Business Management and Strategy

Question 0

What is the most effective method of performance evaluation?

a. ) A field process
b. ) A continuous feedback process
c. ) A forced ranking process
d. ) A behaviorally anchored rating scale process

Answer 0

b.) A continuous feedback review process is most effective because it provides immediate feedback to employees, enabling them to correct performance issues before they become major problems.

In a field review, reviews are conducted by someone other than the direct supervisor.

Forced ranking is an evaluation method in which all employees are listed in order of their value to the work group.

The BARS process identifies the most important job requirements and creates statements that describe varying levels of performance.

Question 1

The process of identifying risks and taking steps to minimize them is referred to as:

a. ) Liability management
b. ) Risk management
c. ) Qualitative analysis
d. ) Risk assessment

Answer 1

b.) Risk management identifies areas of possible legal exposure for the organization and reduces those risks with preventive actions.

Liability management occurs after a liability is incurred, while risk management seeks to prevent liability.

Qualitative analysis covers several subjective tools for analysis.

A risk assessment is used to determine how likely it is that an identified risk will actually occur.

Question 2

What questions should be answered when selecting an HRIS system?

Answer 2

• What information will be converted
• Who will have access to the information stored
• How will the HRIS be accessed
• whether the HRIS will be integrated with payroll or other systems and what kinds of reports will be produced

Question 3

Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Answer 3

2002

To improve quality and transparency in financial reporting. to increase corporate responsibility and the usefulness of corporate financial disclosure, and to establish and maintain an adequate internal control and procedures for financial reporting.

Question 4

Ad hoc arbitrator

Answer 4

an ad-hoc arbitrator is a person selected to hear a single case between two parties in conflict. (single case)

Question 5

Which of the following is a productivity type of statistical HR measurement?

a. ) Turnover and retention
b. ) Cost per hire
c. ) Revenue per employee
d. ) Job satisfaction

Answer 5

c. ) There are three types of statistical HR measurements:
- productivity measures, such as revenue per employee and OSHA incident rates.

- employee measures, such as turnover/retention and job satisfaction
- activities measure, such as cost per hire and ration of total employees to HR staff

Question 6

An HR audit is designated to help management:

a. ) Improve employee morale
b. ) Analyze HR policies, programs and procedures against applicable legal requirements.
c. ) Improve HR effectiveness
d. ) All of the above.

Answer 6

d.) An HR audit is an organized process designed to identify key aspects of HR in the organization such as employee morale, HR policies, programs and procedures, and HR effectiveness.

Question 7

Examples of workplace ethics issues

Answer 7

Ethics are considered a standard of conduct and moral judgment defined by the processes that occur and the consequences of these processes.

• workplace privacy
• conflicts of interest
• whistle-blowing

Question 8

The correlation coefficient is a statistical measurement that is useful for:

a. ) Determining whether one variable affects another
b. ) Compensating for data that may be our of date
c. ) Determining which variables are outside acceptable ranges
d. ) Describing standards of quality

Answer 8

a. ) The correlation coefficient is useful in determining whether two factors are connected.
ex. whether an increase in resignations is related to a change in location of the workside.

Question 9

Federal legislation does not specifically prohibit disparate treatment of caregivers, but claims of disparate treatment for employees caring for elders, children, or disabled family members increased 450 percent between 1990 and 2005. On what basis are these claims filed?

a. ) Title VII
b. ) Americans with Disabilities Act
c. ) Family Medical Leave Act
d. ) All of the above

Answer 9

d.) According to guidance published by the EEOC, caregivers are not a protected class, but there are circumstances in whcih disparate treatment becomes unlawful based on stereotyping prohibited by Title VII, association with disabled individuals prohibited by the ADA, or violations of FMLA caregiving requirements.

Question 10

A statement of cash flows is a financial report that tell you :

a. ) The financial condition of the business at a specific point in time
b. ) Where the money used to operate the business came from
c. ) The financial results of operations over a period of time
d. ) How much money is owed to the company by its customers.

Answer 10

b.) A statement of cash flows provides information about the money that flowed through the business. It identifies whether the cash was received from customers, loans, or other sources; how much cash was spent to operate the business; and how much was reinvested in the business.

A balance sheet describes the financial condition of the business at a specific point in time.

The income, or profit and loss statement, tell you the financial results of operations over a period of time.

An accounts receivable ledger describes how much money is owed to the company by each customer.

Question 11

One purpose of a diversity initiative is to:

a. ) Increase workplace creativity
b. ) Increase the effectiveness of the workforce
c. ) Increase the organization’s ability to attract customers
d. ) all of the abvoe

Answer 11

b.) The purpose of a diversity initiative is to increase the effectiveness of an already diverse workforce by educating the employee population about the benefits of a diverse workforce.

Question 12

when is PEST used?

Answer 12

A PEST analysis is used to scan the political, economic, social, and technological conditions in the external environment to determine what impact those conditions will have on the success of the organization.

Question 13

The concept that recognizes businesses are social organizations as well as economic systems and productivity is related to employee job performance is known as:

a. ) Human resource management
b. ) Strategic management
c. ) Human relations
d. ) Human resources development

Answer 13

c.) The concept of human relations was first introduced in the 1920s and challenged previous assumption that people work only for economic reasons and could be motivated to increase productivity simply by increasing monetary incentives.

Human resource management is the business function responsible for activities related to attracting and retaining employees, including work force planning, training and development, compensation, employee and labor relations, and safety and security.

Strategic management is the process by which organizations look for competitive advantages, create value for customers, and execute plans to achieve goals.

Human resources development is the functional are of human resources focused on upgrading and maintaining employee skills and developing employees for additional responsibilities.

Question 14

Which of the following alternatives staffing methods would be most appropriate for a company with ongoing yet sporadic needs for a specific job to be done?

a. ) Intern programs
b. ) On-call worker
c. ) Seasonal worker
d. ) Temp worker

Answer 14

b.) An on-call worker is the best solution for situation in which the employer needs the same job to be done on a sporadic basis. This allows the employer to rely on the same persons to do the job, reducing training requirements.

An intern program would not be appropriate because it is a short-term training solution.

Seasonal workers are generally required only at specifics times of the year.

Temp workers provided by agencies may not be available when needed because they may be on other assignments.

Question 15

According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyright material

a. ) Distributing 10 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group
b. ) Copying a book for 10 staff members of a nonprofit organization
c. ) Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group
d. ) None of the above

Answer 15

c. ) Four factors are considered in determining whether the use of published material is a fair use:
- the purpose of the use
- the nature of the work being copied
- how much of the work is copied
- and what economic efect copying the material will have on the market value of the work

Question 16

Which of the following organizational structures is characterized by networks instead of traditional hierarchies?

a. ) Seamless organization
b. ) Geographic organization
c. ) Flat organization
d. ) Matrix organization

Answer 16

a.) A seamless organization replaces traditional hierarchies with networks designed to enhance communication and creativity. These networks are made possible by advanced technology that allows employees t connect from anywhere in the world.

Question 17

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:

a. ) be advised of potential safety hazards
b. ) Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection
c. ) Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards
d. ) View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.

Answer 17

d.) While the the employees have the right to review accident reports, they do not have the right to the information that would identify the employees involved in the accident.

Question 18

PEST is an acronym for:

Answer 18

• Political
• Economic
• Social
• Technological

Question 19

A standard employment practice that seems to be fair yet results in discrimination against a protected class is a description of:

a. ) Disparate treatment
b. ) Disparate impact
c. ) Adverse impact
d. ) Unfair treatment

Answer 19

b.) Disparate impact occurs when an employment practice that seems to be fair unintentionally discriminates against members of a protected class.

Disparate treatment occurs when a protected group is treated differently than other applicants or employees.

An adverse impact is any negative result of a change to any terms or conditions of employment.

Unfair treatment can refer to any perceived difference in how employees are treated.

Question 20

Which of the following points is important to effective lobbying, that is attempting to influence or persuade an elected official to pass, defeat or modify a piece of legislation?

a. ) Learning how the legislative and political process works
b. ) Beginning by using persuasion to convince the elected official to accept your position
c. ) Making big financial contribution
d. ) Letting the elected official choose a solution rather than present a proposed solution.

Answer 20

a.) To be effective, most experts agree that it is best to first do your homework, that is, learn how the legislative and political process works. In this way, you can participate effectively in the process.

Persuasive skills are useful in presenting your point of view.

Big financial contributions are often used by lobbyist to ensure elected representatives will listen to their points of view.

Lobbyists prefer to present a proposed solution to elected officials.

Question 21

Which of the following is required by the Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001?

a. ) Requires pension plans to account for employees contributions separately from employer contributions.
b. ) Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year
c. ) Allows employees older than 50 to make catch-up contributions to retirement accounts
d. ) Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.

Answer 21

c.) EGTRRA (Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001) made changes to pension contribution limits and allows employees older than 50 to make catch-up contributions.

Question 22

Measuring staffing needs against sales volume could be done most effectively by using which of the following techniques?

a. ) A multiple Linear regression
b. ) A ratio
c. ) A simulated model
d. ) A simple linear regression

Answer 22

d.) A simple linear regression measures one variable against another.

Multiple linear regression measures more than one variable against others.

A ratio compares one number to another.

A simulation model uses a computer program to predict the possible outcomes of different business scenerios.

Question 23

A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:

a. ) Interrater reliability
b. ) An MBO review
c. ) A rating scale
d. ) Paired comparison

Answer 23

a.) Interrater reliability seeks to reduce bias y having multiple reviewers rate an individual’s performance and averaging the ratings.

Management by objectives establishes goals at the beginning of a review period and rates how well the goals were achieved.

A rating scale is one method of performance appraisal.

The paired comparison method compares all employees in a group to each other.

Question 24

The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRA) requires that: a. ) All contractors list all job openings with state employment agencies b. ) All employers list all job openings with state employment agencies c. ) State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for senior-level management position referrals d. ) State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for positions lasting three days or longer.

Answer 24

d.) VEVRA applies to government contractors and requires that all job openings be listed with state employment agencies except those that will be filled from within, are for senior level management positions, or will last less than three days.

Question 25

What is the most effective method to utilize when an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group? a. ) An employee survey b. ) A skip-level interview c. ) An employee focus group d. ) A brown bag lunch

Answer 25

b.) A skip level interview provides an opportunity for a manager's manager to obtain the insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey is best used to gather information about various issues that can be collected and summarized. A focus group can be utilized to involve employees in the decision making process. A brown-bag lunch is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations.

Question 26

A lockout occurs when: a. ) The employee shuts down operations by refusing to work b. ) The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace c. ) The employer shuts down the operations to keep employees from working d. ) The employees patrol the entrance to the business

Answer 26

c.) A lockout is an action taken by the employer to stop employees form working. A strike occurs when employees refuse to work An employer that refuses to allow the union to conduct an organizing campaign is committing an unfair labor practice. Picketing occurs when employees patrol the entrance to the business

Question 27

What provides the framework for collecting information about factors that are relevant to the planning process? a. ) A SWOT analysis b. ) A PEST analysis c. ) n environmental scan d. ) An internal assessment

Answer 27

c.) An environmental scan is used to gather the information used to forecast future business conditions. SWOT and PEST analyses are tools used during an environmental scan. An internal assessment is another tool used during strategic planning

Question 28

Which of the following activities is not a responsibility of the operations function of a business? a. ) Designing the product. b. ) Scheduling production runs to coincide with customer demand. c. ) Ensuring that products or services meet quality standards. d. ) Determining what new products will be produced.

Answer 28

d.) Marketing is responsible for determining what new products will be produced based on market research designed to find out what products customers are willing to purchase.

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment. a. ) when single incident of unwanted touching occurs, a hostile work environment has been created b. ) A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a co-worker. c. ) Only a supervisor can create a hostile work environment. d. ) A grievance procedure/policy against discrimination protects employers from hostile work environment claims.

Answer 29

b.) A co-worker who witnesses the ongoing harassment of another individual may have an actionable claim of a hostile work environment. A single incident of unwanted touching unless it is particularly offensive or intimidating, will not reach the threshold of a hostile work environment established by the course. A hostile work environment may be created by any individual in the workplace, including customers, vendors, or visitors, in addition to supervisors or co-workers. In the case of Meritor Savings Bank v. Vinson, the Supreme Court held that the mere existence of a grievance procedure and anti-harassment policy does not necessarily protect an employer from hostile work environment claims.

Question 30

A high-involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention? a. ) Human process b. ) Human resource management c. ) Techno-structural d. ) Strategic

Answer 30

c.) Techno-structural interventions address issues of how work gets done in an organization. A high-involvement organization is one in which employees at all levels are involved in making decisions about how work is accomplished. Human process interventions are designed to build competencies at the individual level of the organization. HRM interventions focus on HR processes and programs such as selection procedures or performance management that address individual employee needs. Strategic interventions are used to execute changes to an organization's vision, mission, or values.

Question 31

What is a target benefit plan? a. ) Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts b. ) Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year. c. ) Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company. d. ) uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.

Answer 31

a.) A target benefit plan is a hybrid plan that has similarities to defined benefit pension plans and money purchase plans. These plans use actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts. Deferral percentage tests are required each year for 401(k) plans. An ESOP provides a means for employees to become owners of the company. A money purchase plan defers a fixed percentage of employee earnings.

Question 32

"Thanks for such a great presentation! You will always have a job with us." This is an example of: a. ) The duty of good faith and fair dealing b. ) An express contract c. ) An implied contract d. ) Fraudulent misrepresentation

Answer 32

b.) An express contract can be oral or written and states what the parties to the contract agree to do. The duty of good faith ad fair dealing is a common law doctrine that parties to an oral or written contract have an obligation to act in a fair and honest manner to facilitate achievement of the contract goals. An implied contract can be created by conduct and does not have to be stated explicitly. Fraudulent misrepresentation occurs when an employer makes false statement to entice a candidate to join the company.

Question 33

Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they: a. ) Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates b. ) Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs c. ) Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse d. ) Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness

Answer 33

a.) Employers look for benefits programs that add value to the bottom line. Health and wellness programs do this by increasing productivity and reducing costs. These programs are attractive to job candidates and enhance recruiting efforts.

Question 34

Samantha is hiring an outside sales rep for a new sales territory. Part of the selection process included an assessment test that measures successful sales characteristics. Samantha scored particularly high on the test. During the interview, Christopher, the hiring manager, had some concerns about how well Samantha would fit into the company culture, but when he learned how high she scored on the test, he immediately decided to hire her. What bias could be at work in the situation? a. ) Halo effect b. ) Knowladge-og-predictor effect c. ) Cultural noise effect d. ) Stereotyping effect

Answer 34

b.) The knowledge-of-predeictor effect occurs when an interviewer is aware that a candidate has scored particularly high or low on an assessment test and allows this to affect the hiring decision. The halo effect occurs when the interviewer allows a single positive characteristic of the candidate to overshadow other considerations. Cultural noise occurs when a candidate gives answers they think the interviewer wanted to hear. Stereotyping occurs when the interviewer makes assumptions about a candidate based on generalizations about the group the candidate belongs to (for example, women).

Question 35

Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries? a. ) Awkward postures b. ) Extended vibrations. c. ) Falling down stairs d. ) Contact stress

Answer 35

c.) Ergonomic injuries are caused by repeated stress to a part of the body. A fall down the stairs is single occurrence and therefore not an ergonomic injury.

Question 36

An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with: a. ) A written warning b. ) A verbal warning c. ) A suspension d. ) Coaching and counseling

Answer 36

d.) An effective progressive discipline process begins with coaching or counseling, acknowledging good performance, and providing guidance on performance that needs to be changed. Providing ongoing feedback, both positive and negative, reduces the stress level for both employees and supervisors when serious performance issues arise and must be addressed. A written warning is the second step of a formal disciplinary process. A verbal warning is the first step. Suspensions are usually the last step prior to termination.

Question 37

An employee earning $22,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgement. Is this employee: a. ) Exempt, based on the executive b. ) Exempt, based on the administrative exemption test c. ) Nonexempt, based on the salary basis requirement d. ) Nonexempt

Answer 37

c.) Effective in 2004, employees must be paid a minimum $455 per week to be exempt from FLSA requirements. This employee earns only $432.69 per week. ($22,500 / 52 weeks = $432.69.) Although d.) is also correct, the BEST answer is the one that explains why.

Question 38

Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer meeds This is done by: a. ) Eliminating processes that waste time and materials b. ) Developing a high level of expertise in all employees c. ) Sharing information with all levels in the organization d. ) Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization

Answer 38

a.) The TQM concept reviews processes to eliminate waste, relies on teamwork, and involves all members of the organization in meeting customer needs. Personal mastery, a high level of employer expertise, is one of the five disciplines of a learning organization. Information sharing is one characteristic of a high-involvement organization The ability to balance stakeholder needs is a requirement of a change agent.

Question 39

Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward? a. ) Challenging work on a new project b. ) A 10 percent salary increase c. ) A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment d. ) Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting

Answer 39

d.) Extrinsic rewards are non-monetary rewards where self-esteem comes from others, such as formal recognition for a job well done. Challenging work on a new project is an intrinsic reward. Salary increases are monetary rewards. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment is another type of intrinsic reward.

Question 40

Which of the following statements about substance abuse policies is NOT true: a. ) Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested b. ) Federal las requires all employees to implement substance abuse policies c. ) An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested d. ) An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive

Answer 40

b.) The drug Free Workplace Act of 1988 requires only federal contractors and subcontractors to establish substance policies. A fair and effective policy will describe which employees will be tested. whether it is all or specific job group. The policy should describe when tests will be done (preemployment, randomly, upon reasonable suspicion, or according to a predetermined schedule) What drugs are included in the process, And the consequences for employees who test positive.

Question 41

To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include: a. ) Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments. b. ) A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling. c. ) Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments. d. ) All of the above.

Answer 41

d.) Organizations that are able to successfully repatriate employees after global assignments do so by carefully selecting candidates for those assignments, setting appropriate expectations before the assignment begins, and establishing a formal program to assist employees in reintegrating into the home office after a global assignment.

Question 42

Richard, who works at the customer service counter in an auto supply store, told his manager that because of chronic back pain, it is difficult for him to stand for long periods and asked for an accommodation The manager isn't sure, based on the essential job functions, how an accommodation can be provided. You advise the manager to begin the interactive process with the employee. What should the manager do to begin this process? a. ) Ask Richard how his back was injured. b. ) Provide a stool for Richard to use at the counter. c. ) Ask Richard whether he has any suggestions for an accommodation. d. ) Ask Richard to meet with HR to resolve the problem. d. ) Ask Richard to meet with HR to resolve the problem.

Answer 42

c.) To assess the reasonableness of a requested accommodation, employers should ask employees to describe their limitations, how it affects their performance of essential job functions, and whether they have suggestions for an accommodation that would allow them to perform the functions.

Question 43

Human resources professionals are likely to use third-party contracts when doing which of the following? a. ) Conducting a job evaluation. b. ) Hiring a temporary employee. c. ) Writing the employee handbook. d. ) Hiring a full time executive.

Answer 43

b.) In the third-party contract, some or all of the work is performed by an individual who is not a party to the contract. There are many examples of third-party contracts in business, perhaps the best known for HR professionals is an agreement with a temp agency in which the company agrees to pay the temp agency for services provided by an employee of the agency.

Question 44

Which of the following is an example of direct compensation? a. ) Variable compensation b. ) Vacation pay c. ) 401(k) matches d. ) Employer Social Security contributions

Answer 44

a.) Direct compensation is composed of base pay (hourly wage or salary), variable compensation, and pay for performance. Vacation pay, 401(k) matches, and employer Social Security contributions are examples of indirect pay.

Question 45

For purposes of developing a security program, an HR manager must assess potential risks and costs related to loss and protection. Which factor must the manager first examine? a. ) Severity of the loss to the organization. b. ) Cost of the loss, including a permanent or temporary substitute c. ) Degree of probability that the loss will occur d. ) Availability and sot of insurance to cover the loss.

Answer 45

c.) The significance of various security issues depends partly on the size of the organization. However, regardless of size , the same considerations go into assessing vulnerabilities and the method for estimating the cost of potential losses. The justification of such a program requires that the potential losses will exceed the cost of the program.

Question 46

Which of the following activities illustrates the administrative role assumed by an HR professional? a. ) Filling out EEO reports b. ) Implementing the grievance process form an employee threatened with termination c. ) Evaluating the bottom-line contribution of HR programs d. ) Conducting an interviewing seminar for line managers

Answer 46

a.) The administrative role of HR focuses on dealing with compliance issues and record keeping. (often via human resource information systems (HRIS)

Question 47

An organizational picket may lawfully take place when: a. ) The union members are unhappy with their current union and ask a new union to represent them. b. ) The union files a representation petition with the NLRB no later than 15 days after picketing starts. c. ) There are less than 45 days left before the current collective bargaining agreement expires. d. ) The union wants to attract employees so they will authorize the union to represent them.

Answer 47

d.) Organizational pickets may take place when no other union is currently representing employees at a company.

Question 48

Arbitrators chosen by all parties to resolve any disputes arising between them in the future are known as: a. ) tripartite arbitrators b. ) compulsory arbitrators c. ) ad hoc arbitrators d. ) permanent arbitrators

Answer 48

d.) All parties agree that permanent arbitrators are fair, impartial, and able to resolve any issues that arise between them. A tripartite panel consists of three arbitrators who hear the issues and reach a joint decision. An ad hoc arbitrator is selected to hear a single case.

Question 49

A correlation coefficient is an example of a type of: a. ) Qualitative analysis b. ) Quantitative analysis c. ) Job evaluation d. ) Learning matrix

Answer 49

b.) Qualitative analysis is a form of research that utilizes mathematical models such as correlation, correlation coefficient, and measures of central tendency to provide solutions to problems.

Question 50

Which of the following activities illustrates the operations role played by an HR professional? a. ) Ensuring currency or employee records b. ) Conducting recruitment for new job openings c. ) Forming contacts with key individuals outside the organization d. ) Developing criteria for selecting supply chain partners

Answer 50

b.) The operational role of HR involves those day-to-day tasks necessary to run an organization: recruiting for current job openings, resolving employee complaints, communicating with employees. In addition, HR consults on specific issues and provides line managers with advice on how to manage performance and increase employees' productivity and job satisfaction.

Question 51

Which of the following examples illustrates the strategic role played by HR today? a. ) Securing off-site backup and storage of employee transaction and records b. ) Developing a system to track the number of people leaving the organization c. ) Creating a training program for conducting safe and legal terminations d. ) Working with senior and line managers to forecast workforce needs for the next five years.

Answer 51

d.) in the 21st century, HR is a strategic partner with senior and line managers. The strategic role of HR requires a global, long-term, and forward-thinking focus.

Question 52

The supply chain is an example of a. ) flexible internal organization boundaries b. ) a tendency to draw core competencies back into the organization c. ) an extended organization d. ) an organizational structural change required by lean manufacturing principles

Answer 52

c.) The extended organization is becoming more common today as supply chain partners create processes and information channels that allow their organizations to communicate and collaborate fluidly. The business remain separate entities but may appear to outsiders as one entity. Extended organizations are commonly formed through the use of outsourcing

Question 53

A software company is considering the acquisition of a training company that will provide documentation and training for its key customers. The company begins a due diligence investigation. Which of the following items will have the LEAST impact on the due diligence process? a. ) Obligations to retirement plans b. ) History of OSHA complaints c. ) Strategies to integrate compensation and benefit system d. ) Cultural fit of the two companies

Answer 53

b.) Due diligence is commonly practiced in the Merger and Acquisition (M & A) process to identify structural, technological, financial, legal, or cultural risks. There is also a compliance dimension to due diligence: benefit issue, compliance with ERISA and tax codes, union-sponsored multi-employer plans, defined benefits or defined contribution plans, I-9 and visa regulations, FMLA, WARN Act, and possible state WARN Acts, provisions or the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)., etc. Of a lesser importance are OSHA and Worker's Compensation claims.

Question 54

Which of the following statements about SOX is true? a. ) It applies to all companies, no matter their size or whether they are publicly or privately held b. ) It relates primarily to compensation for high-level executives c. ) It has little direct effect on HR d. ) It addresses both insider trading and whistleblowing activities

Answer 54

d.) Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002, requires that publicly held companies not only ensure their financial statements are accurate but also demonstrate that they have process in place to ensure accuracy and compliance with accounting standards.

Question 55

HR can best prepare for a strategic role by a. ) enhancing its ability to demonstrate return on investment b. ) expanding the size of the HR function c. ) focusing on ways to cut production costs throughout the organization d. ) centralizing HR activity for greater consistency and control

Answer 55

a.) All functions myst implement appropriate data-gathering processes so that strategic initiatives can be evaluated and modified or eliminated. Business cases must be developed in support of requests for investment by the organization. A business case will need to include financial assessments, such as cost-benefit analysis.

Question 56

The impact of demographic changes on HR is best illustrated by which of the following? a. ) Need to learn more about local legislation and rule-making process b. ) Survey adequacy of existing organization communication vehicles for all employees c. ) Establishment of employee self-service centers d. ) Evaluating ethical liabilities posed by supply chain partners

Answer 56

b.) Survey adequacy of existing organization communication vehicles for all employees The future success of organizations will depend on their ability to recognize and adapt to rapidly changing workforce demographics. Different workgroups have different work values and habits and different preferences for communication, technology, and socialization.

Question 57

Which of the following best illustrates the way in which HR's strategic role has transformed its operations role? a. ) Upgrading an HRIS system b. ) Establishing relationships with key decision makers throughout the organization c. ) Taking a more active role in responding to employee complaints d. ) Analyzing job descriptions for changes to required skills that will affect recruitment and selection decisions.

Answer 57

d.) Analyzing job descriptions for changes to required skills that will affect recruitment and selection decisions. HR's operational activities are now directly aligned with strategic bjectives. Specific types of employees are targeted for hiring. HR works with functions to design incentives that promote rather than discourage desired behavior. HR monitors employee satisfaction and looks for ways to increase employee engagement (ex. improving supervisory skills, soliciting employee ideas.)

Question 58

The PRIMARY priority of a project manager who is exhibiting the interpersonal role is a. ) disseminating information and helping team members b. ) building team norms and fostering harmony c. ) allocating resources d. ) negotiating differences and monitoring project progress

Answer 58

b.) In the interpersonal role, the project manager is a leader and a liaison. The top priorities are building team norms and fostering harmony.

Question 59

Which of a project's life cycle is most labor-intensive? a. ) Problem definition b. ) Project planning c. ) Implementation d. ) Evaluation

Answer 59

c.) Project plan implementation is the most labor-intensive phase of the project and represents the largest portion of the schedule and budget. The project manager's role may expand now to include motivating the team and removing any obstacles to the team's progress.

Question 60

Which of the following best describes a business plan? a. ) cost-benefit analysis of business concept b. ) Market research into acceptability of a new service or product c. ) Scenario-based test of a business plan d. ) Analysis of a problem and of possible solutions

Answer 60

d.) Analysis of a problem and of possible solutions Business case if often used to request management support for a project. Business case establishes that a specific problem exists and argues that the proposed solution is the best way to solve the problem in terms of time, cost-efficiency, and probability of success.

Question 61

What is the FIRST step in locating a third party vendor to handle an employee assistance program? a. ) Create an RFP b. ) Conduct on-site visits c. ) Analyze needs and define goals d. ) Contact potential vendors

Answer 61

c.) The first step in the vendor selection process is analyzing needs and defining goals.

Question 62

Which of the following is the MOST important role HR can play in a major change initiative? a. ) Communicate regularly with employees b. ) Assume responsibility for implementing the change c. ) Question whether the change is needed d. ) Counsel people who are upset by the change

Answer 62

a. ) There are five common imperatives for change management: * Create awareness of the need for change * Create a vision of where you want to go * Facilitate change * Motivate employees * Incorporate the change into the organization's culture and structures

Question 63

Which of the following HR activities should NOT be outsourced? a. ) Payroll administration b. ) Creating of online employee manuals c. ) Relocation programs for employees d. ) Development of goals and strategies for improving workforce skills

Answer 63

d.)

Question 64

Which of the following is an example of strategy development? a. ) A company allocates resources to enable it to reach a new market for its products. b. ) A company decides to market its products internationally. c. ) A company motivates employees to increase international sales. d. ) A company decides to cut back on its international advertising campaign.

Answer 64

b. ) The following activities occur in Phase 2 of the Strategic Planning Process, the strategy development: * The organization's internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats are analyzed. (An environmental scan is usually necessary to supplement this analysis.) * Long-term organizational objectives are established ( ex. A company decides to market its products internationally.) * Strategies to achieve those objectives are defined.

Question 65

An organization hires only experienced, top-performing people who tend to stay with the company for ten years or more. An organization would consider this situation a(n): a. ) strength. b. ) weakness. c. ) opportunity. d. ) threat.

Answer 65

a.) In Strategy Development, Phase 2 of the Strategic Planning Process involves conducting an analysis of the organization's strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats. This is referred to as SWOT analysis; S - Organization's internal strengths W - internal weaknesses O - external opportunities might move the organization forward T - external threats might hold the organization back

Question 66

A paper products company divides its business into commercial and consumer divisions. The commercial division decides to expand its market share by forming key account teams to provide its most important customers with better services. this is an example of: a. ) organizational strategy. b. ) business unit strategy c. ) corporate vision. d. ) functional strategy.

Answer 66

b.) A specific subunit of an organization is often referred to as a business unit or profit center. Strategic decisions at this level concentrate on the best way for the organization to compete in the specific markets in teh organizational strategy.

Question 67

A short-term objective is generally completed within a. ) one month b. ) six months to one year c. ) one to two years. d. ) three to five years.

Answer 67

b.) Short-term objectives must be achieved in order to reach the long-term objectives' usually within six months to a year. They are set at functional level but are aligned with the organization's and/or usiness unit's long-term objectives.

Question 68

Which of the following trends in technology has occurred in business management in the last decade? a. ) Mobile computing b. ) Stand-alone T systems for functions within an organization c. ) Less vulnerability to exterior threats d. ) Less retention of data

Answer 68

a.) According to Baseline's 2011 survey 27% of the surveyed organizations supported mobile computing by employees. As mobile devices proliferate and as telecommuting and hoteling increase, organization's IT functions and systems must find ways to integrate mobile computing devices.

Question 69

A mission statement does not need to include: a. ) what the company does. b. ) time frame for completion. c. ) where the company is headed. d. ) who its customers are.

Answer 69

b.) In the Strategy Planning Process, Phase 1: Strategy Formulation stage involves developing the organization's vision and mission statements and defining the organizational values. A mission statement specifies what activities the organization intends to pursue and what course management has charted for the future. The general outline includes: * who the company is * what the company does * who the company's customers are

Question 70

A company that emphasizes training to maintain workforce flexibility and improve productivity is in which phase of organizational development? a. ) Introduction b. ) Growth c. ) Maturity d. ) Decline

Answer 70

c.) Maturity, Phase 3 of The Evolution of Organizations is characterized by already resolved scheduling problems, and staffing and organizational cultures begin to establish. Policies, procedures, and rules and organizational cultures begin to stabilize. The organization is probably introducing additional produces and services. Training gains added emphasis in this phase to maintain the flexibility ad skills of the workforce and improve productivity. Labor cost control becomes a factor.

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT a part of strategy evaluation? a. ) Take corrective action b. ) identify threats or opportunities. c. ) Measure organizational performance. d. ) Determine which people are not performing well.

Answer 71

b. ) Strategy Evaluation, Phase 4 of the Strategic Planning Process includes: * reviewing strategies * measuring performance * taking corrective action Identifying Strengths or opportunities is part of SWOT analysis, Strategy Development, Phase 2 of the Strategic Planning Process.

Question 72

Which of the following actions might be a likely way to increase employee engagement? a. ) Promote a higher degree of managerial control. b. ) Pay higher wages c. ) Explore employee values and needs d. ) Use a flat organizational structure

Answer 72

c.) the culture and spirit of tan organization reside in its employees. Fro an HR perspective, managers should recognize and take advantage of human capital and focus on * Identifying values that employees are looking for * aligning recruitment with the strategic plan to identify and hire the types of employees the organization will need in the future * developing innovative organizational development programs

Question 73

A company that increase recruitment and selection efforts to staff new positions is in which phase of organizations development? a. ) Introduction b. ) Growth c. ) Maturity d. ) Decline

Answer 73

b.) Growth, Phase 2 of Evolution of Organizations is characterized by change and expansion in terms of facilities, marketing, and people to keep with the demand for products or services. This phase is often accompanied by backlogs and scheduling problems while the organization adjusts to increased demands. Recruitments and selection efforst are increased to staff new positions.

Question 74

An organization's debts are referred to as its: a. ) assets. b. ) liabilities. c. ) equities. d. ) receivables.

Answer 74

b.) Liabilities is what the organization owes. Liabilities can include items such as rent, loans or notes, ages and benefits that have been earned but not yet paid, reserves set aside to cover potential liabilities, unpaid fines or legal judgements, tax debts, and accounts payable.

Question 75

An employee who designs and develops sales training programs reports to both the executive Vice President of sales and the Vice President of human resources. This is an example of what type of organizational structure? a. ) Functional b. ) Divisional c. ) Matrix d. ) Task

Answer 75

c.) In the Matrix type of organizational structure employees report to two managers. The matrix structure combines departmentalization by division and function to gain the benefits of both. It creates a dual rather than single chain of commend.

Question 76

Which of the following describes the competitive strategies of an organizational committed to differentiation? a. ) Controlling costs, retaining key people, determining compensation strategy, and cross-training employee b. ) Exploiting all economics of scale and focusing on low-cost production to the exclusion of everything else. c. ) Positioning unique product characteristics that customers will value and pay a premium price for d. ) Formalizing policies, procedures, and rules and communicating them to all employees.

Answer 76

c.) In a Differentiation-Type of Competitive Strategy, the organization attempts to set product or service apart from its competition by giving it unique characteristics that consumers value and for which they will be willing to pay a premium price. These include product features, the marketing approach, quality, and the delivery channel.

Question 77

The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent: a. ) At home while waiting to be called to work b. ) At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment c. ) Attending a voluntary training program d. ) Commuting to work

Answer 77

b.) A nonexempt employee who is waiting for an assignment while at work must be paid for the time spent waiting.

Question 78

What separates a profession from an occupation?

Answer 78

* National organization * Code of ethics * Research * Body ok knowledge * Credentialing

Question 79

What does VUCA acronym stand for?

Answer 79

V Volatile (zmienny, lotny, ulatniajacy sie) U Uncertain C Complex A Ambiguous (niejasny, dwuznaczny, metny)

Question 80

Accounts payable

Answer 80

Money an organization owes its vendors and suppliers

Question 81

Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010

Answer 81

* A non-biding vote for shareholders on executive compensation and golden parachutes * Public companies implement policies to take back executive compensation if it was based on inaccurate financial statements or statement that do not comply with accounting standards * Creation of an office of Minority and Women Inclusion * Encouragement for whistleblowers reporting securities violations * Public disclosure of any payments made to U.S. and foreign governments relating to the commercial development of natural gas, oil, and mineral extraction sectors

Question 82

Accounts receivable

Answer 82

Money an organization's customers owe the organization.

Question 83

Action plans

Answer 83

Detailed steps a unit, department, or team will take in order to achieve short-term objectives.

Question 84

According to OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workforce hazard receives first priority for an inspection? a. ) Catastrophes and fatal accidents b. ) Programmed high-hazard inspections c. ) Imminent danger d. ) Employee complaints

Answer 84

c.) OSHA inspections that will prevent injury or illness receive first priority for OSHA inspections. An imminent danger is one that has a reasonable certainty of death or serious injury occurring before normal enforcement procedures can occur. Catastrophic and fatal accidents are given second priority Employee complaints receive third priority Programmed, high-hazard inspections receive fourth priority

Question 85

Assets

Answer 85

Financial, physical and sometimes intangible properties an organization owns.

Question 86

Balanced scorecard

Answer 86

Measurement approach that provides an overall picture of an organization's performance as measured against goals in finance, customers internal business business processes, and learning and growth.

Question 87

Baby boomers

Answer 87

Group of people born between the years 1946 and 1964

Question 88

Balance sheet

Answer 88

Statement on a firm's financial position at a particular time.

Question 89

Break-even analysis

Answer 89

Analysis that shows point in time at which total revenue associated with a program is equal to the total cost of the program. Break-even point= Cost/Savings x Time ex: annual cost=$35,000 expected to generate in return a savings of $40,00 the first year $35,000/$40.000= .875 .875 x 12 months = 10.5 months

Question 90

Business case

Answer 90

Description of an organizational challenge and possible alternative solutions, arguing for a specific solution.

Question 91

Which of the following is an example of a non qualified deferred compensation plan? a. ) An excess deferral plan b. ) A target benefit plan c. ) A money purchase plan d. ) A cash balance plan

Answer 91

a.) An excess deferral plan makes up the difference between what an executive could have contributed to a qualified plan if there had not been a limit on contributions and how much was actually contributed because of the discrimination test required by ERISA. These plans are non-qualified because they are not protected by ERISA; they are limited to a small group of executives or highly compensated employees. A target benefit plan is a hybrid with elements of defined benefits and money purchase plan. A money purchase plan defers a fixed percentage of employee earnings. A cash balance plan combines elements of defined benefits and defined contribution plans.

Question 92

Cash flow statement

Answer 92

Record of how much cash is flowing into and out of an organization, including its sources or destinations.

Question 93

Divestiture

Answer 93

(zbyt) Sale by a company of an asset that is not performing well, that is not core to the company's business, or that is worth more as a separate entity.

Question 94

Cost benefit analysis

Answer 94

Ratio of value created to cost of creating that value. it allows management to determine the financial impact particular activity and programs have on an organization's profitability.

Question 95

Environmental scanning

Answer 95

Process that involves a systematic survey ad interpretation of relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats.

Question 96

Due diligence

Answer 96

Process of conducting an intensive investigation of an organization as one of the first steps in a pending merger or acquisition.

Question 97

Equity

Answer 97

Amount of owner's or shareholders' portion of a business

Question 98

Extended organization

Answer 98

Alliance between organizations to create processes and information channels that allows communication and collaboration.

Question 99

What is an Excelsior list? a. ) A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employers to the union within seven days of the scheduling election by the NLRB. b. ) A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them. c. ) A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union. d. ) A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within seven days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.

Answer 99

a.) Once an election has been scheduled, the employer must provide a list, known as an Excelsior list, containing the names and address of all employees in the bargaining unit determined by he NLRB.

Question 100

Financial ratios

Answer 100

Calculations designed to describe an organization's financial health and performance from various perspectives.

Question 101

Formula budgeting

Answer 101

Form of budgeting in which an average cost is applied to comparable expenses and general funding is changed by a specific amount.

Question 102

Gantt chart

Answer 102

Project planning tool that graphically displays activities of a project in sequential order and plots them against time.

Question 103

Gross profit margin

Answer 103

Ratio of gross profit to net sales.

Question 104

Income statment

Answer 104

Statement comparing revenues, expenses, and profits over a specified period of time, usually a year or a quarter.

Question 105

Liabilites

Answer 105

Organization's debt and other financial obligations.

Question 106

Inventory

Answer 106

to an operations department, an organization's major asset after physical building and equipment.

Question 107

Matrix structure

Answer 107

Organizational structure that combines departmentalization by devision and function to gain the benefits of both.

Question 108

Mission statement

Answer 108

Specifies what the organization does, who its customers are, and the priorities it has set in pursuing its work.

Question 109

Mergers and acquisitions (M & A)

Answer 109

Combination of two separate firms either by their joining together as relative equals (merger) or by acquiring the other (acquisition)

Question 110

Net profit margin

Answer 110

Ratio of net income (gross sales minus expenses and taxes) to net sales

Question 111

PERT

Answer 111

Program Evaluation and Review Technique chart

Question 112

PERT chart

Answer 112

Program evaluation and review technique chart Project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project.

Question 113

Project

Answer 113

Series of tasks and activities that has a stated goal objectives , a schedule with defined start and end dates, and a budget that sets limits on the use of monetary human resources.

Question 114

Series of tasks and activities that has a stated goal objectives , a schedule with defined start and end dates, and a budget that sets limits on the use of monetary human resources.

Answer 114

Project

Question 115

Quantitative analysis

Answer 115

Seeks to obtain easily quantifiable data on a limited number of measurement points. Collects and analyzes numerical data in a descriptive or inferential manner. Uses: describe group, compare results, identify trends or commonalities Ex: charts and graphs, statistical measures, regression analysis

Question 116

Regression analysis

Answer 116

Statistical method used to predict a variable from one or more predictor variables. Determines: - whether a relationship exists between variables - the strength of the relationship A causal relationship exists when two variables are related in some way; conditions: - The has to be evidence of association - The dependent variable has to change in a consistent way after the independent variable has changed - All other possible causes for the change have to be eliminated

Question 117

Scatter diagram

Answer 117

Diagram that shows the relationship between data items using x and y axes.

Question 118

Return on investment

Answer 118

(ROI) Ratio of incremental value (value received minus cost to create value) of an investment / cost of investment multiplied by 100%; measures the economic return on a project investment. - ROI focuses on fewer and more tangible costs and results - shows efficiency with which the organization uses resources available for investment (enough value to be worthwhile?) - Presents data as percentage - "hurdle rate" is minimum ROI organization requires form projected investments.

Question 119

Short-term objective

Answer 119

Milestones that must be achieved, usually within six months to a year, in order to reach long-term objectives.

Question 120

Strategic business management

Answer 120

Processes and activities used to formulate HR objectives, practices, and policies.

Question 121

Strategic planning

Answer 121

Process that helps an organization focus on how to succeed in the future by evaluating the organization's current status, where it would like to be, and how to get there.

Question 122

Span of control

Answer 122

Refers to the number of individuals who report to a supervisor.

Question 123

Strategies

Answer 123

Provide the direction that enables an organization to achieve its long-term objectives.

Question 124

When the NLRA imposes a voluntary recognition bar, this means that: a. ) No election will take place for a reasonable period of time b. ) The NLRB has certified a bargaining representative. c. ) The union withdrew its petition for an election. d. ) A representation election took place within the previous 12 months.

Answer 124

a.) The NLRB imposes a voluntary recognition bar while negotiations take place between the union and an employer that voluntarily recognized the union.

Question 125

ERISA requires employers to communicate their benefits program in a. ) annual and quarterly reports b. ) the employee handbook c. ) a summary plan document d. ) company newsletter

Answer 125

c.) a summary plan document The summary plan description is an important document that tells participants what the plan provides and how it operates. It provides information on when an employee can begin to participate in the plan, how service and benefits are calculated, when benefits becomes vested, when and in what form benefits are paid, and how to file a claim for benefits. If a plan is changed, participants must be informed, either through a revised summary plan description, or in a separate document, called a summary of material modifications, which also must be given to participants free of charge.

Question 126

SWOT analysis

Answer 126

Process for evaluating an organization's current strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. Used in project or a business venture.

Question 127

Zero-based budgeting

Answer 127

Form of budgeting that requires that expenditures be justified for each new period.

Question 128

Supply chain

Answer 128

Network that delivers products and services from raw materials to end customers through an engineered flow of information, physical distribution, and cash.

Question 129

In Abraham Maslow's (1954) Hierarchy of Needs, identify five levels of needs that motivate people:

Answer 129

- Physiological needs (food, place to live) - Safety needs (safe from physical and emotional harm) - Social needs (desire for acceptance and belonging within their social group) - Esteem needs (recognition for their achievements) - Self-actualization needs (looking for opportunities to be creative and fulfill their own potential)

Question 130

Divisional Structure

Answer 130

Organizational structure in which segments are separated by product, customer or market, or region. It is more decentralized than others. HR would most likely report to the general manager of the business unit. Tendencies: * Emphasis on flexibility and adaptability to the needs * Lag in the technical quality of products and services * Difficulty in coordination across divisions.

Question 131

Functional structure

Answer 131

In functional structure, departments are defined by what services they contribute to the organization's overall mission. Tendencies: * Emphasis on quality from a technical standpoint * Rigidity (sztywnosc) in regard to change * Difficulty in coordinating the action of different functional areas

Question 132

Formalization

Answer 132

In a formalization aspect of organizational structure, individuals are expected to follow policies and procedures. There is little discretion over how to perform their work. Formalization may serve well when uniformity is imperative (ex. compliance). A general trend in organizational structure is to move away form formalization.

Question 133

What are the basic concepts of Fredrick Herzberg's Motivation / Hygiene Theory (1959) (also known as the Two-Factor Theory)

Answer 133

What makes people happy is what they do or the way they are utilized; and what people unhappy is the way they are treated. While both factors motivate workers, they each work for very different reasons. The satisfaction (motivation) factors motivate by changing the nature of the work so that people are challenged to develop their talents and fulfill their potential. Lead to longer-term job satisfaction. The dissatisfaction (hygiene) factors motivate to the extent that they allow people to avoid unpleasant experiences. Provide short-term benefits to employers.

Question 134

Most common ways to departmentalize

Answer 134

* Functional * Divisional * Matrix

Question 135

What are two types of the management styles in Douglas McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y (1960)?

Answer 135

Theory X managers have a view of employees as lazy ad uninterested in work and needing constant direction to complete their assignments. Theory X managers believe that employees do not want to take responsibility and are interested in job security above all esle. Theory X managers are generally autocratic, utilizing a "top-down" management style. In contrast, Theory Y managers believe that, given the opportunity, people will seek out challenging work and additional responsibility if the work is satisfying. Theory Y managers are more likely to invite participation in the decision making process form their subordinates.

Question 136

Which of the following has the GREATEST effect on wages and pensions? a. ) Consumer price index b. ) Amount of disposable income c. ) Trade agreement d. ) Inflation

Answer 136

c.) Inflation occurs when the supply of money is in excess of the amount of goods and services. When an oversupply of currency is created, the value of money decrease. Inflation has an immediate, direct effect on cost-of-living adjustments to wages and pension benefits.

Question 137

Which of the following statements about the global economy is NOT correct? a. ) The combined economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China may eclipse the U.S. economy by 2020 b. ) Western European economies will provide most of the economic growth in the coming decade. c. ) Global alliances among organizations will become more common. d. ) Growth in the global economy is fuel by middle class growth.

Answer 137

b.)

Question 138

Identify three levels of needs in Clayton Alderfer's ERS Theory (1969)

Answer 138

Existence (relates to Maslow's definition of physiological and safety needs as those that are required to maintain basic life needs. Relatedness (this is similar to Maslow's description of social needs and the esteem we find from others) Growth (this is based on the self-esteem and self-actualization concepts Maslow described) Alderfer's theory allows the possibility that people can work on multiple levels simultaneously. It also describes the concept of frustration-regression which occurs when an individual falls back to a lower level in frustration at the difficulty of a higher level.

Question 139

Considering technological developments, which of the following is true? a. ) Employee productivity has decreased. b. ) The cost of Internet access will increase considerably in the future c. ) Introduction of new technologies will lower the stress level of workers. d. ) Technology will allow organizations to provide 24-hour service to their customers.

Answer 139

d.) Changes in technology has altered both the structure of jobs and the structure of the organization. Technology allows organizations to provide service 24 hours a day to accommodate customers who live in all parts of the world. Social media and mobile technology allow the rapid spread of information among groups.

Question 140

Which of the following statements regarding labor forces trends is NOT correct? a. ) Lower birthdays in the 1960 and 1970s, combined with recent medical advances, will leave us with an aging workforce b. ) Generation X workers are fast becoming managers. c. ) Entry-level jobs filled by immigrants and high school dropouts will require less training in the future. d. ) An increasing number of service jobs will be created, while manufacturing jobs will decline.

Answer 140

c.) One in four U.S. workers with a bachelor's degree in science and engineering is foreign-born, and almost one of two of those doctoral degrees.

Question 141

Which of the following is the best data to refer to when designing retention strategies? a. ) Differences between Generation X and Generation Y b. ) Advances in technology c. ) Turnover trends d. ) Unemployment rates

Answer 141

c.) Turnovers indicates how frequently employees change jobs. Understanding turnovers data and trends helps an organization strategies.

Question 142

Identify three areas of David McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory (1961):

Answer 142

The premise of McClelland's acquired needs theory is that experiences acquired throughout their lives motivate people to achieve in the following areas: - Achievement. Those motivated by achievement take moderate risks to achieve their goals, respond to frequent feedback, and generally prefer to work as sole contributors or with others interested in achieving at the same level. - Affiliation. (look for acceptance within the work group and frequent interaction with coworkers or customers) - Power. (looking for either personal or institutional power, motivate by coordinating work groups to achieve goals)

Question 143

What is the basic concept of J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory (1963)?

Answer 143

The basic concept of Adams' Equity Theory is that people are consistently measuring what they put into work against what they get from work. If their perception is that it is a fair trade, they are motivate to continue contributing at the same level. When they perceive there is an imbalance and they are putting in more than they are getting back, they become demotivated and lose interest in their work, decreasing productivity and quality.

Question 144

Which of the following demographic trends is predicted? a. ) More people with disabilities will be actively recruited to enter the workforce. b. ) Dual career will decrease. c. ) Asians will become the largest minority group within the next five years. d. ) Unions will continue to focus on traditional membership sources.

Answer 144

a.) Organizations are turning toward labor force segments previously considered nontraditional in order to meet staffing requirements. Government agencies, such as welfere-to-work and disability agencies, and local nonprofits can be a valuable source of labor.

Question 145

Ratio of gross profit to net sales.

Answer 145

Gross profit margin

Question 146

The ERG Theory of Clayton P. Alderfer is a model that appeared in 1969 in a Psychological Review article entitled “An Empirical Test of a New Theory of Human Need.” What does it describe? A. Three categories of human needs that influence workers’ behavior B. To encourage and enforce proper behavior as defined by society or family C. A form of negative reinforcement that occurs when a behavior prevents an aversive stimulus from starting or being applied D. The reduction of a behavior via a stimulus which is applied ("positive punishment") or removed ("negative punishment")”

Answer 146

a. ) Clayton Alderfer ERS Theory (1969) the three factors are: - Existence - Relatedness - Growth

Question 147

For which of the following situations would a cost-benefit analysis be an effective metric? a. ) An organization want to compare its productivity with that of similar competitors. b. ) A function is seeking budget to hire new staff c. ) An investor is seeking information about a company's financial performance. d. ) An HR function wants to confirm that it is complying with legal and regulatory requirements.

Answer 147

b.) Cost-benefit analysis show the ratio of the value of an investment to its cost cost-benefit ratio = Value of projected or received benefits / Cost Can be used in deciding to make an investment based on its anticipated value, to compare alternative actions, to support budget requests, defend against possible budget cuts, compete for limited resources.

Question 148

A major reason to use a balanced scorecard to measure strategic progress is that this approach a. ) provides a more rounded assessment of the results of strategic activity. b. ) can be accomplished quickly. c. ) extends protection against legal risks to organizations. d. ) can be repeated periodically.

Answer 148

a.) The balanced scorecard provides an assessment of an organization's or unit's performance. It is designed to provide concise yet overall picture of an organization's performance as measured against goals in four areas" * Finance. * Customers. * Internal business processes * Learning and growth.

Question 149

Which of the following statements about audits is true? a. ) They must conform to certain legal restrictions. b. ) They must be completed by objective third party c. ) They must be repeated to be reliable. d. ) They can produce legal implications due to findings and subsequent actions.

Answer 149

d.) Information gathered during an audit, including the results of the audit, may be discoverable in litigation. An audit will create a record that could be discoverable and potentially damaging to the organization.

Question 150

A company requires job applicants who are applying for a position in their distribution center to take a lifting test. Test results are consistent, and the test measures what it is intended to measure. This test is considered: a. ) reliable. b. ) valid. c. ) neither reliable nor valid. d. ) both reliable and valid.

Answer 150

d.) Reliability is the ability of an instrument to measure consistently. It is also defined as the ability to repeat an experiment and obtain similar results. Validity is the ability of an instrument to measure what it is intended to measure. Validation answers two questions: * what does the instrument measure? * how ell does the instrument measure it?

Question 151

Explain Expectancy Theory (1964)

Answer 151

Victor Vroom's Expectancy Theory (1964) maintain that people are motivated by the expectations of the reward they will receive when they succeed. Individuals feel a sense of pleasure and gratification when they have completed a challenging task and therefore are generally more motivated. Vroom uses the following terms to explain this theory: Expectancy (an assessment by individuals about their capabilities) Instrumentality ("what's in it for me?") Valence (is the possible reward worth the effort?)

Question 152

Which of the following reliability measure is most useful to an organization that requires managers to participate in assessment center activities? a. ) Rater agreement b. ) Parallel forms c. ) Internal consistency d. ) Test/retest

Answer 152

a.) An assessment center (AC) is a process used in the selection of candidates for a job in an organization. It employs a variety of techniques and multiple observers in a closed setting. Inter-rater reliability is used to assess the degree to which different raters or observers give consistent estimates of the same behavior.

Question 153

Which measure of variation shows how scores are spread out around a mean? a. ) Range b. ) Percentile c. ) Standard deviation d. ) Mode

Answer 153

c.) Standard deviation shows how much the scores are spread out around the mean or average.

Question 154

Which of the following is the mean? Which of the following is the mode? Which of the following is the median? 3 5 5 5 6 7 7 8 8

Answer 154

The mean is the average score of value: 6 The mode is the value that occurs most frequently: 5 The median is the middle point above and below which 50% of the score lie: 6

Question 155

If the correlation coefficient between two numbers is +1, it means that as teh value of one variable increases, the value of teh other: a. ) increases b. ) decreases c. ) stays the same d. ) cannot be predicted

Answer 155

a.) Correlation is a measure of the relationship between two variables. Measured on a scale from +1.00 through 0.00 to -1.00. Correlation is positive (at some value between 0.00 and +1.00) when one veritable increases as the other increases. ex: the higher one's satisfaction, the higher his or her intention to remain with the organization. Correlation is negative when one decreases as the other increases. ex: The higher one's satisfaction, the lower his or her intention to quit. Complete absence of correlation is represented by 0.00.

Question 156

An HR professional send a survey to 500 of 10,000 employees. this is known as a: a. ) population. b. ) sample c. ) standard deviation d. ) normal distribution

Answer 156

b.) sample is a part of population. Random sampling is done in such a way that each member of the population is equally likely to be chosen.

Question 157

What is the primary benefit of appointing a chief ethics officer? a. ) Other managers in the organization do not have to handle ethical issues b. ) It reduces the number of employees complaints and dispute resolution sessions. c. ) Legal counsel does not need to be consulted on ethical issues. d. ) It allows for consistent communication of values and standards to the organization.

Answer 157

d.) Ombudsperson or chief ethics officer oversees the ethics function. He or she should report to the CEO and the board of the organization, should coordinate ethics training and other issues with HR. The chief ethics officer is involved with communicating standards of conduct in terms of organizational values and culture and instilling these throughout the organization.

Question 158

In light of SOX expectations of boards of directors, the following are all examples of poor practices EXCEPT: a. ) A director doe not understand the detailed accounting tactics used in structuring an executive compensation package. b. ) A fellow director sleeps through many presentations at meetings. c. ) The CEO appoints a director not because of qualification but because she is a childhood friend. d. ) A director cannot describe what the company does and how it makes its money.

Answer 158

a.) While HR should provide specialized and continuing education, it is not realistic to assume financial and accounting expertise in all board members.

Question 159

The MOST effective corporate citizenship program is one that: a. ) is tied to company's strategic plan. b. ) requires involvement of less-senior employees. c. ) has no relationship to the company's bottom line. d. ) creates visibility for the company.

Answer 159

a.) In order to build an effective Corporate Citizenship Program, the first step is to align long-term investments with the organization's strategic plan.

Question 160

Early in its session, Congress passes a bill ad sends it to the president. The president takes no action for ten days. What becomes of the bill? a. ) It is automatically dead, since it has not been signed b. ) The bill becomes law since Congress is still in session. c. ) The bill is sent back to Congress and passes if a two-thirds majority votes for it. d. ) The bill passes automatically if Congress adjourns immediately after passing it.

Answer 160

b.) After both the House and Senate have approved a bill in identical form, and if the Congress is in session and the president takes no action for ten days, the bill will automatically become law. If the Congress adjourns before the end of the ten-day period allowed for presidential action and the president takes no action, the bill has received a "pocket veto" and the legislation dies.

Question 161

You are an expatriate manager in a developing country and are having difficulty with timely shipments to the U.S. local nationals explain that customs officials will expedite shipments if they are given cash payments. Your company has a policy against offering bribes What is your best course of action? a. ) Adhere to local practice and offer cash payments to customs officials. b. ) Have a local national handle all shipping arrangements. c. ) Adhere to your company's policies and look for other solutions to your problems. d. ) Ask the company for special dispensation form corporate policies.

Answer 161

c.) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) of 1977 prohibits American companies form making corrupt payments to foreign officials for the purposes of obtaining or keeping business.

Question 162

Enterprise Management

Answer 162

Integrated processes and tools to allow information sharing and process management across functions, sometimes even with external partners, such as suppliers

Question 163

Four phases of HR role in the Merger and Acquisition (M & A) process.

Answer 163

Phase 1. Prepare HR staff for M & A activity Phase 2. Perform "due diligence." Phase 3. Plan integration Phase 4. Implement, monitor, and measurement

Question 164

Definition of Organizing

Answer 164

Organizing is one of the four management functions. Organizing is designing structure to facilitate goals that relate the human and nonhuman resources to company tasks. (ex, designing an interview process)

Question 165

Planning, one of the four management functions, encompasses:

Answer 165

Planning is studying the future and arranging how to deal with it. - Forecasting - Setting goals - Determining actions

Question 166

Four Management Functions

Answer 166

* Planning * Organizing * Directing * Controlling

Question 167

Directing

Answer 167

Directing is one of four management functions. Doing activities that ensure effective operation, including: * Management and leadership * Motivation * Employee action towards goals (ex. scheduling and conducting interviews.)

Question 168

Controlling

Answer 168

Controlling is one of the four of management functions. It is ensuring everything is carried out according to the strategic plan. (ex. Measuring recruiting efforts and effectiveness.)

Question 169

Project management

Answer 169

Skills that involve organizing and overseeing a project form start to finish.

Question 170

Characteristics of a project.

Answer 170

- A specific objective - Defined start and end date - funding or budget limits - dedicated resources

Question 171

Needs assessment / analysis.

Answer 171

Needs assessment / analysis is a tool used to evaluate program proposals to select those that will best use organization resources. It can be used in any area of business. In HR needs assessment is often employed in the areas of training and development, staffing projections, and benefit planning.

Question 172

4 Project roles

Answer 172

* Sponsor * Champion * Project Manager * Team

Question 173

Sponsor

Answer 173

Sponsor is a senior executive who support project and report progress to senior management.

Question 174

Champion

Answer 174

Champion is a "cheerleader" who communicates project benefits to the organization

Question 175

Involves data that is gathered firsthand for a specific evaluation.

Answer 175

Primary research

Question 176

Project Manager

Answer 176

Project Manager is an individual who oversees the project and takes the following roles: Interpersonal (leader and Liaison) Informational (Communicator, Information disseminator) Decisional (Conflict resolver, Resources allocator)

Question 177

Vision Statement

Answer 177

Vision statement is a vivid, guiding image of an organization's desired future.

Question 178

Ordering a bill reported

Answer 178

The House committee receives the bill back from the subcommittee and can conduct further hearings and vote on whether to recommend the bill to the House.

Question 179

Steps in Passage of a Bill

Answer 179

1. ) Referral to a committee (by sponsor) 2. ) Committee action (committee decides if the bill is likely to pass a vote) 3. ) Subcommittee review (hearings from government reps., subject matter experts, citizens) 4. ) Mark-up (Subcommittee makes changes and amendments prior to recommending the bill to the full committee) 5. ) Committee action to report a bill (may be subjected to further study or may be voted and "order the bill reported" to the House or Senate) 6. ) Publication of a written report 7. ) Scheduling of floor action 8. ) Debate 9. ) Vote 10) Referral to other chamber (House or the Senate) 11. ) Conference committee action (between House and the Senate) 12. ) Final actions (sent to the president)

Question 180

Who can draft a bill that is later proposed to a committee?

Answer 180

Anyone may draft a bill that is later proposed to a committee by a member of Congress, who becomes a sponsor.

Question 181

Amendment

Answer 181

The modification of the Constitution or a law. Modification may either by formal (written) or informal (unwritten)

Question 182

Bill

Answer 182

A proposal presented to a legislative body for possible enactment as a law.

Question 183

Public comment period

Answer 183

The time allowed for the public to express its views and concerns regarding an action of a regulatory agency.

Question 184

Quorum

Answer 184

The number of members of an organization that have to be present before official business may be conducted.

Question 185

Regulation

Answer 185

A rule or order issued by a government agency; often has the force of law. Interpretive bulletins distributed by government agencies are helpful in deciphering regulatory developments.

Question 186

Veto

Answer 186

Action of canceling or postponing a decision or bill. For example, the president of the United States may veto a bill that has been passed by Congress.

Question 187

Laws are made by..... and rules are made by.....

Answer 187

Laws are made by legislatures, and rules are made by agencies.

Question 188

Resolution

Answer 188

A legislative measure limited in effect to either the Congress or one of its chambers (Senate or the House)

Question 189

To override a veto

Answer 189

If the president vetoes a bill, Congress may attempt to override the veto. this requires a to-thirds roll-call vote of the members who are present in sufficient numbers of a quorum.

Question 190

Marking-up the bill

Answer 190

Step 4 in the creation of a Bill process. Marking-up the bill, means making changes and amendments by the subcommittee prior to recommending the bill to the full committee. Marking-up is a step after the Subcommittee Review (Step 4) and before the Committee action to report a bill or "ordering a bill reported" (Step 5)

Question 191

When does a bill automatically becomes law?

Answer 191

If the Congress is in session and the president takes no action for ten days on a proposed bill, the bill automatically become law.

Question 192

Who issues guidelines that help interpret how regulations will be enforced?

Answer 192

Regulatory agencies (EEOC, OSHA, NLRB) issue guidelines to help employers understand how to apply the regulations.

Question 193

Pocket Veto

Answer 193

If the Congress adjourns before the end of the ten-day period allowed for presidential action and the president takes no action on the proposed bill, the bill receives a "pocket veto" and the legislation dies.

Question 194

Legislative or Agency Rule Making process

Answer 194

1. ) Rule is prepared 2. ) Public comment is invited 3. ) Final rule is issued.

Question 195

Ethics

Answer 195

System of moral principles and values that establish appropriate conduct. Ethics is not synonymous with legality. Unethical actions may still be deemed legal. However, organizations today must be concerned with more than simply not breaking the law. Investors, employees, and communities all look to organizations to act both legally and ethically and to fulfill their social responsibilities by modeling ethical behavior to employees and the community at large.

Question 196

HR's Role in Ethics on a strategic level:

Answer 196

* Determining an organization's ethics policy * Determining supportive procedures and training * Creat a culture where ethics is valued and violations result in disclosure. * Conduct investigations and apply discipline when required.

Question 197

The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988

Answer 197

“Employee polygraph Protection Act 1988 - prevents employers from using lie detector tests, either for pre-employment screening or during the course of employment, employee or applicant must maintain records 3 yrs setting forth the specific activity or incident which is the basis of the testing, prohibits employer from discharging, disciplining, discriminating against employee for refusing test. Secretary of labor can assess civil penalties up to $10,000 and employee and file lawsuit.”

Question 198

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970

Answer 198

Fair Credit reporting Act 1970 - regulates collection of consumer credit information. Reporting agencies cannot retain negative information longer than Fair Credit Reporting Act stipulates. Employers must notify consumer when adverse action is taken on the basis of the reports, employee must identify where they obtained the report. Shred docs upon completion.

Question 199

Drug-Free Workplace Act

Answer 199

Drug free Workplace Act 1988 - Manufacture, distribute, possess of controlled substance prohibited. Distribute and post poster including danger and consequences. written policy that clearly states employer provides a drug-free workplace and that illegal substance abuse is not acceptable clear what drugs not acceptable and consequences for violation”

Question 200

Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)

Answer 200

Act that makes it unlawful to intercept messages in transmission, access stored information on electronic communication services, or disclose this information. To minimize the exposure under the ECPA, the employer should: - not monitor emails while in transition but rather only after they have been sent or received. - should have carefully crafted electronic communications policy - not monitor employees while they are in Web sites, but rather only after the fact to see where they were.

Question 201

What can HR do to help the organization respond to violence in the workplace:

Answer 201

HR can: * Implement testing procedures (e.g., workplace lockdowns) * Train and encourage employees to communicate /report threats or acts of physical or emotional violence * Train management to recognize triggers and act appropriately * Include victim counseling services in employee benefit programs.

Question 202

Benefits of Corporate Citizenship Program.

Answer 202

Corporate Citizenship programs: - Benefit organizations - Strengthen reputation and brand recognition - Increase employee morale - Increase consumer confidence

Question 203

Example of Conflict of Interest

Answer 203

Int he case of an HR professional, having an ownership position or consulting contract with a temporary help firm that supplies workers to the organization is an example of a conflict of interest.

Question 204

Four development phases of Corporate Citizenship Programs

Answer 204

Phase 1: Reactive corporate philanthropy (organization makes a wide variety of small charitable donations) Phase 2: Strategic contributions (with a long-term business benefit in mind, donations are focused on a limited number of chosen topics relevant to the business) Phase 3: Mainstream involvement (immediate operational business concerns; reputation and respect of employees, customers, and suppliers are the goals) Phase 4: Corporate accountability (full, open, and long-term engagement with all those having an interest in the business.)

Question 205

Potential pitfalls of a Corporate Citizenship Program

Answer 205

* Lack of common definitions * Inconsistent approaches * Poor data on the cost of contributions * Poor evaluation of what s being achieved.

Question 206

To involve employees in Corporate Citizenship Programs:

Answer 206

- Solicit employee input when selecting and revising programs - Steer clear of religious, political, or advocacy projects - Make the cause part of the culture and philosophy of the organization - genuine and in line with overall corporate behavior - Stress the benefits the program will have for the charity, for the organization, and for employees. - Provide employees with opportunities to participate as volunteers - Actively support employees participation - e.g., allow time off for employee participation in these programs. - Encourage executives to participate and model corporate citizenship - Publicize the program and its results - Recognize employee participation - Encourage employee participation on the boards of no-for-profit organizations.

Question 207

To build an effective Corporate Citizenship Program:

Answer 207

- Align long-term investments with the organization's strategic plan - Demonstrate how the program affects the bottom line - Focus on a particular cause niche - Focus on benevolent and business results - Build relationships with organizations whose won business interests are compatible with the corporation supports - Encourage employees to serve on the boards of groups the organization supports - Design the program to grow or be cut back incrementally as the business needs demand - Run the program like a business unit - Focus on the cause, not the business - Communicate results to all stakeholders

Question 208

Cost - Benefit Analysis steps:

Answer 208

Developing a cost-benefit analysis follows four basic steps: 1. ) Define objectives: - Identify desired cost-benefit ration, if applicable 2. ) Define Value and costs: - Identify all areas of potential benefits and costs. Value is the anticipated benefit of the action. 3.) Analyze data: - all non-monetary costs must be converted to monetary units - sensitivity factor is a variance in a particular factor 4,) Report analysis findings: - the greater the ratio of benefit to cost, the sounder and ore successful the actual outcome will be

Question 209

List four different Financial Measures:

Answer 209

Financial Measures * Cost-Benefit Analysis * Return on Investment (ROI) * Break-even Analysis * Financial Statement Analysis

Question 210

Cost-Benefits Analysis Process in HR department includes the following steps:

Answer 210

In HR, a cost-benefit analysis of all HR activities and programs should be completed on a regular basis, ideally once a year. 1.) Identify each program in the HR plan 2. ) Evaluate the effectiveness of each program based on: - Cost vs. projected benefits to strategic objectives - Relevance of the program to strategic objectives - Ability of line managers to execute the program - Economic risks of not executing the program 3.) Prioritize all programs accordingly and allocated staff resources.

Question 211

Process for completing an ROI analysis:

Answer 211

- Plan - Collect data - Analyze data - Report

Question 212

Primary Research

Answer 212

Primary research involves data is gathered firsthand for the specific evaluation being conducted. Methods: - Experiments - Pilot projects - Surveys/questionnaires - Focus groups - Direct observation - Testing

Question 213

Secondary research

Answer 213

Uses data already gathered by others and reported in various sources. The data may not relate directly to the current research topic but must be examined for relevance. Methods: - Historical data (e.g., HR records, census records) - Benchmarking and best-practices reports - Purchased data 9e.g., Gallup or Roper data) - Professional journals, books, and other media - Secondhand reports (e.g., "grapevine" reports)

Question 214

Inductive Reasoning (assumptions)

Answer 214

(From specific to general) - Starts looking at a set of observations and designs a rule - ex: Joe, John and Mary are top salespeople and have accounting background. Therefore fr this job accounting background indicates success.

Question 215

Deductive reasoning (assumptions)

Answer 215

(From general to specific) - Starts with a general rule and deduces specific instances - Research shows that units led by controlling managers have decreased morale. John is a controlling manager. His unit will suffer morale problems.

Question 216

Descriptive Statistics

Answer 216

Descriptive statistics are used to condense and summarize large quantities of data for quick understanding

Question 217

Types of Descriptive Statistical Data used in Quantitive Analysis

Answer 217

Descriptive Statistics * Charts and graphs * Measures of central tendency * Measures of variation * Measures of association

Question 218

Measures of central tendency

Answer 218

These measures try to describe groups of things or events by how much of a certain characteristics they have i common. Mean Mode Median

Question 219

Types of Inferential Statistical Data used in Quantitive Analysis

Answer 219

Inferential Statistics * Population * Sample * Normal distribution

Question 220

Mean

Answer 220

The mean is the average score or value

Question 221

The mode

Answer 221

The mode is the value that occurs most frequently

Question 222

The median

Answer 222

The median is the middle point (hlf-point) above and below which 50% of the score line.

Question 223

Range

Answer 223

Range is the distance between the highest and lowest scores. Numerically, the range equals the highest score minus the lowest score. ex: the data 10, 11, 12, 68, 69, and 70 yield a range of 60 (70 - 10).

Question 224

Measures of Variation

Answer 224

Measures of variation provide an indicator of variation around central tendency value. include: * Range * Percentile * Standard deviation

Question 225

Standard Daviation

Answer 225

Shows how much the scores are spread out around the mean or average. A normal distribution of data means that most of the examples are close to the average and relatively few tend to one extreme or the other.

Question 226

Percentile

Answer 226

A specific point in a distribution that has a given percentage of cases below it. ex: If you take a test ad are in the 68th percentile, you have scored better than 68% of the general test-taking population.

Question 227

List Measures of Association

Answer 227

Measures of association show the extent (magnitude) to which two or more factors (variables) are related and the nature (direction) of the relationship. Measure of association include: - scatter diagrams - correlation - regression analysis

Question 228

Correlation

Answer 228

Shows the relationship between two variables - measured on a scale from +1.00 through 0.00 to -1.00 - correlation is positive (between 0.00 and 100) when one variable increases as the other increases - correlation is negative *between 0.00 and -1.00) when variable decreases as the other increases - 0.00 represents complete absence of correlation

Question 229

When is the correlation positive?

Answer 229

The correlation is positive when one variable increases as the other increases ex: the higher one's satisfaction with their job, the higher his or her intention to remain with the organization

Question 230

When is the correlation negative?

Answer 230

The correlation is negative when one variable decreases as the other increases. ex: the higher one's satisfaction with the job, the lower his or her intention to quit.

Question 231

Population

Answer 231

A population is a complete set of persons or observations or measurements about which one wishes to draw conclusions.

Question 232

Inferential statistics

Answer 232

Allows for forming a conclusion about a characteristics of a population by studying a sample taken from that population.

Question 233

Sample

Answer 233

Part of population

Question 234

Normal Distribution

Answer 234

The normal distribution is the expected distribution given a random sampling across a large population.

Question 235

Difference between qualitative and Quantitive analysis

Answer 235

Qualitative research is best for depth, rather than breadth of information. Quantitive - ask: how many?, how much? Qualitative - asks for reasons, underlying motivations, feelings, values, attitudes, and perceptions

Question 236

Qualitative research is best used for: a.) depth or b.) breadth

Answer 236

a.) deph

Question 237

Benefits of Interviews in Qualitative Analysis.

Answer 237

* Yield insightful information * Provide opinions and reactions to events * Allows for personal connection to interviewee * Are flexible

Question 238

Cautions of Interviews in Qualitative analysis

Answer 238

* Interviewer's nonverbal actions can influence response * Interviewers should be careful not to ask leading questions * Interviewees may answer with what they thin is "right"

Question 239

Benefits of Surveys and Questionnaires in Qualitative Analysis.

Answer 239

* Interviewee anonymity * Efficient; can gather data form a large number of respondents * Standard data collection

Question 240

Cautions of Surveys and questionnaires in Qualitative Analysis

Answer 240

* surveys and questionnaires are less flexible than interviews * Low response rates could yield little data

Question 241

Reliabilty

Answer 241

Reliability is the ability of an instrument to measure consistently, It is also defined as the ability to repeat an experiment and obtain similar results. Reliability can be measured by: - Parallel forms - Test/Retest - Internal consistency - Inter-rater agreement

Question 242

Reliability can be measured by the following:

Answer 242

* Parallel forms * Test / Retest * Internal consistency * Inter-Rater agreement

Question 243

Test / Retest

Answer 243

One of the methods to test reliability . This approach measures the degree to which scores are consistent over time. One form of the test is administered to the smae audience on two separate ocassions.

Question 244

Parallel forms

Answer 244

One of the methods used to test reliability. This method uses two tests that are identical in format and general content but in which the actual items use different ways of expressing the same question. The two sets of scores are correlated.

Question 245

Internal consistency

Answer 245

One of the methods of testing reliability. The test / method is divided into two equivalent parts that are taken or performed by the same person This procedure assess the same characteristic, skill, or quality.

Question 246

Rater agreement

Answer 246

One of the methods of testing reliability. Inter-rated reliability is used to assess the degree to which different raters or observers give consistent estimates of the same behavior. It is necessary to provide training for observers / raters so the rules for rating are clear. Useful when using: - 360-degree feedback surveys or - an assessment center

Question 247

Validity

Answer 247

Ability of an instrument to measure what it is intended to measure. Answers two questions: - What does an instrument measure? - How well does the instrument measure it?

Question 248

Reliable means consistent

Answer 248

Consistent means reliable.

Question 249

A reliable or consistent instruments a.) are or b.) are not always valid

Answer 249

b.) A reliable or consistent instrument or method is NOT necessarily vaild.

Question 250

A valid instrument a.) is or b.) is not always reliable?

Answer 250

a.) a valid instrument is always reliable.

Question 251

Difference between reliable and valid

Answer 251

A reliable or consistent instrument or method is not necessarily valid. However, a valid instrument is always reliable.

Question 252

Measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by consumers for goods and services.

Answer 252

Consumer price index (CPI)

Question 253

Ability of an instrument to measure consistently.

Answer 253

Reliability

Question 254

Process to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of HR programs and positions.

Answer 254

HR audit

Question 255

Form of budgeting in which an average cost is applied to comparable expenses and general funding is changed by a specific amount.

Answer 255

Formula budgeting

Question 256

Series of tasks and activities that has a stated goal and objectives, a schedule with defined start and end dates, and a budget that sets limits on the use of monetary and human resources.

Answer 256

Project

Question 257

Sale by a company of an asset that is not performing well, that is not core to the company’s business, or that is worth more as a separate entity.

Answer 257

Divestiture

Question 258

Process for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings of goods and services to satisfy organizational objectives.

Answer 258

Marketing

Question 259

What an organization sells to make a profit.

Answer 259

Product

Question 260

Form of budgeting that requires that expenditures be justified for each new period.

Answer 260

Zero-based budgeting

Question 261

To an operations department, the ability to yield output.

Answer 261

Capacity

Question 262

Statement of a firm’s financial position at a particular time.

Answer 262

Balance sheet

Question 263

Process that helps an organization focus on how to succeed in the future by evaluating the organization’s current status, where it would like to be, and how to get there.

Answer 263

Strategic planning

Question 264

Organizational structure in which segments are separated by product, customer or market, or region.

Answer 264

Divisional structure

Question 265

To an operations department, an after-the-fact evaluation of a company’s ability to meet its own specifications and its customers’ needs.

Answer 265

Control

Question 266

Specifies what the organization does, who its customers are, and the priorities it has set in pursuing its work.

Answer 266

Mission statement

Question 267

Project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project.

Answer 267

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart

Question 268

Expected distribution given a random sampling across a large population.

Answer 268

Normal distribution

Question 269

Describe what is important to an organization, dictate employee behavior, and create the organization’s culture.

Answer 269

Values

Question 270

Degree to which decision-making authority is given to lower levels in an organization’s hierarchy.

Answer 270

Decentralization

Question 271

Money an organization’s customers owe the organization.

Answer 271

Accounts receivable

Question 272

Work groups that assist line units by providing specialized services, such as HR.

Answer 272

Staff units

Question 273

Form of budgeting in which the prior budget is the basis for allocation of funds.

Answer 273

Incremental budgeting

Question 274

Principles of conduct within an organization that guide decision making and behavior.

Answer 274

Code of ethics

Question 275

Vivid, guiding image of an organization’s desired future.

Answer 275

Vision statement

Question 276

Group of people born after 1980.

Answer 276

Generation Y

Question 277

Integrated processes and tools to allow information sharing and process management across functions, sometimes even with external partners, such as suppliers.

Answer 277

Enterprise management

Question 278

Combination of two separate firms either by their joining together as relative equals (merger) or by one acquiring the other (acquisition).

Answer 278

Mergers and acquisitions (M&A)

Question 279

Money an organization owes its vendors and suppliers.

Answer 279

Accounts payable

Question 280

Prohibits American companies from making corrupt payments to foreign officials for the purpose of obtaining or keeping business.

Answer 280

Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

Question 281

Ratio of incremental value (value received minus cost to create value) of an investment to its cost multiplied by 100%; measures the economic return on a project or investment.

Answer 281

Return on investment (ROI)

Question 282

Legislative measure limited in effect to either the Congress or one of its chambers.

Answer 282

Resolution

Question 283

Alliance between organizations to create processes and information channels that allow communication and collaboration.

Answer 283

Extended organization

Question 284

Network that delivers products and services from raw materials to end customers through an engineered flow of information, physical distribution, and cash.

Answer 284

Supply chain

Question 285

That part of an organization charged with designing and developing products, processes, and services to meet market needs.

Answer 285

Research and development (R&D)

Question 286

For an operations department, provide the yardstick by which the amount and quality of output are measured.

Answer 286

Standards

Question 287

Detailed steps a unit, department, or team will take in order to achieve short-term objectives.

Answer 287

Action plans

Question 288

Business function responsible for selling an organization’s product to the marketplace.

Answer 288

Sales

Question 289

Ratio of gross profit to net sales.

Answer 289

Gross profit margin

Question 290

Process that involves a systematic survey and interpretation of relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats.

Answer 290

Environmental scanning

Question 291

Ability of an instrument to measure what it is intended to measure.

Answer 291

Validity

Question 292

Organizational structure that combines departmentalization by division and function to gain the benefits of both.

Answer 292

Matrix structure

Question 293

Processes and activities used to formulate HR objectives, practices, and policies.

Answer 293

Strategic business management

Question 294

Degree to which decision-making authority is restricted to higher levels of management in an organization.

Answer 294

Centralization

Question 295

Act that makes it unlawful to intercept messages in transmission, access stored information on electronic communication services, or disclose this information.

Answer 295

Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)

Question 296

Number of members of an organization that have to be present before official business may be conducted.

Answer 296

Quorum

Question 297

Average score or value in a set of data.

Answer 297

Mean

Question 298

Amount of owners’ or shareholders’ portion of a business.

Answer 298

Equity

Question 299

Involves data that is gathered firsthand for a specific evaluation.

Answer 299

Primary research

Question 300

Serve a purpose similar to short-term objectives but are completed in one to three years.

Answer 300

Mid-term objectives

Question 301

Ratio of net income (gross sales minus expenses and taxes) to net sales.

Answer 301

Net profit margin

Question 302

Process of conducting an intensive investigation of an organization as one of the first steps in a pending merger or acquisition.

Answer 302

Due diligence

Question 303

Provide the direction that enables an organization to achieve its long-term objectives.

Answer 303

Strategies

Question 304

Specific point in a distribution of data that has a given percentage of cases below it.

Answer 304

Percentile

Question 305

Organizational structure that defines departments by what services they contribute to the organization’s overall mission.

Answer 305

Functional structure

Question 306

Statistical method used to predict a variable from one or more predictor variables.

Answer 306

Regression analysis

Question 307

Way an organization groups jobs to coordinate work.

Answer 307

Departmentalization

Question 308

Analysis that shows point in time at which total revenue associated with a program is equal to the total cost of the program.

Answer 308

Break-even analysis

Question 309

Portion of a population used to draw conclusions regarding an entire population.

Answer 309

Sample

Question 310

Group of people born roughly between the years of 1965 and 1980.

Answer 310

Generation X

Question 311

Seeks to obtain easily quantifiable data on a limited number of measurement points.

Answer 311

Quantitative analysis

Question 312

Estimate of the total value of goods and services produced in a country in a given year.

Answer 312

Gross domestic product (GDP)

Question 313

To an operations department, the act of detailed planning; based upon incoming orders, order history, and forecasts of future demand.

Answer 313

Scheduling

Question 314

Middle point above and below which 50% of scores in a set of data lie.

Answer 314

Median

Question 315

Quantifiable measures of performance used to gauge progress toward strategic objectives or agreed standards of performance.

Answer 315

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 316

Statement comparing revenues, expenses, and profits over a specified period of time, usually a year or a quarter.

Answer 316

Income statement

Question 317

Record of how much cash is flowing into and out of an organization, including its sources or destinations.

Answer 317

Cash flow statement

Question 318

Refers to the number of individuals who report to a supervisor.

Answer 318

Span of control

Question 319

To an operations department, an organization’s major asset after physical buildings and equipment.

Answer 319

Inventory

Question 320

Based on research that supplies non-numeric data, for example, through the use of interviews, open-ended survey questions, and other methods that gather attitudes, opinions, and feelings.

Answer 320

Qualitative analysis

Question 321

Design of formal systems in an organization that ensure the effective and efficient use of human capital to accomplish organizational goals.

Answer 321

Human resource management (HRM)

Question 322

Group of persons or objects or a complete set of observations or measurements about which one wishes to draw conclusions.

Answer 322

Population

Question 323

Ratio of value created to cost of creating that value; allows management to determine the financial impact particular activities and programs have on an organization’s profitability.

Answer 323

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 324

Measure that indicates how much scores in a set of data are spread out around a mean or average.

Answer 324

Standard deviation

Question 325

Action of canceling or postponing a decision or bill

Answer 325

Veto .

Question 326

Techniques for communicating information about products to consumers.

Answer 326

Promotion

Question 327

Project planning tool that graphically displays activities of a project in sequential order and plots them against time.

Answer 327

Gantt chart

Question 328

Work groups that conduct the major business of an organization.

Answer 328

Line units

Question 329

Combined knowledge, skills, and experience of a company’s employees.

Answer 329

Human capital

Question 330

Measure that indicates the relationship between two variables.

Answer 330

Correlation

Question 331

Value that occurs most frequently in a set of data.

Answer 331

Mode

Question 332

Time allowed for the public to express its views and concerns regarding an action of a regulatory agency.

Answer 332

Public comment period

Question 333

Process for evaluating an organization’s current strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Answer 333

SWOT analysis

Question 334

Calculations designed to describe an organization’s financial health and performance from various perspectives.

Answer 334

Financial ratios

Question 335

Measurement approach that provides an overall picture of an organization’s performance as measured against goals in finance, customers, internal business processes, and learning and growth.

Answer 335

Balanced scorecard

Question 336

Systematic tool for gathering, storing, maintaining, retrieving, and revising HR data.

Answer 336

Human resource information system (HRIS)