Butler bookclub Flashcards
What may be seen in an angiogram of a horse with guttural pouch mycosis (2 answers)?
Beading
Arterial roughening
Aneurysm
Arterial narrowing
Arterial roughening
Aneurysm
In myelography, accumulation of contrast in the cranial cervical region is thought to be characteristic of…?
Insufficient volume of contrast
Insufficient concentration of contrast
Subdural injection
Failure of the contrast to mix with cerebrospinal fluid
Subdural injection
In myelography what change in the dural diameter is considered significant when assessing spinal cord compression?
10% increase
20% decrease
30% increase
50% decrease
20% decrease
When does ossification of the pubis and ischium as well as fusion of these bones with the iliu occur?
At birth
6 months
1 year
18 months
1 year
When do the iliac crest and tuber coxae fuse with the rest of the ilium?
2-3 months
4-6 months
6-8 months
10-12 months
10-12 months
Which statement is correct?
The physis of the femoral head closes at 30-42 months
The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months
The lesser trochanter fuses with the femoral shafter at 12 months
The distal femoral physis closes at 20-28 months
The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months
Luxation of the coxofemoral joint normally occurs in which direction?
Craniodorsal
Caudodorsal
Cranioventral
Caudoventral
Craniodorsal
What view can be used to highlight fractures of the third trochanter of the femur?
Craniocaudal
Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique
Caudal 25o lateral craniomedial oblique
Lateromedial
Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique
What is a fontanelle?
A radiodensity between the nasal bones
A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault
A radiolucency between the spheno-occipital suture
A radiodensity between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault
A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault
When is the spheno-occipital suture likely not to be visible?
3 years
1 year
6 years
5 years
5 years
When do the left and right manibular bones fuse?
1 month
4 months
3 months
6 months
3 months
Dentigerous cysts are commonly associated with which bone?
Parietal bone
Petrous temporal bone
Basiocciptial bone
Basisphenoid bone
Petrous temporal bone
A tumour of the equine head that appears well-demarcated with a septate configuration causing a ‘soap bubble’ appearance is likely to be an…?
Ameloblastic odontoma
Ameloblastoma
Osteoma
Adenocarcinoma
Ameloblastoma
Which two in this list are differntials that could explain increased lucency of the maxillary sinus?
Neoplasia
Maxillary sinus cyst
Maxillary cyst
Sinusitis
Neoplasia
Maxillary cyst
To highlight the caudal cheek teeth on a dorsoventral image, in which direction should the x-ray beam point?
Dorsorostral to ventrocaudal
Dorsocaudal to rostroventral
Dorsomedial to ventrolateral
Dorsolateral to ventromedial
Dorsocaudal to rostroventral
When does the fontanelle close?
3-4 months
5-7 months
1-3 months
1-2 months
3-4 months
What structure is denoted by the star?
Hypoglossal foramen
Accessory foramen
External acoustic meatus
Oval foramen
Hypoglossal foramen
The separate centre of ossification for the tuber calcanei fuses with the rest of the calcaneus at what age?
6 – 12 Month
9 – 16 Months
16 – 24 Months
24 – 36 Months
16 – 24 Months
What is pointed to by the arrow in this image?
Osseous cyst like lesion
Tarsal canal
Sinus Tarsi
Compositional artefact
Sinus Tarsi
With congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali and medial slipping of the DDFT which angular limb deformity is often seen at the tarsus?
Valgus
Varus
Contracture
Hyperextension
Valgus
Fractures of the distal tibial physis are most commonly what type?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type II
The most common tarsal bone fracture in the racehorse is most likely to be detected on which projection
DP
DLPMO
LM
DMPLO
DMPLO
For a gastrointestinal contrast study in an adult horse what volume of 30% barium sulphate suspension is recommended?
2ml/kg
3ml/kg
5ml/kg
7ml/kg
3ml/kg
How long should it take for a food bolus to travel from the pharynx to the stomach?
4-10s
8-16s
10-20s
15-30s
4-10s
What contrast media is best suited to diagnose an oesophageal stricture?
Barium paste
Barium suspension
Barium coated pelleted feed
B and C
B and C
In foals, distention of small intestinal loops is considered to be present which the width of the bowel is greater than the?
Length of L7
Length of L1
Length of two rib spaces
Width of the proximal femur
Length of L1
The distal radial physis closes at what age?
12 Months
18 Months
20 Months
24 Months
20 Months
Partial ossification of a vestigial ulna is present in what percentage of horses?
5%
10%
20%
35%
35%
Enthesopathy of the horizontal intra-articular intercarpal ligaments is most common between which bones?
Radial and intermediate
Intermediate and ulnar
Third and fourth
Second and third
Second and third
What is the significance of osseous cyst like lesion in the carpal bones of foals?
Incidental finding
Can sometimes cause lameness especially if present in the distal radius
Only likely to cause lameness as the horse matures and is brought into work
May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation
May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation
Carpal angular limb deformities are often centred on the?
Distal radial physis
Antibrachiocarpal joint
Middle carpal joint
Carpometacarpal joint
Distal radial physis
In some horses there is a narrow, vertical, more opaque line in the middle of the proximal quarter of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone can be seen, this is more common in?
Hindlimbs
Forelimbs
Thoroughbreds
Warmbloods
Hindlimbs
The distal metacarpal physis closes radiographically at approximately?
3-6 months
6-9 months
9-12 months
12-15 months
3-6 months
Dorsal cortical stress fractures of the third metacarpal bone of racehorses usually have what configuration.
Dorsodistal to palmaroproximal
Dorsoproximal to palmarodistal
Mediodistal to lateroproximal
Medioproximal to laterodistal
Dorsodistal to palmaroproxima
When palpable new bone develpeds between the metacarpal/metatarsal bones know colloquially as a ‘splint’ this is most likely to occur where?
Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd
Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd
Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd
Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd
Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
55o
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
35o
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
35o
How many ossification centres does the radius have?
1
2
3
4
2
When do the lateral styloid process of the radius and the distal radial physis close?
Styloid process within 8 months, distal radial physis at 15 months
Styloid process within 6 months, distal radial physis at 12 months
Styloid process within 10 months, distal radial physis within 10 months
Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months
Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months
How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have?
1
2
3
4
1
By what age are the carpal bones fully developed?
6 months
12 months
18 months
24 months
18 months
What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna?
5%
15%
25%
35%
35%
What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone?
2%
5%
10%
15%
2%
How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated?
Cast in the first few days of life
Casting after 2 weeks
Transphyseal bridging
Paddock rest
Cast in the first few days of life
Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis?
Osteochondroma
Radial exostosis
Radial exostosis
Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation?
Antebrachiobcarpal joint
Middle carpal joint
Carpometacarpal joint
Carpometacarpal joint
Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus
Dorsodistal radial carpal bone
Dorsodistal third carpal bone
Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone
Dorsodistal radius
Dorsodistal third carpal bone
Carpal slab fractures are most common in which three bones
Ulnar carpal bone
Radial
Third
Fourth
Radial
Third
Fourth
Which of the following is a contraindication for arthrography?
Suspected synovial cyst
Suspected joint capsule rupture
Inflammation
Osteoarthritis
Inflammation
When preforming an air tendogram how should you adjust your xray settings?
Half mAs and kVp
Half kVp
Half mAs
No change required
Half mAs
What does the blue arrow indicate?
Linguofacial artery
Vertebral artery
Occipital artery
Internal carotid artery
Occipital artery
In a normal horse the ventral contrast column become narrower in which neck position?
Flexed
Neutral
Extended
Flexed and extended
Flexed
What reduction in the total dural diameter is considered abnormal?
>10%
>20%
>30%
>50%
>20%
‘Clipping’ artefact is a result of?
Underexposure
Overexposure
Use of an incorrect gird
Use of an incorrect postprocessing algorithm
Overexposure
The normal dimensions of a foals heart relative the length of a mid thoracic vertebral body should be?
CC 4.5-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3
CC 5.0-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3
CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8
CC 4.6-5.6, DV 6.7-7.8
CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8
Which of the following is true regarding the mainstem bronchi?
The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right
The left mainstem bronchus is more ventral than the right
The left mainstem bronchus has a larger end on diameter than the right
The left mainstem bronchus has a smaller end on diameter than the right
The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right
Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis is associated with which EHV?
1 and 4
3
5
6
5
Differences between observers measuring intra and intervertebral sagittal ratios can be up to:
1-2%
2-5%
5-10%
10-15%
5-10%
The cranial physis of cervical vertebra C3-7 closes?
From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo
From ventral to dorsal at 4-5yo
From dorsal to ventral at 2yo
From dorsal to ventral at 4-5yo
From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo
What is indicated by the arrow
Fracture of the cranial articular process
Articular process joint margin
Normal finding
B and C are correct
Normal finding
What does the radiolucent area shown by the blue arrow represent?
Osseous cyst like lesion
Osteomyelitis
Neoplasia
Pressure atrophy
Pressure atrophy
At what age is the distal phalanx completely ossified?
6 months
9 months
12 months
18 months
18 months
The crena marginis solearis is variable in size and can but up to?
- 9cm
- 2cm
- 5cm
- 7cm
1.5cm
The diameter of separate centres of ossification at the apex of the palmar processes of the distal phalanx and usually but not always bilateral and biaxial and they usually do not exceed what size?
5mm
10mm
15mm
17mm
10mm
Small radiopaque fragments proximal to the extensor process of the distal phalanx have been found in what percentage of warmbloods as prepurchase examination?
- 2
- 5
- 5
7
4.5
Osseous cyst like lesions that do not communicate with the distal interphalangeal joint may be associated with?
Laminitis
Historic fracture
Infectious osteitis
Must be congenital
Infectious osteitis
OCLL at the insertion of the collateral ligaments of the DIPj reflect bone necrosis and are more common?
Medially
Laterally
In forelimbs
In hindlimbs
Medially
Keratomas are most commonly found in the?
Dorsal hoof wall
Solar margin
Frog
There is no common location
Dorsal hoof wall
Grade 5 ossification of the collateral cartilages is defined as ossification to the level of the?
Midpoint of the middle phalanx
Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx
The proximal 1/3 of the middle phalanx
The proximal aspect of the middle phalanx.
Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx
At what age does the distal physis of the third metacarpal/metatarsal bone close?
6-8 months
8-12 months
12-14 months
12-18 months
6-8 months
If the PSBs form of two ossification centres what age should they fuse by?
40 days
60 days
3 months
5 months
60 days
Supracondylar lysis can be seen in association with chronic injuries to which soft tissue structure?
Common/ Long digital extensor tendon
Lateral digital extensor tendon
Suspensory ligament
DDFT
Suspensory ligament
What is the prognosis for horses with infection osteitis of the palmar or abaxial aspect of a proximal sesamoid bone?
Favourable with conservative management
Favourable with surgical debridement
Guarded
Guarded with conservative management but surgical debridement may be indicated in selected cases.
Favourable with surgical debridement
What is the reference value for horses with laminitis for the thickness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx?
>20 mm, 28%
> 25 mm, 27%
<20 mm, 27%
<25 mm, 28%
>20 mm, 28%
What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole?
Keratoma formation
Haemorrhagic laminar tissue
Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation
Hoof abscess formation
Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation
In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first?
Medial
Lateral
Dorsal
palmar
Medial
Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram?
Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein
Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues
Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn
Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus
Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus
What is abnormal in the below image?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. nothing
d. nothing
Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal?
5
7
9
No number accounted for
7
When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image?
The APJs closest to the plate
The APJs closest to the generator
The APJs closest to the plate
How many centres of ossification does C2 have?
1
2
3
4
4
At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2?
1 month
4 months
7 months
10 months
7 months
From which position do the cranial physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?
Ventrally and 4-5 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
Ventrally and 2 years
Dorsally and 2 years
Ventrally and 2 years
From which position do the caudal physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?
Ventrally and 4-5 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
Ventrally and 2 years
Dorsally and 2 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
What is the arrow pointing to in this image?
Bone spur on caudoproximal epiphysis
Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF
Osseous fragment on the caudal aspect of C2
Superimposition of the caudal physis of C2 on the IVF
Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF
Which developmental abnormality is most likely to be associated with spinal cord compression? (2 answers)
Enlargement of the caudal epiphysis
Vertebral angulation
Vertebral stenosis
Extension of caudal vertebral arch caudally
Vertebral angulation
Vertebral stenosis
Which two statements are false?
Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.
Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C2-C3 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.
Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4
Rooney type 2 lesions involve axial enlargement of the articular processes of C4 occasionally C5
Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes.
Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4
Subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint is associated with?
A rotated neck posture
Kyphosis
A flexed neck posture
An extended neck posture
An extended neck posture
Which statements are correct?
Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens
Atlantoaxial subluxation is often involves distal displacement of the dens
Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal
Subluxation of C6-C7 is normally ventral
Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens
Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal
Fractures through the physis tend to involve which cervical vertebra?
C1
C2
C3
C4
C2
Which statement is incorrect?
The cranial physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 6-12 months
The caudal physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 2-4 years
A significant number of horses have 5 lumbar vertebrae
Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae
Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae
Which thoracic vertebra has a spinous process without a separate centre of ossification?
T1
T2
T7
T8
T1
In a study of 582 horses what proportion of horses with abnormalities of the spinous processes showed thoracolumbar pain?
16%
26%
46%
66%
46%
In a review of 670 horses with thoracolumbar region pain, in what percentage was spondylosis identified and at which vertebrae is it seen most commonly?
- 8%% T8-T14
- 4% T10-T16
- 2% T5-T10
10% T8-T12
3.4% T10-T16
Loss of fine structural detail in aerated lung is known as ? and caused by?
Cropping artefact underexposure
Clipping artefact overexposure
Cropping artefact overexposure
Clipping artefact underexposure
Clipping artefact overexposure
What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern?
Accumulation of mucus
Mucosal thickening
Wall thickening
Peribronchial infiltrates
Peribronchial infiltrates
Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct?
Cranioventral
Caudodorsal
Craniodorsal
Caudoventral
Caudodorsal
The sternum comprises of how many segments?
3
5
7
9
7
How many centres of ossification comprise the stifle?
5
6
7
8
6
The tibia apophysis and the metaphysis fuse at what age?
8-12 m
12-18 m
24-30 m
30-36 m
30-36 m
Physitis most commonly occurs in which location in the stifle
Tibial apophyseal – metaphyseal
Tibial apophyseal – epiphyseal
Distal femoral
A and B
Distal femoral
What is shown in the bellow image?
Sequestrum
Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus
Enthesopathy of the biceps femoris
Normal separate centre of ossification
Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus
At what age is the patella fully ossified?
2 months
4 months
6 months
8 months
4 months
When does the medial trochlear ridge of the femur become larger than the lateral trochlear ridge?
1 month
2 months
3 months
4 months
2 months
When does the distal physis of the femur close?
12-16 months
16-20 months
20-26 months
24-30 months
24-30 months
The apophyseal metaphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age?
9-12 months
16-20 months
30-36 months
24-30 months
30-36 months
When does the proximal tibial physis close?
9-12 months
16-20 months
30-36 months
24-30 months
24-30 months
The apophyseal epiphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age?
9-12 months
16-20 months
30-36 months
24-30 months
9-12 months
Where is physitis most common in the stifle?
Distal femoral physis
Proximal tibial physis
Distal femoral physis
Which view is most useful to examine degenerative joint disease in the femoropatellar joint?
Lateromedial
Caudocranial
Caudal 60 degrees lateral craniomedial
Caudal 45 degrees lateral craniomedial
Lateromedial
What caudal anatomic soft tissue structure is denoted by *?
Caudal cruciate ligament
Meniscofemoral ligament
Caudal ligament of the medial meniscus
Caudal ligament of the lateral meniscus
Meniscofemoral ligament
Where does calcinosis circumscripta most commonly occur in the stifle?
Medial femorotibial joint
Lateral femorotibial joint
Femoropatellar joint
Lateral femorotibial joint
Fracture of the medial part of the patella is associated with what injury?
Avulsion of the insertion of the lateral collateral ligament
Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament
Avulsion of the origin of the medial collateral ligament
Avulsion of the insertion of the medial collateral ligament
Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament
What is the most commonly fractured region of the shoulder?
Corocoid process
Supraglenoid tubercle
Intermediate tubercle
Greater tubercle
Supraglenoid tubercle
Which is not an ossification centre of the distal humerus?
Diaphysis
Distal epiphysis
Epiphysis of medial epicondyle
Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle
Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle
When does the apophysis of the ulna extend to cover the proximal metaphysis of the ulna?
4-6 months
6-8 months
10-12 months
13-15 months
10-12 months
When does the proximal ulnar physis close?
8-12 months
12-20 months
24-36 months
>36 months
24-36 months
When do the proximal radial and distal humeral physes close?
8-12 months
11-24 months
24-36 months
>36 months
11-24 months
When does the distal radial physis close?
8-12 months
11-24 months
24-36 months
22-42 months
22-42 months
When does the lateral styloid process of the ulna fuse with the distal epiphysis of the radius?
Within 6 months
Within 1 year
Within 1.5 years
Within 2 years
Within 1 year
Where has osteochondrosis of the elbow been noted to occur? (more than one answer)
Medial condyle of the humerus
Medial proximal radius
Medial epicondyle of the humerus
Lateral condyle of the humerus
Medial condyle of the humerus
Medial proximal radius
Where have OCLs of the elbow been noted to occur?
Lateral radial epiphysis
Medial distal humeral condyle
Medial radial epiphysis
Lateral distal humeral condyle
Medial radial epiphysis
Enthesous new bone on the radial tuberosity is associated with the insertion of which muscle
Ulnaris lateralis
Deltoideus
Flexor carpi radialis
Biceps brachii
Biceps brachii
Avulsion of the origin of the ulnaris lateralis results in displacement of a bone fragment from which location?
Distal lateral humerus
Distal medial humerus
Proximal lateral radius
Proximal medial radius
Distal lateral humerus
How many ossification centres does the scapula have?
1
2
3
4
4
Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the scapular body at 5 months
Cranial part of the glenoid cavity
Caudal part of the glenoid cavity
Scapular cartilage
Supraglenoid tubercle
Cranial part of the glenoid cavity
Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the rest of the bone at 12-24 months?
Cranial part of the glenoid cavity
Scapular body
Scapular cartilage
Supraglenoid tubercle
Supraglenoid tubercle
How many ossification centres does the proximal humerus have?
1
2
3
4
3
Which humeral tubercle develops from the same ossification centre as the humeral head?
Greater tubercle
Lesser tubercle
Intermediate tubercle
Lesser tubercle
When do the humeral head and the greater tubercle merge with the diaphysis?
1-2 months
3-4 months
4-8 months
8-10 months
3-4 months
When does the proximal humeral physis close?
4-6 months
6-10 months
16-20 months
24-36 months
24-36 months
A small lucent zone in the middle of the glenoid cavity of the scapula is present in what % of horses?
2%
5%
10%
20%
5%
Where do osseous cyst like lesions of the shoulder most commonly occur?
Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis
Caudal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis
Caudal scapula and caudal humeral epiphysis
Cranial scapula and cranial humeral epiphysis
Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis
Mineralisation of the tendon of biceps brachii can occur as a sequel to…?
Fracture of the ventral angle of the scapula
Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle
Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii
Chronic tendinitis of the deltoideus
Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle
Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii
The proximal and middle phalanges both ossify from how many centres?
1
2
3
4
3
In the proximal phalanx when does the distal epiphysis unite with the shaft?
1 month old
2 weeks old
Before birth
6 months
Before birth
When does the proximal physis close in the proximal phalanx
1 month
6 months
18 months
12 months
12 months
When does the proximal physis close in the middle phalanx?
1-2 months
2-6 months
10-12 months
8-12 months
8-12 months
In a study of 321 foals, in what percentage were osseous cyst like lesions seen close to the proximal interphalangeal joint
- 6%
- 2%
26%
62%
6.2%
In a study of 321 foals with osseous cyst-like lesions near the PIPJ, what percentage of horses had OCLs at 18 months which were also visible at 6 months of age?
20%
40%
60%
80%
60%
In a study of 3749 German Warmbloods what was the prevalence of osteochondral fragments of the PIPJ?
- 9%
- 9%
- 9%
- 9%
0.9%
What view best highlights the proximal palmar cortex of metacarpal or metatarsal III?
Lateral 25o dorsal palmaromedial oblique
Lateral 15o dorsal palmaromedial oblique
Lateral 25o palmar dorsomedial oblique
Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique
Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique
To highlight the palmar articular surface of metacarpal or metatarsal III, what angle should the x-ray beam be at, compared to the axis of Mc/MtIII?
100o
115o
125o
150o
125o
Which statements are not true?
The distal dorsal cortical contour of MtIII is convex
The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex
The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect
The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsomedial aspect
The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex
The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect
Edge enhancement results in…
Mach lines
Moire lines
Uberschwinger artefact
Ghosting
Mach lines
Which of these statements is true?
The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months
The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 6-8 months
The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 3-6 months
The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 6-8 months.
The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months
At what age range does the distal epiphysis of the second and fourth metacarpal bones ossify?
4-6 months
1-9 months
8-16 months
12-20 months
1-9 months
Radiological changes associated with suspensory ligament desmopathy are more commonly seen…?
On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus
On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus
On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus
On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus.
On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus
Angular limb deformities involving the diaphysis of the third metacarpus or metatarsus most commonly originate at…?
The distal third
The middle third
The proximal third
All sites are equally common
The proximal third
Physitis of the distal metarcarpal physis can result in angular limb deformity at the metacarpophalangeal joint. If needed, before what age should surgical correction be performed?
6 weeks
8 weeks
10 weeks
12 weeks
8 weeks
Dystrophic mineralisation associated with a soft tissue mass unrelated to an anatomical structure is suggestive of…?
Marie’s disease
Mastocytosis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Fibrosarcoma
Mastocytosis
Which are radiological features of an enostosis-like lesion?
Lesion close to the nutrient foramen
Lesion contiguous with the endosteum
No cortical or periosteal reaction
All of the above
All of the above
Fractures of the distal metacarpal physis are commonly…?
Type 1
Type 2
Type 4
Type 6
Type 2
Incomplete longitudinal stress fractures of the McIII palmar cortex occur most commonly at which location?
Proximomedial
Proximolateral
Distomedial
Distolateral
Proximomedial
What view is best to assess the palmar aspect of the metacarpal condyles?
Flexed lateromedial
Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique
Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
What view is best to highlight the palmar articular margins of the P1 palmar process?
Flexed lateromedial
Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique
Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedialo oblique
Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
Which 2 views will highlight the abaxial aspect of the lateral proximal sesamoid bone?
Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique
Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique
Palmar 85o proximal 15o lateral palmarodistal medial oblique
Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique
Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique
Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique
The physis of the proximal phalanx closes at what age?
4 months
8 months
12 months
16 months
12 months
The distal physis of McIII fuses at what age?
2-4 months
4-6 months
6-8 months
8-10 months
6-8 months
When does ossification of the PSBs occur?
4-8 weeks
12-16 weeks
16-20 weeks
8-10 weeks
12-16 weeks
In a study of 321 French foals in what percentage were dorsal and plantar fragments identified and which were most common in which breed?
10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters)
9% dorsal (Warmbloods), 10% plantar (Trotters)
10% dorsal (Trotters), 9% plantar (Warmbloods)
9% dorsal (Trotters), 10% plantar (Warmbloods)
10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters)
Degenerative joint disease normally originates on which aspect of the fetlock
Proximolateral
Proximomedial
Distolateral
Distomedial
Proximomedial
Dorsoproximal P1 fragments are commonly
Medial
Lateral
Medial
Which of these statements are true?
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly seen in the forelimb
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly lateral
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments
Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
55o
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
35o
What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones?
35o
85o
55o
45o
35o
How many ossification centres does the distal radius have?
1
2
3
4
2
When do the lateral styloid process of the radius and the distal radial physis close?
Styloid process within 8 months, distal radial physis at 15 months
Styloid process within 6 months, distal radial physis at 12 months
Styloid process within 10 months, distal radial physis within 10 months
Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months
Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months
How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have?
1
2
3
4
1
By what age are the carpal bones fully developed?
6 months
12 months
18 months
24 months
18 months
What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna?
5%
15%
25%
35%
35%
What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone?
2%
5%
10%
15%
2%
How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated?
Cast in the first few days of life
Casting after 2 weeks
Transphyseal bridging
Paddock rest
Cast in the first few days of life
Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis?
Osteochondroma
Radial exostosis
Radial exostosis
Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation?
Antebrachiobcarpal joint
Middle carpal joint
Carpometacarpal joint
Carpometacarpal joint
Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus
Dorsodistal radial carpal bone
Dorsodistal third carpal bone
Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone
Dorsodistal radius
Dorsodistal third carpal bone
When does the distal epiphysis of the fibula fuse with the tibia?
Before birth
3 months
5 months
6 months
3 months
What separate ossification centre of the hock fuses to its parent bone by 16-24 months?
Medial malleolus
Medial trochlear ridge
Lateral malleolus
Tuber calcanei
Tuber calcanei
When is the proximal physis of the third metatarsal bone closed?
2 months
4 months
6 months
At birth
At birth
On a dorsoplantar image the tarsal canal appears as a lucency superimposed over which bone?
3rd tarsal bone
4th tarsal bone
Central tarsal bone
1st and second tarsal bones
4th tarsal bone
What two structures run through the tarsal canal?
The tarsal artery
Metatarsal vein
Peroneal nerve
Metatarsal artery
The tarsal artery
Peroneal nerve
Congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali results in displacement of the DDFT in which direction
Medially
Laterally
Dorsal and medially
Dorsal and laterally
Dorsal and medially
Where on the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia do fragments commonly occur?(2 answers)
Cranial
Caudal
Lateral
Medial
Cranial Lateral
In a survey of foals, fragments on the craniodistal aspect of the intermediate ridge of the tibia were noted in?
- 5% of French Trotters 10% of Selle Francais, 8% of TBs
- 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 20% of Selle Francais
- 5% Selle Francais, 8% Trotters, 10% TBs
- 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais
1.5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais
Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is not associated with injury of which of these ligaments?
Short medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint
Long plantar ligament of the tarsus
Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint
Medial talocalcaneal ligament
Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint
Which of the following is not common a feature of EORTH?
Widening of the periodontal and periapical spaces
Osteolysis
Dental fracture
Bulbous appearance to the tooth roots
Dental fracture
When does the second deciduous cheek tooth erupt from the gum?
0-2 weeks
4-6 weeks
0-5 weeks
12 weeks
0-2 weeks
When do the third adult upper and lower premolars erupt from the gum?
1.5 upper and 3.5 lower
3 upper and 2.5 years lower
1.5 lower and 3.5 upper
3 lower and 2.5 years upper
3 upper and 2.5 years lower
Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for mandibular cysts?
Ameloblastoma
Infection
Ameloblastic odontoma
Cystic fibrosis
Ameloblastic odontoma
Which bone is denoted by the number 3?
Stylohyoid
Basihyoid
Ceratohyoid
Thyrohyoid
Ceratohyoid
Which of the following is the normal size for the oesophageal air column?
2-5cm
5-7cm
7-10cm
10-12cm
2-5cm
Which are the most common tumours found in the guttural pouches (2 answers)?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma
What is denoted by the star in this radiograph?
Plica salpingopharyngea
Laryngeal ventricle
Bone cyst of the vertical margin of the mandible
Rima glottidis
Laryngeal ventricle
What view will most likely detect an occlusal fracture of the 107 cheek tooth?
Lateral (R) 10o ventral lateral (L) oblique
Lateral (R) 10o dorsal lateral (L) oblique
Lateral (L) 10o dorsal lateral (R) oblique
Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique
Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique
Loss of fine structural detail in aerated lung is known as ? and caused by?
Cropping artefact underexposure
Clipping artefact overexposure
Cropping artefact overexposure
Clipping artefact underexposure
What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern?
Accumulation of mucus
Mucosal thickening
Wall thickening
Peribronchial infiltrates
Peribronchial infiltrates
Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct?
Cranioventral
Caudodorsal
Craniodorsal
Caudoventral
Caudodorsal
The sternum comprises of how many segments?
3
5
7
9
7
What is the correct dose of barium suspension for contrast study of an adult horse?
3ml/kg
5ml/kg
7ml/kg
12ml/kg
3ml/kg
Generalised mega-oesphagus has been associated with which condition?
Atypical myopathy
Gastric ulcers
Grass sickness
Inflammatory bowel disease
Grass sickness
What is the expected transit time when performing a barium contrast study of a foal?
4 hours
8 hours
16 hours
20 hours
8 hours
In cases of cystitis, which portion of the bladder is often most severely affected?
Cranioventral
Craniodorsal
Caudoventral
Caudodorsal
Cranioventral
For a positive contrast cystography what dose of contrast is appropriate?
12ml/kg
16ml/kg
10ml/kg
5ml/kg
12ml/kg
Which two views are best to look for degenerative joint disease of the DIPJ?
Dorsopalmar
Lateromedial
Upright pedal
Flexed oblique
Lateromedial
Flexed oblique
A type 4 fracture of the distal phalanx involves which part?
The extensor process
Palmar process
Solar margin
Mid sagittal portion including the articular surface
The extensor process
Which type of distal phalanx fracture are articular?
Type 6 and Type 7
Type 2 and Type 3
Type 4 and Type 5
Type 1 and Type 2
Type 2 and Type 3
Which types of distal phalanx fracture involve the palmar process
Type 4 and type 5
Type 1 and type 7
Type 3 and type 6
Type 2 and type 3
Type 1 and type 7
In sports horses, at what location does the distal phalanx most commonly fracture?
Lateral palmar process
Extensor process
Medial palmar process
Distal solar margin
Medial palmar process
A fracture of the P3 extensor process greater than what distance from its proximal border is associated with a poor prognosis?
2mm
5mm
7mm
10mm
10mm
In a study examining medial and lateral sole thicknesses in the equine foot, which side had the greater thickness and in what proportion of horses?
63% had greater medial sole depth
63% had greater lateral sole depth
45% had greater medial sole depth
45% had greater lateral sole depth
63% had greater lateral sole depth
In severe laminitis cases, how long does a lamellar wedge take to form?
1 week
3 weeks
4 weeks
6 weeks
4 weeks
When parallel lines are visible across an x-ray film due to a grid, these are called?
Mach lines
Moire lines
Uberschwinger artifact
Ghosting
Moire lines
At what age does the navicular bone ossify?
10 months
12 months
18 months
20 months
18 months
What four navicular bone shapes have been described in Warmblood horses?
Smooth round undulating, convex
Triangular, square, straight, concave
Straight, undulating, concave, convex
Triangular, round, concave, undulating
Straight, undulating, concave, convex
An upright foot conformation leads to what change in the palmar cortex?
Thicker
Thinner distally
No change
Thinner distally
Proximal entheseous new bone is more common in which region of the navicular?
Laterally
Medially
Sagittally
Laterally
Distal navicular fragments more often occur…
Sagittally
Medially
Laterally
Laterally
When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image?
The APJs closest to the plate
The APJs closest to the generator
The APJs closest to the plate
How many centres of ossification does C2 have?
1
2
3
4
4
At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2?
1 month
4 months
7 months
10 months
7 months
From which position do the cranial physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?
Ventrally and 4-5 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
Ventrally and 2 years
Dorsally and 2 years
Ventrally and 2 years
From which position do the caudal physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete?
Ventrally and 4-5 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
Ventrally and 2 years
Dorsally and 2 years
Dorsally and 4-5 years
