BS SOP 1

Question 1

Normal landing flap setting is?

Answer 1

Is determined after reviewing is flight landing performance calculations

Question 2

Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?

Answer 2

PF, during Preflight Procedure

Question 3

The standard call in the event of a Passenger

Evacuation is:

Answer 3

This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits. This call is to be repeated once.

Question 4

When using LNAV/VNAV minima, cold temperature altitude corrections are NOT applied to:

Answer 4

Altitudes from the FAF to the MAPT.

Question 5

The standard callout at 500ft AAL on an ILS Cat1 approach is:

Answer 5

‘500 continue or 500 go-around

Question 6

The landing gate requires one to be fully stabilised:

Answer 6

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1000ft (IMC) (ILS approaches)

Question 7

During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is normally started:

Answer 7

When the load sheet arrives

Question 8

If a No Engine Bleeds Takeoff is planned.

Answer 8

It is necessary to cover this fact in the takeoff brief

Question 9

During the Descent and Approach preparation, the PF becomes PM whilst briefing. He selects, among other items; Vref and Autobrake setting?

Answer 9

TRUE

Question 10

An APV approach would be flown to which minima?

Answer 10

LNAV/VNAV

Question 11

Visual Approaches are:

Answer 11

Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The
Ten Mile Rule (Flaps 1) also applies

Question 12

How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed source?

Answer 12

1min

Question 13

Self-manoeuvring Night Time Visual approaches below the MSA are:

Answer 13

Prohibited

Question 14

What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through

FL200, 300 & 400?

Answer 14

Pressurization is normal

Question 15

What does the PF do after the PM calls approaching descent during a V/S NPA?

Answer 15

PF sets MDA and calls XXX feet set after verifying ALT HOLD

Question 16

The PF completes the Before Taxi Procedure and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the MFD.

Answer 16

This is correct as the Pop up feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure

Question 17

When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

Answer 17

PF Set STD, passing FLXXX climbing

FLXXX

Question 18

When is the gear down and flaps 15 selected during a

NPA using VNAV?

Answer 18

At 4 or 5 nm (VMC/IMC) to the Runway

Question 19

In the case of an engine failure after V1, the procedure is to:

Answer 19

Climb straight ahead unless there is an

Emergency Turn

Question 20

If the LNAV/VNAV minima published on the chart is

350ft, what minima is to be set on the PFD (assuming no cloud temperature corrections needed)?

Answer 20

350ft (no addition required)

Question 21

Night time Circle to land manoeuvres are:

Answer 21

Permitted provided there are operable

PAPI/VASI on the landing runway

Question 22

How must an approach using LNAV/VNAV Minima be flown?

Answer 22

LNAV as the lateral mode, VNAV as the vertical mode

Question 23

The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the instrument X-check?

Answer 23

FALSE

Question 24

The minimum brake accumulator pressure with the hydraulics pressurized should be?

Answer 24

2800 PSI

Question 25

Electric HYD pumps may be switched ON, for the exterior walk around, while refueling is in progress?

Answer 25

Yes, but only if ground personnel are clear of the towbar or the bypass pin is installed

Question 26

Who completes the Exterior Inspection?

Answer 26

The PM

Question 27

Who Gives the Cabin Crew seats for landing PA?

Answer 27

PM

Question 28

Which pilot calls the OM check first?

Answer 28

PF

Question 29

Which annotation on the flight plan denotes approval for RNP approach procedures?

Answer 29

PBN S1 or S2

Question 30

Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?

Answer 30

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

Question 31

What Cost Index (CI) is to be entered in the FMC pre- flight?

Answer 31

Flight Plan specified Cost Index

Question 32

The Crossfeed valve is checked for correct operation on the first flight of the day for each crew?

Answer 32

TRUE

Question 33

Which of the following RNAV procedures is Ryanair approved to conduct?

Answer 33

RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS)

Question 34

Entering the runway the Fixed Landing lights are placed ON. When are the Retractable lights turned ON?

Answer 34

When cleared for takeoff

Question 35

During Taxi in and Taxi out:

Answer 35

Only essential Safety PAs are permitted

Question 36

The V1 aural call on takeoff must:

Answer 36

Be complete by V1

Question 37

The 'Outer Marker standard call on approach is:

Answer 37

' O u t e r M a r k e r, X X X f e e t , F l a g s / N o Flags (PF challenge); Altitude Checks, No Flags

Question 38

Ideally, Continuous Descent Approaches will be used on:

Answer 38

All approaches except V/S NPA

Question 39

Are you allowed to fly direct to the Final Approach Fix on an RNAV Approach?

Answer 39

No

Question 40

In the event of an engine failure at V1 where an Emergency Turn (ETP Type 1) is required, what are the parameters that must be flown?

Answer 40

Accelerate and maintain V2 (magenta bug) | and limit bank angle to 15 during the turn

Question 41

The Briefing part of RIBETS must always include:

Answer 41

The Runway for departure

Question 42

If the autoland proceeds normally after passing 50ft radio minimums, the F/O calls?

Answer 42

Nothing until the speed brakes deploys

Question 43

The NAV lights should be ON:

Answer 43

When AC power is connected to the airplane electrical busses

Question 44

Which statement is correct with regard to MCP altitude changes following an ATC instruction?

Answer 44

PF resets MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with MCP selector and calls set

Question 45

When should the PF Bug Up on a standard departure using NADP2?

Answer 45

at 1000ft AAL

Question 46

The FLT ALT Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?

Answer 46

To the published cruising level from the | LIDO flight plan

Question 47

On departure, when may crews fly at more than 250kts below FL100?

Answer 47

Only if youre within Class A, B or C airspace, have been instructed free speed by ATC and are progressing on the course of your intended route

Question 48

The Approach Procedure (scanflow) prior to the | Approach Checklist, is which of the following?

Answer 48

Frequencies, Range Rings, Idents, SBYs and Courses

Question 49

The initial welcoming PA to passengers boarding:

Answer 49

Must be done by the Captain prior to pushback

Question 50

When setting minima on the PFD for an RNAV Approach to LNAV minima, what adition is made to the MDA?

Answer 50

+40 ft

Question 51

During a Non Precision Approach using VNAV, at what point is the missed approach altitude set?

Answer 51

The missed approach altitude is set at | 1000ft AAL

Question 52

During hours of low visibitlity, for the Exterior Inspection (walkaround):

Answer 52

If the ramp is lit by Halogen lights, there is no need to use a flashlight

Question 53

Maximum taxi speed on the apron is:

Answer 53

15 kts

Question 54

During the takeoff roll, the lower DU is blank. The PM checks N1 against target value, checks EGT's for exceedance and calls?

Answer 54

Takeoff thrust set, indications normal

Question 55

Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?

Answer 55

The PF during Prelininary Flight Deck | Preparation