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1 - FINALS > Brain and Behaviour > Flashcards

Brain and Behaviour Flashcards

1
Q

Anterior cranial fossa bones and contents

A 
Bones = frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid
Contents = frontal lobes
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2
Q

Middle cranial fossa bones and contents

A 
Bones = sphenoid, temporal
Contents = temporal lobes, pituitary gland
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3
Q

Posterior cranial fossa bones and contents

A 
Bones = sphenoid, temporal, parietal, occipital
Contents = brainstem, cerebellum
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4
Q

Accessory nerve innervation

A

SCM and trapezius

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5
Q

Foramen spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery

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6
Q

What the sympathetic nerve can do once it has entered the sympathetic trunk

A

Synapse
Ascend or descend
Leave

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7
Q

Conus medullaris

A

End of the spinal cord at L2

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8
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture performed?

A

Between L3&4 or L4&5

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9
Q

Rexed laminae I-II

A

Pain

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10
Q

Rexed laminae III-IV

A

Exteroception

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11
Q

Rexed laminae V-VI

A

Proprioception

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12
Q

Circulation of aqueous humour

A

Produced in ciliary body
Passes out of posterior chamber through the pupil and into the anterior chamber
Drains out the canal of Schlemm (scleral venous sinus)

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13
Q

Vitreous chamber function

A

Helps to preserve the shape of the eyeball to maintain focussing precision

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14
Q

Orbicularis occult innervation

A

CN VII

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15
Q

Superior rectus action

A

Elevation, adduction

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16
Q

Inferior rectus action

A

Depression, adduction

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17
Q

Superior oblique

A

Depression, abduction, intorsion

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18
Q

Inferior rectus

A

Elevation, abduction, extorsion

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19
Q

Papilloedema

A

Swelling of the optic disc

Sign of raised ICP

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20
Q

Partial optic nerve lesion

A

Ipsilateral scotoma

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21
Q

Optic nerve lesion

A

Monocular blindness

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22
Q

Optic chiasm lesion

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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23
Q

Optic tract lesion

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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24
Q

Meyer’s loop lesion

A

Homonymous upper quadrant hemianopia

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25
Q

Optic radiation lesion

A

Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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26
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of CN III

A

Sphincter pupillae

Ciliary muscle

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27
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of CN VII

A

Lacrimal glands
Mucosal glands of the nasal and oral cavities
Submandibular and sublingual glands

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28
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of CN IX

A

Parotid gland

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29
Q

Horner syndrome symptoms

A

Miosis - contraction of the pupil
Ptosis - eyelid droop
Anhydrous - lack of sweating on face and neck
Exophthalmos - sinking of the eye

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30
Q

Dural venous sinus location

A

Between periosteal and meningeal dural layers

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31
Q

What is found in the cereal ventricles that is responsible for producing CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

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32
Q

Path from lateral ventricles –> subarachnoid space

A

Lateral ventricles
Interventricular foramen
Third ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
Then either central canal –> film terminal –> subarachnoid space
Or cisterna magna –> median and lateral aperatures –> subarachnoid space

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33
Q

CSF function

A

Buoyancy
Protection from trauma
Brain nourishment

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34
Q

How is CSF absorbed into the venous system

A

Via subarachnoid granulations that project into the superior sagittal sinus and other dural venous sinuses

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35
Q

Where is the fourth ventricle found?

A

Between the brainstem and cerebellum

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36
Q

What forms the lateral borders of the third ventricle?

A

Thalamus on either side

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37
Q

What is found superior to the third ventricle?

A

Corpus callosum

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38
Q

Where are the 3 horns of the lateral ventricles found?

A 
Anterior = frontal lobes
Inferior = temporal lobes
Posterior = occipital lobes
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39
Q

What is the condition in which there is an excessive accumulation of CSF?

A

Hydrocephalus

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40
Q

Anterior cerebral artery supplies…

A

Midline of the brain

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41
Q

Middle cerebral artery supplies…

A

Lateral 2/3 of the brain

Including Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas and the auditory cortex

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42
Q

Posterior cerebral artery supplies…

A

Bottom of the brain

Mainly occipital lobes and including visual cortex

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43
Q

Borders of the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Posterior border of SCM
Anterior border of trapezius
Middle 1/3 of clavicle

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44
Q

Contents of the posterior triangle of the neck

A 
Spinal accessory nerve
External jugular vein
Subclavian artery
Brachial and cervical plexuses
Lymph nodes
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45
Q

Borders of the submandibular triangle

A

Mandible
Anterior belly of digastric
Posterior belly of digastric

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46
Q

Submandibular triangle contents

A

Submandibular gland
Hypoglossal nerve
Facial artery and vein

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47
Q

Carotid triangle borders

A

SCM
Posterior belly of digastric
Omohyoid

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48
Q

Carotid triangle contents

A 
ICA
CN X, XI, XII
IJV
Carotid body and sinus 
Ansa cervicalis
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49
Q

Muscular triangle borders

A

Hyoid
Omohyoid
Midline of the neck
SCM

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50
Q

Muscular triangle contents

A

Infrahyoid muscles
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid glands

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51
Q

Submental triangle borders

A

Hyoid
Anterior belly of digastric
Midline of the neck

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52
Q

Submental triangle contents

A

Mylohyoid

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53
Q

Carotid sheath contents

A 
Common carotid artery 
ICA
IJV
Vagus nerve
Ansa cervicalis
Sympathetic trunk
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54
Q

Muscles of the pharynx

A

3 constrictor muscles - superior, muddle and inferior
Palatopharyngeus
Salpingopharyngeus
Stylopharyngeus

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55
Q

Innervation of the pharyngeal muscles

A

Pharyngeal plexus of vagus nerve

Except stylopharyngeus which is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve

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56
Q

Internal laryngeal nerve

A

Sensory to larynx above vocal folds

Lesion damages cough reflex

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57
Q

External laryngeal nerve

A

Motor to cricothyroid

Lesion produced monotonous voice

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58
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

Motor to all muscles of the pharynx except cricothyroid
Sensory to larynx below vocal folds
Lesion produces dysphonia

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59
Q

Bones of the orbit

A

Maxillary, frontal, zygomatic, sphenoid, ethmoid, lacrimal

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60
Q

Orbital foramina

A

Optic canal = optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

Superior orbital fissure = CN III, IV, VI, VI

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61
Q

MCA stroke

A

Global aphasia if dominant hemipshere
Sensorimotor loss on contralateral face, upper limbs and trunk
neglect syndrome if non-dominant side

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62
Q

ACA stroke

A

Contralateral sensorimotor loss below waist
Urinary incontinence
Personality defects
Split brain syndrome

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63
Q

PCA stroke

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Reading and writing deficits
Impaired memory

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64
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome

A

Affects PICA
Vertigo, nystagmus, nausea, dysphonia, dysphagia, loss of gag reflex
Horner syndrome

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65
Q

Diencephalon

A

= thalamus and hypothalamus

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66
Q

Mesenchaplon

A

= midbrain

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67
Q

Locus coeruleus

A

Pons
Noradrenaline
SNS control and pain inhibition

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68
Q

Raphe nuclei

A

Throughout the brainstem
Serotonin
Arousal, cognition, mood
Damage –> OCD, depression, anxiety

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69
Q

Substantia nigra

A

Midbrain
Dopamine
Control of movement initiation and switching
Damage –> Parkinson’s disease

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70
Q

Ventral tegmental aera

A

Midbrain
Dopamine
Organising behaviours, reward, attention, motivation
Damage –> schizophrenia, addiction

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71
Q

Pedunculopontine nucleus

A

Pons

Acetylcholine

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72
Q

Types of brain herniation

A

Subfalcine - brain moves under falx cerebri
Uncal - temporal lobe moves down and compresses midbrain
Tonsillar - brainstem moves down through foramen magnum

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73
Q

CN III palsy

A

Eye in down and out position
Ptosis
Dilated pupil

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74
Q

CN IV palsy

A

Eye slightly elevated and adducted
Tilting of head due to loss of intorsion
Complain of neck pain and have problems walking down stairs

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75
Q

CN VI palsy

A

Abduction in affected eye not possible

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76
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Line the ventricles
Function in the circulation of CSF
Ciliated and appear like epithelial cells

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77
Q

Astrocytes

A

Most common glial cells
Provide structural and metabolic support to neurones
Help form the BBB
Forms scars in areas of damage

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78
Q

Microglia

A

Immune cells of the CNS - immune surveillance

Small cells with long spiny processes

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79
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

Myelinating cells of the CNS

Each cell can myelinate up to 60 neurones

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80
Q

Schwann cells

A

Myelinating cells of the PNS

Each cell can only myelinate one axon

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81
Q

Contents of the axoplasm

A

Mitochondria for energy

Microtubules to maintain shape

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82
Q

Satellite cells

A

Supporting cells of the PNS

Found in dorsal root ganglia

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83
Q

What sensory modalities are carried by the DCML pathway?

A

Conscious proprioception

Discriminative touch - touch, pressure, vibration

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84
Q

What sensory modalities are carried by the spinothalamic tract?

A

Pain and temperature

Crude touch and pressure

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85
Q

What sensory modalities are carried by the spinocerebellar tract?

A

Unconscious proprioception

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86
Q

What does the corticospinal tract convey?

A

Control of voluntary movement

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87
Q

Where does the DCML pathway decussate?

A

High in the medulla after the primary neurone has synapsed in the gracile/cuneate nucleus

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88
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

Low in the spinal cord, around 1-2 levels above where the nerve entered through the spinal root
It is the secondary afferent that decussates after the primary afferent synapses in the dorsal horn

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89
Q

Where does the spinocerebellar pathway decussate?

A

It doesn’t –> ipsilateral cerebellum

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90
Q

Where does the corticospinal decussate?

A

At the spino-medullary junction

91
Q

Superior colliculus function

A

Visual tracking and attention

92
Q

Inferior colliculus function

A

Auditory reflexes

93
Q

Inferior olivary nucleus

A

Nucleus found in the rostral medulla

Important projection to the cerebellum

94
Q

What is found dorsally in the brainstem?

A

Cranial nerve nuclei
Motor found medially
Sensnory found laterally

95
Q

What is found down the middle of the brainstem?

A

Ascending pathways

Reticular formation

96
Q

What is found ventrally in the brainstem?

A

Descending pathways

97
Q

Reticular formation roles

A

Arousal responses
Autonomic nervous system control
Control fo muscle tone and reflexes
Pain modulation

98
Q

MLF location and function

A

Throughout the brainstem, roughly in the middle

Connects gaze centres and vestibular system

99
Q

Periaqueductal grey location and function

A

Surrounding the cerebral aqueduct
Descending pain control
Regulation of autonomic functions

100
Q

Substantia nigra location

A

Rostral midbrain

101
Q

Where is the fourth ventricle at its widest point?

A

At the junction between the pons and medulla

102
Q

Where is the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve found and what is its function?

A

Rostral medulla

Receives pain and temperature information from the head

103
Q

Jaw jerk reflex

A 
Afferent = CN V3
Efferent = CN V
104
Q

Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

A

Tremor, rigidity, gait abnormalities, slurred speech

105
Q

Where does the damage in Parkinson’s disease occur?

A

Substantia nigra

106
Q

Parkinson’s disease treatment

A

Dopamine receptor agonists

L-dopa + enzyme inhibitor of decarboxylase enzyme (so only converted in the brain)

107
Q

Schizophrenia symptoms

A

Hallucination, delusions, social withdrawal, paranoia

108
Q

Pathology of schizophrenia

A

Hyperactivity of ventral striatum

Increased dopamine release

109
Q

Treatment of schizophrenia

A

Dopamine receptor antagonists

110
Q

Pathology of depression

A

Dysfunction of monoamine system in the brain

Deficiency of serotonin and noradrenaline

111
Q

Treatment of depression

A

Re-uptake inhibitors

112
Q

How does ecstasy work?

A

Increases monoamine release

113
Q

How does cocaine work?

A

Inhibits monoamine reuptake

114
Q

How does heroin work?

A

Mu opoid receptor antagonist

115
Q

How does ketamine work?

A

Glutamate receptor antagonist

116
Q

How does nicotine work?

A

Nicotinic cholinergic receptor agonist

117
Q

How is alcoholism treated?

A

Disulfiram

Makes alcohol consumption unpleasant and painful

118
Q

Where in the meninges are blood vessels found?

A

Within the dura and arachnoid

119
Q

Epidural haemorrhage

A

Bleeding outside the dura
Usually arterial
No symptoms initially
Severe headache later as haematoma compresses brain

120
Q

Subdural haemorrhage

A

Bleeding between the dura and arachnoid
Usually from bridging veins
Slow onset of symptoms
Imaging shows blood spread diffusely over brain surface

121
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space
Often from ruptured aneurysm
Sudden severe thundercap headache

122
Q

CSF production rate

A

500ml/day

123
Q

Common site of blockage in hydrocephalus

A

Cerebral aqueduct

124
Q

What contributes to the BBB

A

Astrocyte end feet

Tight junction system between endothelial cells of the cerebral capillaries

125
Q

Broca’s Broadmann area

A

44 and 45

126
Q

Wernicke’s Broadmann area

A

22

127
Q

Broca’s damage

A

Expressive aphasia

Halting speech with disordered word order and grammar

128
Q

Wernicke’s damage

A

Receptive aphasia

Fluent but meaningless speech

129
Q

What connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas?

A

Arcuate fasciculus

130
Q

Arcuate fasciculus damage?

A

Conduction aphasia
Difficulty repeating words
Difficulty reading aloud

131
Q

Right Broca’s equivalent damage

A

Aprosodia
Difficulty understanding the non-semantic aspects of speech such as intonation, emphasis and rhythm
Produce robotic and monotonous speech

132
Q

Left vs right frontal lobes

A

Left focuses attention on one aspect

Right maintains an overall vigilance of your surroundings

133
Q

Left vs right hemispheres

A

Left good at deductive reasoning

Right good at inductive and intuitive reasoning

134
Q

Left inferotemporal cortex damage

A

Associative agnosia

Cannot assign names to objects

135
Q

Right inferotemporal cortex damage

A

Apperceptive agnosia

Cannot recognise objects when in an unusual rotation or shadow

136
Q

Fusiform gyrus damage

A

Prospoagnosia

Cannot assign names to faces

137
Q

Primary motor cortex Broadmann area

A

4

138
Q

Primary somatosensory cortex Broadmann area

A

1,2,3

139
Q

Primary visual cortex Broadmann area

A

17

140
Q

Primary auditory cortex Broadmann area

A

41,42

141
Q

Right posterior parietal cortex function

A

Separates what we see into the background and what is part of the object

142
Q

Right posterior parietal cortex damage

A

Piecemeal perception - can only observe one object at a time
Constructional apraxia - difficulty building 3D objects
Optic apraxia - inaccuracies reaching for objects
Discalculia - difficulty counting
Contralateral disregard - ignores left side of the body

143
Q

Balint’s syndrome

A

Bilateral lesions of the posterior parietal cortex
Appear blind - bump into objects etc
Can describe a small area in great detail
Oculomotor apraxia and simultanagnosia

144
Q

Where does recall from long term memory occur?

A

Parts of the temporal lobes

145
Q

Orbitofrontal cortex

A

Control of acceptable behaviours and awareness of social norms

146
Q

Hypothalamic outputs

A

Neural signals via the ANS

Endocrine through the pituitary gland

147
Q

Cavernous sinus contents

A

ICA, CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

148
Q

Hypothalamic nuclei involved in ADH release

A

Supraoptic

Paraventricular

149
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

ADH

Oxytocin

150
Q

What stimulates adrenocorticotrophic hormone release/

A

Corticotrophin releasing hormone

151
Q

Types of nerve regeneration

A

Anterograde (Wallerian)
Retrograde (to the cell body)
Transneural

152
Q

Where are sensory receptors found in the skin?

A

At the epidermal-dermal junction

153
Q

alpha A neurones

A

Alpha motor neurones
1a muscle spindle afferernts
1b golgi tendon afferent

154
Q

beta A neurones

A

General sensory afferents

155
Q

gamma A neurones

A

Gamma motor neurones to muscle spindle

156
Q

delta A neurones

A

Fast pain

Thermoception

157
Q

C fibre neurones

A

Slow pain

Thermoception

158
Q

Spatial vs temporal summation

A 
Spatial = more than one EPSP at a time 
Temporal = two EPSPs in close proximity to one another
159
Q

Where is osmolaity detected?

A

Subfornical organ in the wall of the third ventricle

160
Q

Where does the subfornical organ project to?

A

Medial preoptic nucleus to induce thirst sensation

Paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei to induce ADH release

161
Q

Effects of ADH

A

Additional aquaporins to move into the membrane of the collecting duct
Increases collecting duct permeability to urea
Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle

162
Q

Lateral vs medial hypothalamus in maintenance of body weight

A 
Lateral = hunger centre 
Medial = satiety centre
163
Q

Which nucleus is the satiety centre?

A

Periventricular nucleus

164
Q

Where are internal hunger/satiety cues detected?

A

Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus

165
Q

Ghrelin

A

Hunger hormone
Released by cells in the fundus of the stomach
Acts on a GPCR and induces eating behaviours
Also stimulates the dopamine pathway responsible for the enjoyment of food

166
Q

Leptin

A

Released from adipose tissue
Acts to reduce hunger
Gives the brain an overall idea of the total amount of adipose tissue in the body
Acts as a long-term regulator rather than a satiety signal

167
Q

CCK

A

Released by duodenal cells in response to chyme from the stomach
Causes released of digestive enzymes and bile
Acts on the arcuate nucleus to induce satiety

168
Q

GLP1

A

Glucagon like peptide 1
Released as a consequence of food in the gut
Induces satiety
Induces insulin secretion

169
Q

In what nerves do the sympathetic efferents to the bladder travel?

A

Hypogastric nerve

170
Q

Action of sympathetic efferents on the urinary system

A

Maintain tonic contraction of the internal urethral sphincter via alpha receptors
Tonically inhibit the contraction of the detrusor muscle via beta receptors

171
Q

What happens when the bladder becomes stretched?

A

Activation of pelvic nerves

Sense of bladder fullness via spinothalamic tract

172
Q

What nerve controls the external urethral sphincter?

A

Pudendal

173
Q

Where is the micturition centre?

A

Barrington’s nucleus in the pons

174
Q

Describe the micturition reflex

A

Descending fibres in the reticulospinal tract inhibit sympathetic and somatic outputs controlling the urethral sphincters
Activation of parasympathetic efferents which stimulate the contraction of the detrusor muscle via M3 receptors

175
Q

Ano-rectal reflex

A

Activated by stretching of the rectal afferents
Inhibition of sympathetic nerves to cause relaxation of the internal anal sphincter
Pressure increases on external anal sphincter and triggers the urge to defecate

176
Q

Process of defecation

A

Allow external anal sphincter to relax
Faeces moves down
Upper rectum contracts to propel the faeces out of the anal canal

177
Q

Ready, steady, go in movement

A 
Ready = posterior parietal cortex
Steady = association motor cortex 
Go = primary motor cortex
178
Q

3 parts of the cerebellum

A 
Vestibulo = balance and posture 
Spino = locomotion 
Cerebro = skilled motor tasks
179
Q

Cerebellum damage

A

Ataxia and hypotonia

180
Q

Basal ganglia damage

A

Slowing or unwanted movements - hypo/hyperkinesia

181
Q

Association motor cortex damage

A

Apraxia - unable to execute familiar, learned movements

182
Q

Descending motor pathways damage

A

Spasticity and hypotonia

183
Q

Spasticity vs rigidity

A

Both increase in muscle tone
Spasticity due to loss of inhibition of gamma motorneurones
Rigidity due to loss of inhibition of alpha motorneurones

184
Q

Flaccidity

A

Occurs when LMNs or peripheral nerves are damaged

185
Q

CNS excitatory NTs

A

ACh

Glutamate

186
Q

CNS inhibitory NTs

A

GABA - brain

Glycine - spinal cord

187
Q

Function of gamma motor neurones

A

Alter the sensitivity of the muscle spindles

188
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex arc

A

1b afferent
Glycinergic inhibitory interneurone
Alpha motorneurone

189
Q

Flexion reflex arc

A

Delta A nocioceptor afferent
2-3 excitatory interneurones
Alpha motor neurone

190
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

Vibration

191
Q

Ruffini ending

A

Pressure or skin stretching

192
Q

VPM vs VLP

A 
VMP = information from the face
VPL = information from the limbs
193
Q

What happens in the VPL?

A

Convergence of the DCML and anterior spinothalamic pathways

194
Q

Where does the lateral spinothalamic tract project to?

A

Limbic system - pain and pleasure
Midbrain reticular formation - pain induced arousal
Intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus - focusing attention on pain

195
Q

Blink reflex

A 
Input = V1
Output = VII to orbicularis oculi
196
Q

Pupillary light reflex

A 
Input = CN II
Output = CN III parasympathetic portion to the pupillary constrictor muscle
197
Q

What drug blocks the pupillary light reflex?

A

Atropine

198
Q

Components of the accommodation reflex?

A

Pupillary constriction - improves focusing by increasing depth of field
Thickening of the lens - allows focusing on near objects
Convergence - simultaneous contraction of medial rectus muscles

199
Q

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

A 
Input = CN VIII
Output = CN III and CN VI
200
Q

Contents of tears

A

Mucous
Antibodies
Lysozyme

201
Q

Layers of the eye

A 
Outer = sclera and cornea
Middle = iris, ciliary body and choroid
Inner = retina
202
Q

What is the primary refractive surface of the eye?

A

Cornea

203
Q

What is normal intra-ocular pressure?

A

10-21mmHg

204
Q

Where is visual acuity the highest?

A

At the fovea

205
Q

Circulation of aqueous humour

A

Ciliary body –> posterior chamber –> pupil –> anterior chamber –> canal of Schlemm

206
Q

Glaucoma

A

Increase in intraocular pressure that damages the retina

207
Q

Open angle glaucoma

A

Progressive condition
Trabecular meshwork over canal of Schlemm becomes gradually blocked
Angle between cornea and iris remains normal around 40 degrees

208
Q

Primary angle glaucoma

A

Sudden blockage of canal of Schlemm
Rapid rise in pressure
Sudden loss of vision and extreme pain
Angle between cornea and iris is reduced

209
Q

Glaucoma treatments

A

Prostaglandin analogs
Beta adrenergic receptor antagonists
Alpha-2 agonists
CA inhibitors

210
Q

How do cataracts form?

A

Level of antioxidants is too low or too much UV exposure

Lens becomes opaque

211
Q

Protein found in rods

A

Rhodopsin

212
Q

Protein found in cones

A

Iodopsin

213
Q

How does light affect photoreceptors?

A

Light hyperpolarises the cell

Stops the tonic glutamate release

214
Q

Dual blood supply of the eye

A

Central ophthalmic artery

Choroid network of capillaries from ophthalmic artery

215
Q

From photoreceptor –> optic nerve

A

Photoreceptor –> bipolar cell –> ganglion cells –> optic nerve

216
Q

Organ of Corti hair cells

A

3 rows of outer hair cells –> amplification of sound signals
1 row of inner hair cells –> auditory discrimination

217
Q

Apex vs base of cochlea

A

Apex is thin and wide –> responds to low frequency sounds

Base is thick and narrow –> responds to high frequency sounds

218
Q

Impedance matching factors

A

Relative sizes of ear ossicles

Tympanic membrane larger than oval window

219
Q

Attenuation reflex

A

Activated by own voice or loud sounds
Contraction of muscles like stapedius to dampen middle ear transmission
50-100ms delay

220
Q

Startle reflex

A

Defensive response against threatening stimuli
Involves facial nerve and reticular formation
Less than 10ms latency period

221
Q

Rinne’s test

A

Tuning fork on mastoid process then by ear canal

222
Q

Weber’s test

A

Tuning fork on forehead

223
Q

Angular gyrus damage

A

Alexia and agraphia - can’t read or write

1 - FINALS (6 decks)

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