Brains 3 Flashcards

(33 cards)

0
Q

Irritation of the lateral olfactory area producing olafactory hallucinations such as burning rubber and involuntary tongue and lip movement is known as:

A

Uncinate Fits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Fractures to the floor of anterior cranial fossa allowing leakage of CSF is known as?

A

Rhinorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tumor arising from the floor of the anterior cranial fossa that impinges on olafactory bulbs is known as a:

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which portion of the hypothalamus regulates hunger/feeding?

A

Lateral Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Electrical stimulation to what area produces intense pleasure?

A

Septal Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lesions to what area produces Kluver Bucy Syndrome?

A

Bilateral lesions to the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What condition produces loss of fear, rage, and aggression? While also showing hyper sexuality, psychic blindness, and overly attentive to sensory stimuli.

A

Kluver Bucy Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Electrical stimulation to what area produces olafactory hallucinations?

A

Entorhinal Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Functions of hippocampus? Products of lesions?

A

1) allows short term memory to be converted long term memory

2) LARGE lesions produce short term memory loss with no effect on long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two nucleuses control fluid balance and blood pressure regulation? Specifically adh and oxytocin. What happens in the event of the destruction of these two nucleuses?

A

Supraoptic and Paraventricular nucs. Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the posterior pituitary gland communicate with the hypothalamus?

A

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the anterior pituitary gland communicate with the hypothalamus?

A

Hypophyseal Portal System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s the blood supply to the hypothalamus?

A

Perf. Branches of the Circle of Willis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do the anterior pituitary hormones get released into the blood?

A

Via the hypophyseal portal system into the cavernous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of the mu subtype of opoid:

A

SUPRASPINAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drug is a competive antagonist for the Benzo binding site, thus blocking activity of Benzo’s and Z drugs?

16
Q

What does the major adult isoform of the GABA-A receptor consist of?

A

2 alpha, 2 beta, 2 y subunits

17
Q

Where does GABA bind to on the GABA-A receptor?

A

Between the 2 alpha and 2 beta units

18
Q

If there are suspected liver problems with the patient which BENZO’s should be prescribed?

A

LOT/ On The Liver (No active metabolites)
Lorazepem
Oxazepam
Temazepam

19
Q

Binding site and action of BENZO?

A

Binds between the alpha 1 and y 2 subunit

INCREASES FREQUENCY OF CL- channel opening (MAKING BEN HAPPY ;) )

20
Q

Binding site of Z-Drugs?

A

Binds to BENZO receptor BZ-1 (omega-1)

21
Q

Action of BARB?

A

Increases DURATION of Cl- Channels (Making BARB HAPPY ;)

22
Q

Describe the half life and potential withdrawal problems with Flumazenil?

A

SHORT HALF LIFE (30-60 minutes)

-Can cause precipatated withdrawal in benzo dependant patients, including seizures and respiratory depression.

23
Q

MOA of buspirone?

A

5 HT1a partial agonist

24
What is the only approved use for Buspirone?
General Anxiety D/O - 2nd line of tx. after SSRI/SNRI - SLOW ONSET (2-6 weeks)
25
MOA of ramelton?
Agonist at MT1 and MT2 Melatonin Receps. - M1 (Sleep Onset) - M2 (Circadium Rhythms) - Increased sleep time, decreased sleep latency
26
What specific medical D/O's should you be aware of when prescribing BARBS?
ACUTE INTERMITTENT PORPHYRIA and PORPHYRIA VARIEGATA - Because they enhance porphyria synthesis - ALSO THEY INDUCE CYP450 so D-D interaxns should be considered!
27
In the different MOA's of thalamus neurons describe the actions and functions of both 1) Tonic and 2) Burst firing?
A) -55 mV, Ca++ NOT active, Detailed Info/Focusing | B) Burst of Ca++ (ACTIVE), -70 mV, No details, also active in sleep (aware of event)
28
What is the affect of a Non-Pinealocyte tumor?
Decreased Melatonin=Precocious Puberty! (HYPER GONADISM)
29
What is the affect of a Pinealocyte tumor?
Increased MELATONIN (hyper active pineal gland=HYPOGONADISM)
30
To which receptor does endorphins have the most affinity for?
Mu, receptors
31
To which receptor does Enkephalics have the most affinity for?
Delta receptors
32
To which receptor does dynorphins have the most affinity for?
Kappa Receptors