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Qs Maty > Butler > Flashcards

Butler Flashcards

1
Q

To increase contrast levels you must:

Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%

Half the mAs and increase the kV by 15%

Double the kV and reduce the mAs by 15%

Half the kV and increase the mAs by 15%

A

Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%

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2
Q

What is an alternative method if you don’t have a grid to not lose contrast?

Increase your object to film distance

Increase your film to focus distance

Decrease your object to film distance

Decrease your film to focus distance.

A

Increase your object to film distance

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3
Q

As from which object width you need to use a grid?

15 cm

20 cm

11 cm

7 cm

A

11 cm

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4
Q

Intra-articular gas can remain present radiographically until when?

24 hours

36 hours

48 hours

72 hours

A

48 hours

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5
Q

How fast can osteophytes become present?

1 week

2-3 weeks

3-4 weeks

6 weeks

A

2-3 weeks

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6
Q

How much decrease of mineralisation is needed before it becomes evident radiographically?

More than 35%

More than 30%

More than 25%

More than 15%

A

More than 30%

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7
Q

A normal mineral content of an adult horse is;

35% mineral and 65% matrix and cells

65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells

45% mineral and 55% matrix and cells

55% mineral and 45% matrix and cells

A

65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells

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8
Q

Osteopetrosis can not be caused by the following disease:

Hypervitaminosis A

Fluorine poisoning

Pulmonary silicosis

Maries disease

A

Maries disease

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9
Q

What is the most commonly affected physis in the horse resulting in physitis?

Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

Distal radius and distal tibia

Distal phalanges and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

Distal tibia and distal phalanges

A

Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal

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10
Q

Common location for enostosis like lesions are;

Tibia

Radius

Humerus

Femur

A

Femur

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11
Q

In which case is the dorsolateralpalmaromedial flexed 45 degree view used in a foot radiograph and in which case the 60 degree?

45: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint, 60: focus on the pastern joint
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint
45: focus on the navicular bone, 60: focus on distal phalanx
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on osteophytes/enthesophytes

A

45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint

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12
Q

In which case it is usefull to obtain the lateral45proximal-mediodistal oblique image?

To skyline the palmar processes

To skyline the articular margins of the distal interphalangeal joint

To obliquely skyline the navicular bone

To skyline the solar margin

A

To skyline the palmar processes

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13
Q

How long does it take for the distal phalanx to completely ossify, model and enlarge?

12 months

18 months

2 years

3 years

A

18 months

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14
Q

A fragment seen at the dorsoproximal aspect of the extensor processs can not be;

Dystrophic mineralisation of the common digital extensor tendon

Separate centre of ossification

Fracture

OCD lesion

A

OCD lesion

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15
Q

Which radiographic signs are not associated with pedal osteitis complex?

Irregular outline and elongation of the palmar processes

Radiolucent zones in the dorsal aspect of the solar margin

Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx

Osseous cyst like lesions of the palmar processes

A

Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx

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16
Q

What indicates new bone formation at the middle portion of the dorsal compact bone of the distal phalanx?

Abnormal stress on the flexor tendons

Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus

Laminitis

Long toe, low-heel syndrome

A

Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus

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17
Q

Which of the following osseous cyst like lesions of the distal phalanx are sometimes incidentally found and/or clinically less important?

Osseous cyst like lesions at or palmar to the collateral fossa of the distal phalanx

Subchondral bone cysts in the midline of the distal phalanx

Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx

Cystic lesions in the distal aspect of the solar margin

A

Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx

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18
Q

Extensive ossification of the ungular cartilages is often associated with?

Enthesophytes of the latero- and mediodistal aspect of the proximal phalanx

Osteophytes of the articular margin of the distal phalanx

Bone trauma of the distal phalanx

Poor demarcation of the compact and spongy bone within the cartilages

All of the above

A

All of the above

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19
Q

An articular mid sagittal fracture of the distal phalanx is categorized as a type;

Type 1

Type 3

Type 4

Type 5

A

Type 3

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20
Q

A grade 3 ossification of the collateral cartilages is characterized by;

Ossification up to the level of the lateral or medial margins of the DIPJ

Ossification up to the level of the mid sagittal aspect of the DIPJ

Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone

Ossification up to the level of the midpoint of the middle phalanx

A

Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone

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21
Q

Which palmar process is most of the times affected in race horses in Australia?

Left lateral

Left medial

Right lateral

Right medial

All equally

A

Left lateral, Right medial

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22
Q

What is the reference value for horses with laminatis for the thickeness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx?

>20 mm, 28%

> 25 mm, 27%

<20 mm, 27%

<25 mm, 28%

A

>20 mm, 28%

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23
Q

What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole?

Keratoma

Necrotic laminar tissue

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

Hoof abscess

A

Necrotic laminar tissue

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

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24
Q

In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first?

Medial

Lateral

Dorsal

palmar

A

Medial

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25
Q

Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram?

Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein

Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues

Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

A

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

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26
Q

What is abnormal in the below image?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. nothing

A

d. nothing

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27
Q

Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal?

5

7

9

No number accounted for

A

7

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28
Q

When does the proximal physis of the proximal and middle phalanx close?

Both at one year of age

Both in between 8-12 months

Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months

Proximal phalanx; 8-12 months, middle phalanx; 1 year

A

Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months

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29
Q

In older and larger horses there is often remodelling of the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx. What is the cause for this?

Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones

A superimposition of the horizontal distal or proximal row of nutrient foramen

Insertion of the proximal digital annular ligament

Osteophyte formation of the pastern joint

A

Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones

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30
Q

In larger horses there is often remodelling of the dorsal mid body of the middle phalanx. What is the cause of this?

Capsule enthesopathy of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Osteophyte formation of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Enthesopathy of the abaxial palmar ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint

A

Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint

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31
Q

What may not be an incidental radiographic finding?

Oblique sesamoid ligament mineralisation/fracture/fabellae

Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint

Birkeland fragment (intra vs. extra articular)

Spur formation of the middle phalanx pointing distally

A

Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint

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32
Q

What may not be an incidental radiographic finding?

Radiolucent depression between the condyles of the proximal phalanx distally

Spur formation dorsally of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint

Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally

A

Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally

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33
Q

What can cause a subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint?

Injury of the straight sesamoid ligament

Injury of the palmar ligaments

Very poor foot balance (club foot)

Constant contractility of the flexor muscle groups

All of the above

A

All of the above

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34
Q

What is a less guarded prognosis compared to others?

OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx

Multiple smaller OCCL seen in young horses, front limb worse than hindlimb

Eccentric middle and proximal phalanx OCLL in the subchondral bone

All of them are equally poor

A

OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx

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35
Q

Proximal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with;

Repetitive trauma

Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event

Vertical development of affected subchondral bone

Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

A

Repetitive trauma

Vertical development of affected subchondral bone

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36
Q

Distal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with;

Repetitive trauma

Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event

Vertical development of affected subchondral bone

Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

A

Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event

Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone

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37
Q

A normal DP view of the fetlock is differently taken for a front limb and a hind limb, what is the difference??

DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle

DP hind limbs: 10 degree angle, DP front limbs: 15 degree angle

DP front limbs: 15 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 20 degree angle

There is no difference, it is depanding on the position of the legs.

A

DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle

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38
Q

The dorsal 45 proximal 45 lateral-palmar distal medial oblique view of the fetlock is used to visualise:

Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus

Medial condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus

Lateral palmar/plantar process of the proximal phalanx.

Medial palmar/plantar prociess of the proximal phalanx.

A

Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus

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39
Q

When evaluating a vertical condylar fracture of the third metacarpus or metatarsus or stress related bone injury of its palmar aspect is best visulised in which view?

Flexed DP view with 0 degree angle

Normal DP vieuw with 10 degree angle proximodistally

Flexed DP view with 10 degree angle distoproximally

Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally

A

Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally

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40
Q

The subchondral bone plate of the proximal phalanx and the corresponding condyles of the third metacarpus are sometimes different medially and laterally, what is true? (3X)

The medial condyle of MCIII is wider

The lateral condyle of MCIII is wider

The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker

The medial aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 is thicker

This is also seen in the hind limbs

A

The medial condyle of MCIII is wider

The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker

This is also seen in the hind limbs

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41
Q

What is gas artefact sometimes seen in the fetlock joint?

A sign of vacuum phenonomon (OA)

Overflexion of the joint during imaging

Due to injection of the fetlock joint

All of the above

A

Overflexion of the joint during imaging

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42
Q

Which of the below decriptions/findings are not used in a familiar grading scheme for proximal sesamoid bones?

Presence or absence of vascular channels

The width of the vascular channels

The divergence of the vascular channels

The presence of entheseoous new bone

Elongation of the bone itself

Abaxial radiolucent areas

A

The presence of entheseoous new bone

Elongation of the bone itself

Abaxial radiolucent areas

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43
Q

Which of the following ligaments does not insert on the proximal sesamoid bones?

Suspensory ligament

Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments

Palmar annular ligament

Sesamoid ligaments

A

Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments

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44
Q

Periarticular dystrophic mineralisation at the dorsal aspect of the fetlock joint is often seen in association with?

Degenerative joint disease

Chronic infection

Capsulitis

Chronic tendinitis of the common digital extensor tendon

A

Chronic infection

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45
Q

Which side of the fetlock joint is commenly first affected by degenerative joint disease?

Dorsolateral

Dorsomedial

Palmar/plantarlateral

Palmar/plantarmedial

A

Dorsomedial

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46
Q

Which risk factors are associated with dorsal fragments of the proximal aspect of the proximal phalanx and lameness in warmbloods?

Age above 7 years

More than one fragment

Evidence of movement of the fragment

Associated cartilage and synovitis seen arthoscopically

A

Age above 7 years

More than one fragment

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47
Q

Which of the below statements are true?

Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially

Birkenlund fractures are more often seen laterally

Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen medially

Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally

A

Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially

Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally

48
Q

Which breed and which lesion is often associated with remodelling or radiolucent areas of the axial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bone (more often seen in hind limbs)?

Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament

Thoroughbred horses and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments

Cob horses and desmitis of the intersesamoideal ligaments

Warmbloods and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments

A

Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament

49
Q

Which view is best obtained imaging the palmar/plantar aspect of the cortex of the metacarpus/metatarsus?

Lateromedial

Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one

DP

Lateral 30 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one

A

Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one

50
Q

For which diagnosis would a flexed view of the metacarpus/tarsus be helpful?

Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch

Fatique stress fractures

Visualising the abaxial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bones

None of the above

A

Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch

51
Q

Which of the below findings is often associated with ill-defined lucent zone in the base of the second metacarpal bone?

Mineralisation of the interosseous ligament

Presence of the first carpal bone

Narrowing of the interosseous space of the third and second metacarpal bone

Osteoartritis of the carpometacarpal joint

A

Presence of the first carpal bone

52
Q

Splints (syndesmopathy) usually develop within:

Second and third metacarpal bone

Fourth and third metacarpal bone

Second and third metatarsal bone

Fourth and third metatarcal bone

A

Second and third metacarpal bone

Second and third metatarsal bone

53
Q

What do we mean by the involcrum?

Central opaque piece of bone

The lucent zone surrounding this piece of bone

The radiopaque rim surrounding the process

The complete abnormality caused by a osteomyolitis and sequestrum formation

A

The radiopaque rim surrounding the process

54
Q

Which structure is causing exostosis formation at the palmar/plantar middle to distal one third of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone?

The joint capsule of the fetlock joint

The cruciate sesamoidean ligaments

The intersesamoidean ligament

Metacarpointersesamoidean ligament

A

The intersesamoidean ligament

55
Q

Above which age does a foal need to be for surgical fixation of the physis in a Salter Harris fracture type 2 of the distal physis of the metacarpus?

16 weeks

6 months

3 months

8 weeks

A

8 weeks

56
Q

A lateral condylar fracture (most commenly seen) is often complete if it extends… cm proximally

5-8cm

  1. 5
  2. 5

8

A

7.5

57
Q

The closure distal physis of the radius and the ossification of the carpal bones happens respectively at which age?

18 months and 12 months

20 months and 18 months

18 months and 24 months

24 months and 18 months

A

20 months and 18 months

58
Q

What inserts on the transverse ridge of the radius and what on the longitudinal ridge?

Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon

Accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon and collateral ligament of the carpus

Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon

Accessory ligament of the lateral digital extensor tendon and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon

A

Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon

59
Q

In how many percent of the cases is the ulnar bone vestigial and ossified?

20%

35%

40%

45%

A

35%

60
Q

Where are synoviocoeles often seen?

Dorsolateral or dorsomedial

Palmarolateral or palmaromedial

Antebrachialcarpal joint

Middle carpal joint

A

Dorsolateral or dorsomedial

61
Q

The antebrachiocarpal, middle carpal and carpometacarpal joint are most commently affected in respectively:

Sport horses, race horses, older horses

Race horses, older horses, sport horses

Older horses, sport horses, race horses

Sport horses, older horses, race horses

A

Sport horses, race horses, older horses

62
Q

Which of the four below mentioned centres of ossification of the scapula are not completely ossified at birth?

Scapular cartridge

Body of the scapula

Supraglenoid tubercle

Cranial glenoid cavity

A

Supraglenoid tubercle

Cranial glenoid cavity

63
Q

When does the physis of the supraglenoid tubercle close?

5 months

12 months

12-18 months

12-24 months

Kusje

A

12-24 months

64
Q

When do the separate centres of ossification of the proximal humeral epiphysis merge?

3-4 months

6-8 months

12-18 months

24-36 months

A

3-4 months

65
Q

What is not associated with mineralisations of the biceps tendon?

Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle

Degenerative joint disease

Tendinitis of the biceps brachii

Osteochondrosis

A

Osteochondrosis

66
Q

Defect in the cortical bone of the tubercles is seen in the skyline view. Which is of the humeral tubercles is most often affected?

Greater tubercle

Lesser tubercle

Intermediate tubercle

All evenly affected

A

Intermediate tubercle

67
Q

How many ossifications centres has the distal humerus?

1

2

3

4

A

3

68
Q

When does the physis of the ulna close?

10-12 months

11-24 months

24-36 months

22-42 months

A

24-36 months

69
Q

Which aspect of the head of the radius is wider than the other side

Medial compared to lateral

Lateral compared to medial

Caudal compared to cranial

Cranial compared to caudal

A

Medial compared to lateral

70
Q

There is a separate centre of ossification for the lateral malleus, this represents the… and fuses at … of age.

Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 6 months

Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months

Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 6 months

Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 3 months

A

Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months

71
Q

Of which bone might the plantar aspect NOT be remodelled because of previous tearing of the plantar ligament?

Second and fourth metatarsal bone

Fourth tarsal bone

First and second tarsal bone

Calcaneus

A

First and second tarsal bone

72
Q

In Dutch warmbloods OCD lesion are often persistent at which age?

3 months

5 months

7 months

18 months

A

5 months

73
Q

Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is NOT associated with avulsion of the attachment of

Short medial collateral ligament

Long medial collateral ligament

Medial talocalaneal ligament

Tarsal plantar ligament

A

Long medial collateral ligament

74
Q

In which bone are OCLL rarely seen in the tarsus?

Talus

Third metatarsus

Tibia

Central tarsal bone

A

Third metatarsus

75
Q

OCCL lesion are often seen in combination with the following disease, select the right combination

Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis

Central tarsal bone – osteochondrosis

Lateral trochlea of the talus – degenerative joint disease

Distal aspect of the tibia – degenerative joint disease

A

Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis

76
Q

From the notch of the junction in between the medial trochlear ridge and the medial condyle there is a radiopaque line extending caudoproximally. This represents:

Extensor fossa

Intercondylar fossa

Distal physis

Intertrochlear groove

A

Extensor fossa

77
Q

In a normal radiograph there is flattening of the medial and lateral trochlear ridge, where is it considered normal?

Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur

Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle

Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur

Flattened area medial trochlea: junction with condyle

A

Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur

Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle

78
Q

What is shown in the below radiograph?

OC lesion of the intertrochlear groove

OC lesion of the lateral trochlear ridge

OC lesion of the medial trochlear ridge

Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge

A

Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge

79
Q

In which area of the stifle do we most often see OCLL? And what is there cause?

Medial femoral condyle, OC

Lateral femoral condyle, trauma

Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC

Lateral femoral condyle, OC

A

Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC

80
Q

Which site of the insertion of the cruciate ligaments is most often affected?

Distal insertion cranial cruciate

Distal insertion caudal cruciate

Proximal insertion cranial cruciate

Proximal insertion caudal cruciate

A

Distal insertion cranial cruciate

81
Q

Meniscal tears can’t be associated with:

Necrosis of the femoral condyles

OCCL of the medial femoral condyle

OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence)

Collateral ligament injury

A

OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence)

82
Q

Most common fractures of the tibia in Standardbreds are:

Mid-diaphyseal

Proximolateral aspect

Proximocaudal aspect

Distal metaphyseal

A

Mid-diaphyseal

83
Q

Which bones are considered to be form the spheno-occipital suture?

Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone

Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone

Presphenoid bone and lateral occipital bone

Squamous part of the occipital bone and basisphenoid bone

A

Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone

Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone

84
Q

When does the frontanelle close in a foal?

2-3 months

3-4 months

4-5 months

5-6 months

A

3-4 months

85
Q

The nuchal ligament inserts:

Nuchal crest

External sagittal crest

External occipital protuberances

Tentorial process

A

External occipital protuberances

86
Q

What is true about a maxillary sinus cyst and a maxillary cyst?

A maxillary sinus cyst often involves tooth roots

A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses

Both cyst can not cause bony distortion

Only a maxillary cyst may be multiloculated

A

A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses

87
Q

For visualization of the interdental spaces of the caudal maxillary cheek teeth in a oblique view, what should be changed?

10-15 degree caudal rotation

10-15 degree rostral rotation

Open mouth technique with a 10 degree angle

Open mouth technique with a 15 degree angle

A

10-15 degree caudal rotation

88
Q

Periodontal disease is most commonly found in;

Mandibular cheek teeth

Maxillary cheek teeth

Incisors

Cheek teeth

A

Maxillary cheek teeth

89
Q

Which view is best for accessing diastema?

Lateral oblique

Open mouth

DV or VD

Lateral

A

Open mouth

90
Q

When is the corrected mean/minimal sagittal diameter used and why?

In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation

In Thoroughbreds from 5-10 months for ataxia

In Warmbloods from 5-10 months for ataxia

In Warmblood from 3-7 months from cervical malformation

A

In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation

91
Q

When and how do the physes of the vertebral bodies close? !!!!!!!

cranial physes close dorsally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 4-5 years of age.

cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age.

cranial physes close ventrally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 2 years of age.

cranial physes close dorsally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 2 years of age.

A

cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age.

92
Q

See image below, which transverse process is projected ventrally when the image is taken obliquely lateralventral-laterodorsal oblique from left to right?

left

right

A

right

93
Q

What is the Rooney type II lesion within the articular process joints

Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation

Malalignment of C2-C3

Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5

Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation

A

Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5

94
Q

Small lucent zones in the region of the articular process joints represent:

Epidural synovial cysts

Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles

Asymmetric dysplastic articular process joint

None of the above

A

Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles

95
Q

How many lumbar and sacral vertebral bodies are normally present in a donkey?

6 lumbar, 5 sacral

5 lumbar, 6 sacral

5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral

6 lumbar, 4-6 sacral

A

5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral

96
Q

Which spinous process is the supposed to be the highest point of the withers?

T5

T6

T7

T8

A

T7

97
Q

From which spinous process on does the supraspinous ligament insert?

T9-T10

T10-T11

T11-T12

T12-T13

A

T10-T11

98
Q

Which bone can cause superimposition of the articular process joints mimicking the normal anatomy of the process?

Mammillary process

Transverse process

Spinous process

The rib

A

Mammillary process

99
Q

Which fracture of the vertebral body may not be associated with osteoarthritis of the articular process joint in Thoroughbreds?

Articular process joint

Spinous process

Dorsal lamina

Rib

A

Spinous process

100
Q

Which physis involving the coxofemoral joint is less consistent in its closure time and most likely closes around two year?

Trochanter major

Physis of the head of the femur

Trochanter minor

Physis of the acetabulum

A

Trochanter minor

101
Q

Which ligament/muscle is inserting at the tubercle of the pubis?

Acetabular ligament

Ligamentum of the head of the femur

Psoas minor muscle

Rectus femoris muscle

A

Ligamentum of the head of the femur

102
Q

If the horse is non-weight bearing and you want to obtain a correct lateral dorsal lateral ventral oblique, how do you reposition your camera from the standard orientation?

5-10 degrees more ventral angulation

5-10 degrees more dorsal angulation

15 degrees less ventral angulation

15 degrees less dorsal angulation

A

5-10 degrees more ventral angulation

103
Q

How can subluxation be best visualised in a radiograph?

Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended

Ventrodorsal view under GA leg flexed and abducted laterally

Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg extended caudally

Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg abducted laterally

A

Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended

104
Q

What are the best settings for your x-ray machine taking thoracic images?

High mAs – high keV

Low mAs – low keV

Low mAs – high keV

High mAs – low keV

A

Low mAs – high keV

105
Q

New born foal often have an abnormal lung pattern, this appears similar to which pattern?

Alveolar

Interstitial

Bronchial

Vascular

A

Bronchial

106
Q

The normal cardiac size in craniocaudal dimension of a foal is approximately the size of how many mid-thoracic vertebrae? EXAM!!!

  1. 6-6.3 times
  2. 3-6.7 times
  3. 7-7.8 times
  4. 8-8.2 times
A

5.6-6.3 times

107
Q

Which of the below mentioned diagnosis fits best to this lung patterns seen in the radiograph?

Multinodular pulmonary fibrosis

Eosinophilic pneumonia

Bronchopneumonia

Severe RAO

A

Eosinophilic pneumonia

108
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernias often occur often NOT in…..?

Dorsally

Left mid-diaphragm

Right mid-diaphragm

Ventrally

A

Right mid-diaphragm

109
Q

When taking a radiograph with an interest on the oesophagus, what is necessary?

Plate on the left side of the animal

Plate on the right side of the animal

Contrast study is always necessary

Only overlapping images are important

A

Plate on the left side of the animal

110
Q

Which of the following findings is not indictive for gastroduodenal ulcer disease?

Mega oesophagus

Gastric dilatation

Gas in biliary tree

Strictures of the oesophagus

A

Gas in biliary tree

111
Q

What is a normal measurement for a small bowel loop?

The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae

The height of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae

1,5 times the craniocaudal size of the first lumbar vertebrae

The same length as the spinous process of the first lumbar vertebra

A

The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae

112
Q

What is the normal transit time of a gastrointestinal tract of a horse?

6 hours

8 hours

12 hours

24 hours

A

8 hours

113
Q

What is the most commonly affected place for cystitis in an urinary bladder?

Cranioventral

Craniodorsal

Caudoventral

Caudodorsal

A

Cranioventral

114
Q

What is indicating a normal tenogram of a manica flexoria on a lateromedial radiograph?

Two lines of contrast medium diverging

Two lines of contrast medium parallel

One line of contrast medium

Pooling of contrast medium dorsal to the deep digital flexor tendon

A

Two lines of contrast medium parallel

115
Q

What is an approximate amount of contrast medium used in a common carotid artery angiography?

5ml

10ml

15ml

20ml

A

20ml

116
Q

Who put these questions in the system:

Oliver

Maty

Zwelgje

A

Fucking legend of an Oliver obviously

Qs Maty (5 decks)

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