Brainscape Flashcards - emetics

Question 1

What triggers vomiting?

Answer 1

Stimulation of the emetic center in the medulla oblongata.

Question 2

Where is the vomiting center located in the brain?

Answer 2

In the medulla oblongata.

Question 3

Which area is unprotected by the blood-brain barrier and can be triggered by blood-borne substances?

Answer 3

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

Question 4

Which neurotransmitters and receptors are involved in the emetic signaling pathway?

Answer 4

Histamine H1, dopamine D2, serotonin 5-HT3, cholinergic M, and opioid μ receptors.

Question 5

How does the vestibular apparatus contribute to vomiting?

Answer 5

It generates impulses when equilibrium is disturbed, affecting the vomiting center via muscarinic and H1 receptors.

Question 6

What are some common triggers of nausea and vomiting from higher centers?

Answer 6

Unpleasant sensory stimuli, fear, recall of an obnoxious event, and anticipation of an emetic stimulus.

Question 7

What is the role of serotonin (5-HT) in emesis?

Answer 7

Released from enterochromaffin cells in the GI tract, it activates 5-HT3 receptors, stimulating vomiting.

Question 8

Name two situations where vomiting is induced.

Answer 8

When a poison or other undesirable substance is ingested.

Question 9

Name two drugs that act as emetics by acting on the CTZ.

Answer 9

Apomorphine and Ipecacuanha.

Question 10

What is apomorphine, and how does it induce vomiting?

Answer 10

A semisynthetic derivative of morphine; acts as a dopaminergic agonist on the CTZ.

Question 11

In which situations are emetics contraindicated?

Answer 11

In corrosive, CNS stimulant drug, kerosine poisoning, unconscious patients, or morphine/phenothiazine poisoning.

Question 12

What is the main drug class used to prevent or suppress vomiting?

Answer 12

Antiemetics.

Question 13

Name one anticholinergic drug effective for motion sickness.

Answer 13

Hyoscine.

Question 14

What is the function of dicyclomine in treating vomiting?

Answer 14

It is used for prophylaxis of motion sickness and morning sickness.

Question 15

What is the main effect of H1 antihistamines in antiemesis?

Answer 15

They work primarily by their anticholinergic, antihistaminic, and sedative properties.

Question 16

Which drug class includes promethazine, diphenhydramine, and cyclizine?

Answer 16

H1 antihistamines.

Question 17

How do neuroleptics function as antiemetics?

Answer 17

By blocking D2 receptors in the CTZ.

Question 18

What is the action of neuroleptics on the CTZ?

Answer 18

They block D2 receptors, making them effective in drug-induced and disease-related vomiting.

Question 19

What is metoclopramide’s role in gastrointestinal (GI) transit?

Answer 19

It promotes GI transit by enhancing gastric motility and speeding gastric emptying.

Question 20

Why is metoclopramide not recommended for long-term use?

Answer 20

Long-term use can cause parkinsonism, galactorrhea, and gynecomastia.

Question 21

Which drug class can enhance antiemetic action when combined with other antiemetics?

Answer 21

Corticosteroids, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids.

Question 22

Name a 5-HT3 antagonist used for chemotherapy-induced vomiting.

Answer 22

Ondansetron.

Question 23

What side effects are associated with the use of 5-HT3 antagonists like ondansetron?

Answer 23

Common side effects include headache, mild constipation, or diarrhea.

Question 24

How do corticosteroids help in antiemetic therapy?

Answer 24

They are used to alleviate nausea and vomiting in moderately emetogenic chemotherapy and enhance other antiemetic drugs.

Question 25

What is the mechanism of action of cannabinoids in antiemetic therapy?

Answer 25

They activate CB1 receptors, reducing nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy.

Question 26

What is GERD, and what are common symptoms?

Answer 26

GERD is gastroesophageal reflux disease; symptoms include heartburn, acid eructation, and regurgitation.

Question 27

What lifestyle changes are recommended for managing GERD?

Answer 27

Eating a light dinner, raising the head of the bed, weight reduction, and avoiding trigger factors.

Question 28

Which stage of GERD is characterized by daily symptoms, disturbed sleep, and esophageal lesions?

Answer 28

Stage 3 GERD.

Question 29

Name the most effective drugs for treating GERD symptoms and healing lesions.

Answer 29

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).

Question 30

Which drug class provides symptomatic relief but does not heal esophagitis in GERD?

Answer 30

Antacids.

Question 31

What is the role of sodium alginate in GERD management?

Answer 31

It forms a frothy layer that prevents gastric acid from contacting esophageal mucosa.

Question 32

Which drugs are used in flatulent dyspepsia for relieving gas?

Answer 32

Carminatives like sodium bicarbonate, oil peppermint, and tincture ginger.

Question 33

What are carminatives, and name one example.

Answer 33

Drugs that promote expulsion of gas; example: sodium bicarbonate.

Question 34

What are digestants, and when are they used?

Answer 34

Substances that promote digestion; used when there is a deficiency in GI tract enzyme production.

Question 35

What are the common uses of pancreatin as a digestant?

Answer 35

It is used for chronic pancreatitis and other exocrine pancreatic deficiencies.

Question 36

Name two gallstone-dissolving drugs and their mechanisms.

Answer 36

Chenodiol (inhibits cholesterol synthesis) and Ursodiol (inhibits cholesterol absorption).

Question 37

Which gallstone-dissolving drug works by inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver?

Answer 37

Chenodeoxycholic acid (Chenodiol).

Question 38

For which conditions are bile acids used as replacement therapy?

Answer 38

Cholestasis, biliary fistula, and liver disease.

Question 39

What is the key requirement for gallstone dissolution therapy?

Answer 39

Gallbladder must be functional, and stones should be cholesterol-based and smaller than 15mm.