Breast Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

define breast triple assessment

A

Women (and men) can be referred to this ‘one stop’ clinic by their GP if they have signs or symptoms that meet the breast cancer “2 week wait” referral criteria, or if there has been a suspicious finding on their routine breast cancer screening mammography.

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2
Q

what are the main types of imaging used for the breast?

A

Mammography involves compression views of the breast across two views (oblique and craniocaudal), allowing for the detection mass lesions or microcalcifications.
Ultrasound scanning is more useful in women <35 years and in men, due to the density of the breast tissue in identifying anomalies. This form of imaging is also routinely used during core biopsie

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3
Q

when is MRI used?

A

lobular breast cancers

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4
Q

how is a biopsy used?

A

differentiation between invasive and invasive in situ
grading and staging

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5
Q

how is the triple assessment used?

A

at each stage of assessment - suspicicion for malignancy graded
Examination Score Imaging Score Histology Score
P1 – Normal M1 / U1 – Normal B1 – Normal
P2 – Benign M2 / U2 – Benign B2 – Benign
P3 – Uncertain/likely benignM3 / U3 – Uncertain/likely benign B3 – Uncertain, probably benign
P4 – Suspicious of malignancy M4 / U4 – Suspicious of malignancy B4 – Suspicious of malignancy
P5 – Malignant M5 / U5 – Malignant B5 – Malignant

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6
Q

define lactation

A

copious, bilateral, multi-ductal, milky discharge, not associated with pregnancy or lactation

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7
Q

how is lactated controlled?

A

prolactin release produced and secreted from anterior pituitary
dopamine inhibits prolactin release
TRH and oestrogen stimulate the release

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8
Q

what are the most common cause of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Idiopathic, occurring in around 40% cases
Pituitary Adenoma, whereby benign tumours of the pituitary gland can secrete excessive prolactin hormone, often termed prolactinomas
Drug-Induced, with medications such as SSRIs, anti-psychotics, or H2-antagonists all stimulating prolactin release
Neurological, whereby neurogenic pathways are activated to inhibit dopamine levels, such as varicella zoster infection or spinal cord injury
Hypothyroidism, as elevated thyrotropin-releasing hormone can also stimulate prolactin related.
Cushing’s disease, Acromegaly, and Addison’s disease have also been associated with the condition.
Renal failure or liver failure
Damage to the pituitary stalk, leading to reduced dopamine inhibition to the pituitary, from surgical resection, multiple sclerosis, sarcoidosis, or tuberculosis

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9
Q

what is the causes of normoprolactinaemic galactorrhoea?

A

idiopathic

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10
Q

what are the clinical fx of galactorrhoea?

A

must be differentiated from alternative nipple discharge
any other sx - reast lumps, mastalgia, and their last menstrual period, to assess for potential underlying causes or an alternative diagnosis. Ask about features of endocrine disease and for neurological symptoms (headaches, visual disturbances
drug HX - contraception, OTC, recreational drug use
breast exam usually unremarkable
any visual images - compressive pituitary masses or features of hypothyroidism

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11
Q

which investigations are required for galactorrhoea?

A

exclude pregnancy
serum prolactin levels
complete thyroid functions, LFTS, renal function tests
endocrine tests - IGF-1, ACTH
MRI test with contrast if pituitary tumour is suspected

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12
Q

how is galactorrhoea managed?

A

dopamine agonist therapy - caberoline
neurosurgery - trans-phenoidal surgery
bilateral total duct excision

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13
Q

why might men have mastalgia?

A

gynaecomastia

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14
Q

what are the types of mastalgia?

A

cyclical pain, which is defined as pain associated with the menstrual cycle. Typically, cyclical pain affects both breasts, beginning a few days before the beginning of menstruation and subsiding at the end. It is caused by hormonal changes, therefore most cases come in those actively menstruating or using HRT.

Around a third of mastalgia is non-cyclical pain is unrelated to the menstrual cycle. It can be caused by medication, including hormonal contraceptives, anti-depressants (such as sertraline), or antipsychotic drugs (such as haloperidol). Other causes of breast pain can be extramammary pain, such as chest wall pain or shoulder pain.

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15
Q

what other sx should be asked in relation to mastalgia?

A

lumps, skin changes, fevers, or discharge, as well as association with menstrual cycle. Ensure to as about drug history, breast-feeding, pregnancies, previous medical history, and family history.

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16
Q

which investigations are required for mastalgia?

A

Breast pain in isolation with no other relevant features on history or examination is not an indication for imaging. All patients within reproductive age should have a pregnancy test

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17
Q

how is mastalgia managed?

A

underyling cause treated
reassurance and pain control
cyclical - better fitting bra or soft support at night
non cyclical pain not usually respond to analgesia
refferal to specialist - danazol - anti gonadotrophin agent

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18
Q

define mastitis

A

inflammation of the breast tissue, both acute or chronic. By far the most common cause is from infection, typically through S. Aureus, but can occasionally be granulomatous

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19
Q

how can mastitis be classified?

A

Lactational mastitis (more common) is seen in up to a third of breastfeeding women; it usually presents during the first 3 months of breastfeeding or during weaning
It is associated with cracked nipples and milk stasis (often caused by poor feeding technique), and is more common with the first child
Non-lactational mastitis (less common) can also occur, especially in women with other conditions such as duct ectasia, as a peri-ductal mastitis
Tobacco smoking is an important risk factor, causing damage to the sub-areolar duct walls and predisposing to bacterial infection

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20
Q

what are the clinical fx for mastitis?

A

h tenderness, swelling or induration, and erythema

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21
Q

how is mastitis managed?

A

abx and analgesia
if lactational - continue milk drainage or feeding
use dopamine agonist

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22
Q

define breast abscess

A

collection of pus within the breast lined with granulation tissue, most commonly developing from acute mastitis.

They present with tender fluctuant and erythematous masses, with a puncutum potentially present. Associated systemic symptoms include fever and lethargy. A suspected abscess can be confirmed via an ultrasound scan

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23
Q

define breast cysts

A

epithelial lined fluid-filled cavities, which form when lobules become distended due to blockage, usually in the perimenopausal

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24
Q

what are the clinical fx of breast cysts?

A

singularly or with multiple lumps
distinct smooth masses

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25
Q

which investigations are required for breast cysts?

A

halo shape on mammogram
definitively diagnosed with USS
aspirated - if fluid is free not cancer

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26
Q

how are breast cysts managed?

A

no management required
larger cysts can be aspirated

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27
Q

what are the complications of breast cysts?

A

carcinoma at presentation (2%) or at greater risk in future
may develop fibroadenosis caused by multiple small cysts and fibrotic areas
analgesia
cyclical pain - high dose gamolenic acid

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28
Q

define mammary duct ectasia

A

dilation and shortening of the major lactiferous ducts. It is a common presentation in peri-menopausal women, with 40% of women having significant duct dilatation by 70yrs

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29
Q

what are the clinical fx of duct ectasia?

A

green/yellow discharge
palpable mass
nipple retraction

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30
Q

what if discharge is blood?

A

triple assessment

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31
Q

which investigations are required for duct ecstasia?

A

mammogram - dilated calcified ducts
multiple plasma cells on histology

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32
Q

how is duct ecstasia managed?

A

conservatively
unremitting nipple discharge can be treated with duct excision

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33
Q

define fat necrosis

A

cute inflammatory response in the breast, leading to ischaemic necrosis of fat lobules.

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34
Q

what are the causes of fat necrosis?

A

It is often referred to as traumatic fat necrosis due to its association with trauma, however blunt trauma to the breast is only implicated in 40% cases, with previous surgical or radiological intervention making up the remaining proportion

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35
Q

what are the clinical fx of fat necrosis?

A

usually asx or as lump
can present with fluid discharge, skin dimpling, pain and nipple inversion.

The acute inflammatory response can persist, causing a chronic fibrotic change (Fig. 3) that can subsequently develop into a solid irregular lump

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36
Q

which investigations are required for fat necrosis?

A

positive trauma history and/or hyperechoic mass on USS

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37
Q

how is fat necrosis managed?

A

self limiting
analgesia

38
Q

define fibroadenoma

A

proliferations of stromal and epithelial tissue of the duct lobules.

39
Q

how do fibroadenomas appear on examination?

A

highly movile
well define and rubbery
less than 5cm
multiple and bilateral

40
Q

what are the indications for fibroadenoma surgery?

A

more than 3cm or patient preference

41
Q

define adenoma

A

benign glandular tumour, typically occurring in the older female population. The lesions themselves are nodular and can easily mimic malignancy

42
Q

define papilloma

A

benign breast lesion that usually occur in females in their 40-50yrs, most typically occurring in the subareolar region (usually less than 1cm away from the nipple).

They will often present with bloody or clear nipple discharge, yet larger papillomas can also present initially as a mass.

They can appear similar to ductal carcinomas on imaging and therefore usually require biopsy
Risk of breast cancer is only increased with multi-ductal papilloma and most are treated with microdochectomy

43
Q

define lipoma

A

soft and mobile benign adipose tumour
asx
low malignant potential
can grow

44
Q

define phyllodes tumours

A

are fibroepithelial tumours. Phyllodes tumours are commonly larger, occur in an older age group, and are comprised of both epithelial and stromal tissue. They often grow rapidly.

They are difficult to clinically and microscopically differentiate from fibroadenomas, however around one third of Phyllodes tumours have malignant potential and 10% of benign tumours will recur after excision. Consequently, most Phyllodes tumours should be widely excised (or mastectomy if the lesion is large).

45
Q

define gynaecomastia

A

males develop breast tissue due to an imbalanced ratio of oestrogen and androgen activity. It is usually a benign disease but breast cancer can develop in about 1% of case

46
Q

what is the pathophysiology behind gynaecomastia?

A

most commonly occurs in adolescence, resulting from the delayed testosterone surge relative to oestrogen at puberty. Less commonly it occurs in the older population, secondary to decreasing testosterone levels with increasing age.

47
Q

what are the causes of pathological gynaecomastia

A

Lack of testosterone
Causes include Klinefelter’s syndrome, androgen insensitivity, testicular atrophy, or renal disease
Increased oestrogen levels
Causes include liver disease, hyperthyroidism, obesity, adrenal tumours, or certain testicular tumours (e.g. Leydig’s cell tumours)
Medication*
Common causative agents include digoxin, metronidazole, spironolactone, chemotherapy, goserelin, antipsychotics, or anabolic steroids
Idiopathic

48
Q

what are the clinical fx of gynaecosmastia?

A

insidious onset
rubbery or firm mass starting from underneath nipple and spreads outwards
requires testicular exam

49
Q

what are the ddx for gynaecomastia?

A

psuedogynaecomastia, adipose tissue in the breast region associated with being overweight

50
Q

how is gynacosmastia investigated?

A

if malignancy suspected - triple assessment
if cause unknown - liver and renal function, hromone reofile - LH and testosterone
LH high and testosterone low = testicular failure
LH low and testosterone low = increased oestrogen
LH high and testosterone high = androgen resistance or gonadotrophin-secreting malignancy

51
Q

how is gynaecomastia managed?

A

depends on cause
reassurance
tamoxifen to allieve sx
surgery if medical tx has failed

52
Q

how is gynaecomastia managed?

A

depends on cause
reassurance
tamoxifen to allieve sx
surgery if medical tx has failed

53
Q

how is gynaecomastia managed?

A

depends on cause
reassurance
tamoxifen to allieve sx
surgery if medical tx has failed

54
Q

define breast carcinoma in situ

A

neoplasms that are contained within the breast ducts and have not spread into the surrounding breast tissue.

These carcinoma types represent a precursor to invasive breast cancer

55
Q

define breast carcinoma in situ

A

neoplasms that are contained within the breast ducts and have not spread into the surrounding breast tissue.

These carcinoma types represent a precursor to invasive breast cancer

56
Q

define breast carcinoma in situ

A

neoplasms that are contained within the breast ducts and have not spread into the surrounding breast tissue. contained within basement membrane

These carcinoma types represent a precursor to invasive breast cancer

57
Q

how is DCIS categorised?

A

comedo, cribriform, micropapillary, papillary, and solid types, however most lesions are mixed

58
Q

how is DCIS investigated?

A

screening
microcalcifications on mammography

59
Q

how is DCIS managed?

A

surgical excision - wide local excision or mastectomy

60
Q

define DCIS

A

malignancy of the ductal tissue of the breast that is contained within the basement membrane

61
Q

define LCIS

A

non-invasive lesion of the secretory lobules of the breast that is contained within the basement membrane
individuals with LCIS are at greater risk of developing an invasive breast malignancy. LCIS is usually diagnosed before menopause

62
Q

which investigations are required for LCIS?

A

usually asx - incidental finding during biopsy

63
Q

how is LCIS manged?

A

monitoring
less likely to have axillary nodal metastasis compared to DCIS
bilateral prophylactic masectomy indicated if possess BRCA1/2

64
Q

what is the risk of carcinoma of the breast

A

1 in 7 in females

65
Q

how can invasive carcinomas be classified?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma (70-80%)
Invasive lobular carcinoma (5-10%)
Other subtypes, such as medullary carcinoma, invasive micropapillary carcinoma, or metaplastic carcinoma

66
Q

define IDC

A

most common type of breast carcinoma, constituting 70-80% of all cases. Microscopically, IDC is composed of nests and cords of tumour cells with associated gland formation

67
Q

define ILC

A

second most common type of breast cancer, constituting 5-10% of all invasive breast cancers and is more common in older women. It is characterised by a diffuse (stromal) pattern of spread that makes detection more difficult. By the time of diagnosis, tumours can often be large.

68
Q

what are the risk fx of invasive carcinoma?

A

female
increased age - risk doubles every 10 yrs until menopause
family hx
BRCA1/2
exposure to unopposed oestrogens - early menarche, late menopause, nullparity, use of HRT
previous benign disease
obesity
alcohol
smoking
geographic variation

69
Q

what are the clinical fx of invasive carcinoma?q

A

symptomatically or asymptomatically via screening.

Clinical features may include breast or axillary lump(s), asymmetry, or swelling, abnormal nipple discharge, nipple retraction, skin changes (dimpling/peau d’orange, or Paget’s-like nipple changes) and mastalgia.

70
Q

which investigations are required for invasive carcinoma?

A

triple assessment

71
Q

what is the prognosis of invasive carcinoma?

A

nodal status, size, grade, and receptor status.

The Nottingham Prognostic Index (NPI)* is a widely used clinicopathological staging system for primary breast cancer prognosis. It is calculated by:

(Size x 0.2) + Nodal Status + Grade

Size is the diameter of the lesion in cm, nodal status is number of axillary lymph nodes involved (0 nodes=1, 1-4 nodes=2, >4 nodes=3), and the histological grade is based on Bloom-Richardson classification

72
Q

what are all breast malignancies checked for?

A

checked for their expression of Oestrogen Receptor (ER), Progesterone Receptor (PR), and Human Epidermal growth factor Receptor (HER2). The presence or absence of these receptors determines suitability of targeted adjuvant therapies (including endocrine and monoclonal antibody therapies).

The pattern of receptor expression (and the broader treatment options available in receptor positive disease) has implications on cancer prognosis. Tumours that are negative for all three receptors are associated with a poorer prognosis.

72
Q

what are all breast malignancies checked for?

A

checked for their expression of Oestrogen Receptor (ER), Progesterone Receptor (PR), and Human Epidermal growth factor Receptor (HER2). The presence or absence of these receptors determines suitability of targeted adjuvant therapies (including endocrine and monoclonal antibody therapies).

The pattern of receptor expression (and the broader treatment options available in receptor positive disease) has implications on cancer prognosis. Tumours that are negative for all three receptors are associated with a poorer prognosis.

73
Q

what is the breast screening programme?

A

women aged 50-71yrs to have a mammogram every three years; any abnormalities identified will be referred to breast clinic for triple assessment

74
Q

define paget’s disease of the nipple

A

persistent roughening, scaling, ulcerating or eczematous change to the nipple. The vast majority of Paget’s (85-88%) will also have an underlying neoplasm, either in-situ or invasive disease, and it is associated with 1-3% of all cases of breast cancer.
microscopically - involved epidermis
malignant cells migrate from ducts to nipple surface or the cells of nipple

75
Q

what are the clinical fx of paget’s disease?

A

itching or redness in the nipple and/or areola, with flaking and thickened skin on or around the nipple
painful and sensitive
A flattened nipple, with or without yellowish or bloody discharge, may also be indicative of the disease

76
Q

what are the ddx for paget’s disease?

A

dermatitis or eczem
p.d always affects the nipple and only involves the areola as a secondary event, whilst eczema nearly always only involves the areola and spares the nipple.

77
Q

what are the investigations and management of paget’s disease?

A

biopsy to confirm diagnosis
breast and axilla exam
mamogram, USS, MRI
operative - nipple and areola and radiotherapy

78
Q

what are the breast conserving surgical options?

A

Wide Local Excision (WLE) is the most common breast conserving treatment and involves excision of the tumour, typically ensuring a 1cm margin

79
Q

what is masectomy?

A

removes all the tissue of the affected breast, along with a significant portion of the overlying skin (the muscles of the chest wall left intact). The amount of skin that is excised is often dependent on whether a reconstruction is planned.

Mastectomies are indicated in cases of multifocal disease, high tumour:breast tissue ratio, disease recurrence, or patient choice

80
Q

what is axillary surgery?

A

alongside WLE and mastectomies, in order to assess nodal status and remove any nodal disease

A sentinel node biopsy involves removing first lymph nodes into which the tumour drains. The nodes are identified by injecting a blue dye with associated radioisotope into the peri-areolar skin; radioactivity detection and / or visual assessment (as the nodes become blue) can then identify the sentinel nodes, which can be removed and sent for histological analysis.

81
Q

what are the common complications of axillary surgery?

A

paraesthesia, seroma formation, and lymphedema in the upper limb

82
Q

define risk reducing mastectomy

A

operation to remove healthy breast tissue in order to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer.

Risk-reducing mastectomy is only suitable for patients with a high risk of developing breast cancer and requires appropriate counseling to reach this difficult decision. In cases of suspected genetic risks, then patients are often referred to a genetic counsellor.

83
Q

what are the indications for a risk reducing mastectomy?

A

A strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer
Testing positive for genetic mutations, such as BRCA1 or BRCA2, PTEN, or TP53 mutations
Previous history of breast cancer

84
Q

when is hormal tx used

A

malignant non met disease

85
Q

when is tamoxifen used?

A

pre menopausal
blocks oestrogen receptors - prophylactic against breast cancer
increases risk of thromboembolism and uterine carcinoma

86
Q

when is aromatase inhibitors?

A

anastrazole -
inhibits action of aromatase which normally converts androgens into oestrogens reducing oestrogen production and suppressing breast tumour tissue
for post menopasual pts
superior but more expensivr than temoxifen

87
Q

when can immunotherapy be used?

A

whose cancers express specific growth factor receptors - HER-2 positive with herceptin is a monocloncal antibody that targets

88
Q

what is oncoplastic management?

A

breast-conserving surgery or to reconstruct the breast following mastectomy.

89
Q

define therapeutic mammoplasty

A

WLE combined with a breast reduction technique.

The end-result is a smaller and uplifted breast, with the nipple and areola preserved along with their blood supply and the nipple relocated to suit the new breast.

90
Q

define flap formation

A

A Latissimus Dorsi flap involves a portion of the Latissimus Dorsi muscle and its overlying skin used to reconstruct the removed breast, either as a free or pedicle flap. Only a certain amount of muscle can be used and so this technique is only useful for reconstructing smaller breasts.

A Transverse Rectus Abdominal Muscle (TRAM) flap involves the abdominal muscle, skin, and fat to reconstruct the removed breast, also either as a free or pedicle flap. This has the benefit of removing abdominal fat but the disadvantage of reducing abdominal muscle strength.

A Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator (DIEP) flap uses tissue from the abdomen and its overlying skin to reconstruct the breast, yet is only ever performed as a free flap. The advantage of the DIEP flap is that, unlike the TRAM flap, no muscle is used therefore abdominal muscle strength is usually maintained.