Breast Flashcards

1
Q

AJCC

T4a group for breast carcinomas includes carcinomas with __. This does not include ___.

Invasive carcinomas greater than __ mm and less than or equal to __ mm are staged as T2; those greater than __ mm are T3.

A

The AJCC T4a group for breast carcinomas includes carcinomas with extension to the chest wall. This does not include invasive carcinomas adhering to or invading the pectoralis muscle. The carcinoma must penetrate beyond the pectoralis muscle into the chest wall to be classified as T4a. Invasive carcinomas greater than 20 mm and less than or equal to 50 mm are staged as T2; those greater than 50 mm are T3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is it positive for CK 5/6?

What is the risk of a radiologically occult invasive carcinoma?

Is sentinel lymph node procedure is not recommended?

It exhibits ___ nuclear grade.

Is comedo necrosis is common?.

A

High grade DCIS is non-reactive with CK 5/6 as opposed to ductal hyperplasia which shows significant positivity.

The risk of occult invasive carcinoma in high grade DCIS is about 50%, and, therefore, sentinel lymph node procedure is recommended in those cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which immunohistochemical markers are most useful in distinguishing between benign and atypical epithelial foci within papillary proliferations of the breast?

A

ER and CK5 staining, when used together, are valuable adjunct stains to differentiate usual duct hyperplasia from atypical proliferations within papillary lesions on breast core biopsy.

  • Diffuse ER expression with lack of CK5 staining is seen in atypical epithelial proliferations.
  • Mosaic expression of both ER and CK5 is generally encountered in usual hyperplasia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hormone receptor assay and reporting

  • The CAP recommends that the cold ischemia time of ___ or less.
  • Samples should be fixed for at least __ to a maximum of __ hours for receptor stability.
  • Positivity for ER or PR is based on finding of __% immunoreactive tumor cell nuclei.
  • A specimen may have to be rejected if __
A
  • The CAP recommends that the cold ischemia time be kept to one hour or less.
  • Samples should be fixed for at least 6 hours to a maximum of 72 hours for receptor stability.
  • Positivity for ER or PR is based on finding of ≥1% immunoreactive tumor cell nuclei.
  • A specimen may have to be rejected if the slide lacks staining of included normal epithelial elements and/or normal positive control on same slide.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to the 2007 ASCO/CAP guidelines for Her2/neu testing, a Her2/neu positive result includes at least one of the following:

  • Immunohistochemical staining of __+ (uniform, intense membrane staining of >__% of invasive tumor cells
  • FISH result of more than __ HER2 gene copies per nucleus
  • FISH ratio (HER2 gene signals to chromosome 17 signals) of more than __
A

According to the 2007 ASCO/CAP guidelines for Her2/neu testing, a Her2/neu positive result includes at least one of the following:

  • Immunohistochemical staining of 3+ (uniform, intense membrane staining of >30% of invasive tumor cells
  • FISH result of more than 6.0 HER2 gene copies per nucleus
  • FISH ratio (HER2 gene signals to chromosome 17 signals) of more than 2.2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC) of the breast

  • Incidence?
  • Age?
  • Hormone receptor profile?
  • Clinical course?
  • More aggressive behavior can be seen in the __ variant
  • Morphologically, ACCs of the breast are similar to those seen in salivary glands, composed of two cell types
    • one which stains with luminal epithelial markers ____ (4)
    • the other staining with ___ (4) and ___(4)
  • ACCs of the salivary gland and breast consistently harbor the hallmark __ fusion gene resulting from a __ translocation.
A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC) of the breast

  • rare tumor accounting for less than 0.1% of all breast carcinomas
  • occurs predominantly in postmenopausal women (mean age of 60)
  • triple negative (ER/PR/HER2) receptor profile
  • indolent clinical course, presenting with localized disease
  • more aggressive behavior can be seen in the solid variant
  • Morphologically, ACCs of the breast are similar to those seen in salivary glands, composed of two cell types
    • one which stains with luminal epithelial markers CK7, EMA, CEA, and CD117
    • the other staining with high molecular weight/basal cytokeratins CK5, CK5/6, CK14, CK17 and myoepithelial markers p63, S100, actin, calponin
  • ACCs of the salivary gland and breast consistently harbor the hallmark MYB–NFIB fusion gene resulting from a t(6;9)(q22–23;p23–24) translocation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Small cell carcinoma breast primary v. met

Similar?

Distinguising?

A

Small cell carcinoma breast primary v. met

Similar

  • expression of pan-cytokeratin in a dot-like paranuclear staining pattern
  • immunoreactive for CAM5.2, CK7, synaptophysin and TTF-1
  • negative for CK20
  • +/- ER/PR positivity

Distinguising?

  • presence of DCIS with similar cytologic features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dx?

E-cadherin staining?

A

Tubulolobular carcinoma.

  • shows abortive tubule formation in addition to the characteristic single file pattern
  • demonstrates intense membranous staining for E-cadherin in both the tubular and lobular components, similar to that seen in infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • DDx
  • Histology
  • Staining
  • Genetics
A

Microglandular adenosis

  • DDx: invasive tubular carcinoma
  • proliferation of small round glands composed of a single layer of epithelial cells surrounded by a basement membrane
  • glands lack both myoepithelial cells and a lobular architecture
  • not associated with a desmoplastic stroma
  • strong S100 expression and a triple negative (ER/PR/HER2) receptor profile
  • Chromosomal aberrations suggest the lesion to be a neoplastic clonal lesion and a possible precursor of a subset of breast cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DDx?

Histology?

A

Tubular adenoma

  • circumscribed proliferation of closely packed tubules lined by two cell layers, epithelial and myoepithelial
  • benign neoplasm related to fibroadenoma

DDx

Tubular carcinoma

  • haphazard infiltration of bland tubules with angular contours
  • Individual cells often show apical snouts

Microglandular adenosis

  • comprised of infiltrating, uniform, round tubules which contain central eosinophilic secretion and which do not exhibit a myoepithelial layer.

Adenomyoepithelioma

  • circumscribed proliferation of both myoepithelial and epithelial cells, the proportions of which vary
  • myoepithelial cells may be either closely associated with epithelial tubules, or they may be present as aggregates of spindle, polygonal, or clear cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DDx?

Age?

Genetics?

A

Primary (de novo) angiosarcoma of the breast

  • rare, occurring almost exclusively in women with a median age of 40
  • occur in the breast parenchyma, often presenting as a painless mass
  • no myc amplification
  • histologic grading does not correlate with clinical behavior and outcome

Secondary (radiation-associated) angiosarcoma

  • occurs predominantly in the skin following surgery and radiotherapy
  • median latent stage is 5-6 years
  • myc amplification
  • must be differentiated from atypical post-radiation vascular proliferation (APRVP)

APRVP

  • generally follows a benign clinical course
  • no myc amplification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stains?

A

Pseudoangiomatous hyperplasia (PASH)

  • benign mesenchymal proliferation
  • frequently an incidental histologic finding
  • rarely, it can present as a mass
  • slit-like spaces
    • positive for CD34, SMA, BCL-2
    • negative for CD31
  • not associated with microcalcifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DDx?

Best IHC panel?

Best single stain?

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple

  • the presence of carcinoma cells in the keratinizing epithelium of the nipple, often with ductal carcinoma in situ involving the adjacent lactiferous ducts
  • Invasive or in situ carcinoma is present elsewhere in the breast in >90% of cases

DDx

Paget’s

  • Positive: HER2, CK7, CAM5.2, CEA, +/-S100
  • Negative: ER, HMB45, Melan-A, CK5/6, CK20

Toker cells

  • Positive: ER, CK7, CAM5.2, CEA, +/-S100
  • Negative: HER2

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ/Bowen’s disease

  • Positive: CK5/6, CK20
  • Negative: HER2

Melanoma

  • Positive: HMB-45, Melan-A
  • Negative: HER2

Best 4 stains (all negative in Paget’s)

  • HMB-45, Melan-A, CK5/6, CK20

HER2 is the most useful single immunostain

  • positive in up to 80-90% of Paget’s disease
  • negative in the other entities in the differential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the typical immunoprofile of in situ and invasive lobular carcinoma? (E-cadherin, catenin P120)

A

Lobular neoplasia, including both in situ and invasive lesions

  • typically lacks membranous staining for both E-cadherin and catenin P120
  • typically display positive cytoplasmic staining for P120
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dx?

Incidence?

Prognosis?

Pure or mixed?

ER, PR and Her-2?

Age?

A

Invasive micropapillary carcinoma

  • relatively uncommon
  • highly aggressive
  • mostly occurs in mixed form with other types of invasive ductal carcinoma
  • >50% of cases are ER, PR and Her-2 positive
  • no specific age range
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

According to AJCC staging guidelines:

Metastases in 1 to 3 lymph nodes with at least one greater than 2.0 mm should be staged as ___

Isolated tumor cells (ITCs)

  • =__ cells, = __ mm
  • __ when alone
  • if other lymph nodes contain micro- or macrometastases, nodes with ITCs __ included in the total lymph node count for determining pN stage

Micrometastases

  • tumor foci > __ cells or __ to __ mm
  • pNmi when alone
  • with at least one other metastasis > 2.0 mm, they __ included in the total lymph node count for the pN stage
A

Isolated tumor cells (ITCs)

  • =200 cells, = 0.2 mm
  • pN0(i+) when alone
  • if other lymph nodes contain micro- or macrometastases, nodes with ITCs are NOT included in the total lymph node count for determining pN stage

Micrometastases

  • tumor foci > 200 cells or 0.2 to 2.0 mm
  • pNmi when alone
  • with at least one other metastasis > 2.0 mm, they ARE included in the total lymph node count for the pN stage

Metastases in 1 to 3 lymph nodes with at least one greater than 2.0 mm should be staged as pN1a

18
Q

Dx?

Stains?

DDx?

A

Spindle cell carcinoma

  • type of metaplastic carcinoma of the breast
  • positive: high molecular weight keratins (CK5/6) and the myoepithelial cell marker p63
  • may be positive for only one of these markers and also show only focal positivity

DDx

  • Malignant spindle cell neoplasm
  • Sarcoma
  • Malignant phyllodes tumor
  • Nodular fasciitis
19
Q

Despite that it is rare to be associated with an atypical proliferative lesion, when it occurs, the most common atypical lesion encountered is __

A

Although atypical or neoplastic proliferations are not often encountered in fibroadenomas, when they occur, lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is most common.

20
Q

Dx?

How is it detected?

Prognosis?

Treatment?

A

Mucocele-like lesion

  • mucinous lesion of the breast with highly variable upgrade rates to atypia and malignancy on excision
  • clinically occult and presents with microcalcifications on imaging
  • not considered a premalignant lesion
  • often associated with ADH and, therefore, follow-up excision is commonly recommended
21
Q

Basal phenotype breast cancer

  • characterized by __
  • ER, PR, HER2?
  • age
  • race
  • mets
  • prognosis
A

Basal phenotype breast cancer

  • characterized by the expression of one or more high molecular weight, or “basal”, cytokeratins such as CK5/6, CK14, and CK17
  • most are triple negative; however, not all basal cancers are triple negative, and not all triple negative cancers are basal phenotype
  • tend to affect younger patients
  • more common in African-Americans
  • greater propensity for brain and lung metastasis
  • most have a worse prognosis
  • adenoid cystic and secretory carcinoma have a favorable prognosis
22
Q

Luminal A/B tumors

A

Luminal A tumors

  • high expression of estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor positivity
  • low proliferation, primarily low grade
  • good prognosis
  • show low benefit from chemotherapy (pathologic complete response of 0% to 5%)

Luminal B tumors

  • lower level of estrogen receptor expression
  • high proliferation
  • possible HER2 positivity
  • intermediate to poor prognosis
  • intermediate benefit from chemotherapy (pathologic complete response of 10% to 20%).
23
Q

Basallike breast cancers

A

Basallike breast cancers

  • typically triple-negative
  • by IHC 10% may be ER/PR+
  • highly proliferating, high-grade tumors
  • 80% of BRCA1 germline–associated tumors with poor outcome but with associated benefit from chemotherapy (pathologic complete response of 40%).
24
Q

HER2-positive tumors by gene expression profiling

A

HER2-positive tumors by gene expression profiling

  • 70% to 80% HER2+ by IHC and FISH
  • high proliferation, high grade, and poor outcome
  • benefit from chemotherapy (pathologic complete response of 25% to 40%) but not as much as basal tumors
  • may express estrogen receptor–related or progesterone receptor–related genes
25
Q

Molecular apocrine–type breast cancers

A

Molecular apocrine–type breast cancers

  • some histologic apocrine features
  • gross cystic disease fluid protein (GCDFP-15) positive
  • estrogen receptor negative
  • androgen receptor positive
  • high proliferation and grade
  • poor prognosis
26
Q

Based on estrogen receptor and androgen receptor, cancer can be divided into:

Luminal

  • estrogen receptor (?), androgen receptor (?)

Basallike

  • estrogen receptor (?), androgen receptor (?)

Molecular apocrine

  • estrogen receptor (?), androgen receptor (?)
A

Based on estrogen receptor and androgen receptor, cancer can be divided into:

Luminal

  • estrogen receptor (+), androgen receptor (+)

Basallike

  • estrogen receptor (-), androgen receptor (-)

Molecular apocrine

  • estrogen receptor (-), androgen receptor (+)
27
Q

Claudin-low breast cancers

A

Claudin-low breast cancers

  • poorly differentiated
  • frequently metaplastic, show epithelial mesenchymal transition
  • have a stem cell–like expression profile that appears less differentiated than basal cancers
  • may show basal markers and low estrogen receptor expression
  • prognosis is slightly better than basallike tumors
  • slightly lower pathologic complete response (25% to 40%) than basal cancers
28
Q

Gene Expression Profiling–Based Breast Cancer Classification

A

Gene Expression Profiling–Based Breast Cancer Classification

  1. Luminal A
  2. Luminal B
  3. Molecular apocrine-type
  4. Claudin-low
  5. Basallike
  6. HER2-positive
29
Q

Special Subtypes of Invasive Breast Cancer

Prognosis?

A

Special Subtypes of Invasive Breast Cancer:

a/w good prognosis

  • luminal A, mucinous, tubular, cribriform, and medullary
  • Better prognosis than NST

a/w bad prognosis

  • inflammatory carcinoma, which currently is defined primarily on clinical grounds
    • having an erythematous or peau d’orange skin appearance and carcinoma anywhere in the breast

Invasive micropapillary carcinoma

  • aggressive tumor, a/w high lymphatic and lymph node metastasis rate (75%) regardless of tumor size, even for T1a lesions

central fibrotic focus a/w poor prognosis

Worse prognosis than invasive ductal NST

  • luminal B
  • HER2 amplified
  • most basal-type

Basal-type a/w good prognosis

  • Pure medullary carcinoma
  • secretory carcinoma
  • adenoid cystic carcinoma
30
Q
A

Special Subtypes of Invasive Breast Cancer: Inflammatory Breast Carcinoma

Associated with a bad prognosis

defined primarily on clinical grounds—having an erythematous or peau d’orange skin appearance and carcinoma anywhere in the breast.

31
Q
A

Sclerosing adenosis

33
Q
A

Paget disease

  • nipple and subareolar region
  • DCIS arising in lactiferous ducts and extending into the epidermis
34
Q
A

Florid papillomatosis of the nipple

  • potentially mass-forming lesion
  • aka nipple adenoma
  • characterized by ductular proliferation arising from lactiferous ducts and florid intraductal epithelial hyperplasia, varying degrees of atypia
  • may be a/w cancer
35
Q
A

Subareolar sclerosing duct hyperplasia

  • characterized by a geographic area of duct sclerosis and stromal elastosis with florid epithelial proliferation
  • looks like nipple adenoma but nipple isn’t involved
  • this lesion is in the family of radial sclerosing lesions but tends to show less cyst formation
  • may be a/w carcinoma
  • myoepithelial cells surround the intraductal epithelial proliferation
    • highlighted with a smooth muscle actin, smooth muscle myosin heavy chain, or p63 immunostain
36
Q
A

Syringomatous adenoma of the nipple

  • benign, locally infiltrating neoplasm histologically similar to the tumor of the skin
  • does not appear to arise from skin, and it is not typically associated with intraductal epithelial proliferation
  • should be distinguished from florid papillomatosis of the nipple (nipple adenoma).
  • small tubular and ductular structures with elongated architecture in a teardrop shape
  • infiltrative pattern that should not be confused with an invasive carcinoma
  • ducts are lined by one or more layers of small uniform cells
39
Q
A

Gynecomastia

  • intraductal epithelial hyperplasia and periductal increased cellularity and edema
  • 3 stages
    • early florid, intermediate, and late inactive or fibrotic
  • may be seen in the female breast
  • most common lesion of the male breast
  • bimodal distribution but may be seen at any age
  • affects 30% to 60% of boys and 30% of adults
  • most are ER positive
  • occasionally, breast lobules may be seen
  • a/w hyperthyroidism; cirrhosis; chronic renal failure; use of hormones; and use of numerous common drugs (digitalis, cimetidine, and spironolactone)
  • NO increased incidence of breast carcinoma
  • Pseudogynecomastia may be seen in obese males because of lipomastia (i.e., fat in the breast, lacking glandular proliferation).
40
Q

Location of Lesions in the Breast

Skin (1)

The terminal duct lobular unit

Nipple (4)

Subareolar (4)

A

Location of Lesions in the Breast

Skin

  • Angiosarcoma (anywhere radiation/obstruction)

The terminal duct lobular unit

  • cystic disease
  • usual ductal hyperplasia
  • adenosis and sclerosing adenosis
  • atypical ductal or lobular hyperplasia
  • lobular and ductal carcinoma in situ
  • invasive lobular/ductal carcinoma
  • peripheral papilloma

Nipple

  • Paget disease representing ductal carcinoma in situ arising in lactiferous ducts and extending into the epidermis
  • florid papillomatosis of the nipple (nipple adenoma)
  • Solitary intraductal papillomas
  • syringomatous adenoma of the nipple

Subareolar

  • Solitary intraductal papillomas
  • abscess formation
    • lactiferous ducts with squamous metaplasia
    • Terminal duct obstruction leads to duct rupture proximally
  • Duct ectasia
  • subareolar sclerosing duct hyperplasia.
45
Q

Breast Cancer Staging by American Joint Committee on Cancer

Microinvasive breast cancer

Stage pN0(ITC) i

Stage pN1mi

Inflammatory breast carcinoma

T4a

A

Breast Cancer Staging by American Joint Committee on Cancer

Microinvasive breast cancer

Stage pN0(ITC) i

  • finding tumor cells that show no malignant activity (i.e., stromal reaction or mitotic activity spanning

Stage pN1mi

  • Lymph node micrometastasis that spans 0.2 to 2 mm
  • If multiple lymph nodes show micrometastases but none shows a regular metastasis (i.e., >2 mm)
  • if one of the metastases is greater than 2 mm, the pN(1-3) status corresponds to the total number of nodes that are positive regardless of their micrometastatic status

The definition of inflammatory breast carcinoma (T4d) by AJCC criteria is largely a clinical definition.

  • Most of the skin is involved, showing diffuse erythema and edema (peau d’orange).
  • The presence of carcinoma in the skin or dermal lymphatics, although closely associated with inflammatory breast cancer, is insufficient for the diagnosis.
  • If no clinical evidence of inflammatory breast cancer is present, the staging of tumor involving the skin is based on its overall size or whether there is skin ulceration or satellite skin nodules (T4b).
  • Conversely, any amount of tumor anywhere in the breast, whether or not involving the skin, in the presence of clinical evidence of inflammatory breast cancer is inflammatory breast carcinoma.

T4a

  • carcinoma extension to chest wall (includes ribs, intercostal muscle, and serratus anterior muscle) but does not include invasion of pectoralis muscle only.
46
Q
A

Breast Cancer—Her2/neu

  • Amplification of the HER2/Neu (ERBB2) gene, with associated HER2 protein overexpression and constitutive activation of its tyrosine kinase activity, is more frequent in ER/PR-negative breast cancers and is an independent indicator of poor prognosis.
  • More importantly, ERBB2 is a target of, and ERBB2 amplification is a marker of, sensitivity to treatment with trastuzumab (Herceptin). In addition, the small tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) lapatinib, and the new anti-HER2 antibody, pertuzumab, which targets a different HER2 epitope, have been shown to be effective in HER2 amplified breast cancer. The latter has been shown to improve progression-free survival rate by almost 50% in patients with advanced breast cancer, when added to docetaxel and trastuzumab.
  • Although semiquantitative immunohistochemical tests for protein expression, such as Herceptest, are convenient, variability of antigen preservation and retrieval, as well as interobserver variability in interpretation, make immunohistochemistry a less reliable predictor of response than FISH. The American Society of Clinical Oncology and College of American Pathologists have issued guidelines for evaluating the HER2 status of breast tumors.
  • Resistance to trastuzumab is poorly understood, and many mechanisms may be involved, including loss of the ERBB2 external domain, overexpression of MUC4, increased transcription of ERBB2, and bypassing EGFR signaling by activation of downstream pathways, especially the PI3-kinase/mTOR pathway, including activating PIK3CA mutations and loss of PTEN.
  • One means of overcoming resistance is treatment with mTOR pathway inhibitors, such as everolimus. Although modest responses have been shown in pretreated patients, clinical trials to evaluate the drug in combination with chemotherapy and trastuzumab are underway.
  • Trastuzumab has also been shown to be active in HER2 amplified/overexpressing adenocarcinoma of the stomach and distal esophagus. The criteria for immunohistochemical and FISH evaluation from the ToGA trial that showed this benefit differed from the CAP/ASCO criteria, although a recent publication from Memorial Sloan Kettering shows that the CAP/ASCO criteria may be adequate.