

211
Q

A fracture of the P3 extensor process greater than what distance from its proximal border is associated with a poor prognosis?

2mm

5mm

7mm

10mm

A

10mm

212
Q

In a study examining medial and lateral sole thicknesses in the equine foot, which side had the greater thickness and in what proportion of horses?

63% had greater medial sole depth

63% had greater lateral sole depth

45% had greater medial sole depth

45% had greater lateral sole depth

A

63% had greater lateral sole depth

213
Q

In severe laminitis cases, how long does a lamellar wedge take to form?

1 week

3 weeks

4 weeks

6 weeks

A

4 weeks

214
Q

When parallel lines are visible across an x-ray film due to a grid, these are called?

Mach lines

Moire lines

Uberschwinger artifact

Ghosting

A

Moire lines

215
Q

At what age does the navicular bone ossify?

10 months

12 months

18 months

20 months

A

18 months

216
Q

What four navicular bone shapes have been described in Warmblood horses?

Smooth round undulating, convex

Triangular, square, straight, concave

Straight, undulating, concave, convex

Triangular, round, concave, undulating

A

Straight, undulating, concave, convex

217
Q

An upright foot conformation leads to what change in the palmar cortex?

Thicker

Thinner distally

No change

A

Thinner distally

218
Q

Proximal entheseous new bone is more common in which region of the navicular?

Laterally

Medially

Sagittally

A

Laterally

219
Q

Distal navicular fragments more often occur…

Sagittally

Medially

Laterally

A

Laterally

220
Q

When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image?

The APJs closest to the plate

The APJs closest to the generator

A

The APJs closest to the plate

221
Q

How many centres of ossification does C2 have?

1

2

3

4

A

4

222
Q

At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2?

1 month

4 months

7 months

10 months

A

7 months

223
Q

From which position do the cranial physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?

Ventrally and 4-5 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

Ventrally and 2 years

Dorsally and 2 years

A

Ventrally and 2 years

224
Q

From which position do the caudal physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?

Ventrally and 4-5 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

Ventrally and 2 years

Dorsally and 2 years

A

Dorsally and 4-5 years

225
Q
A

Qs Maty (5 decks)

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