BP, HTN, RENAL meds Flashcards

PBT2 quiz 2

1
Q

HTN is called the silent killer. Why?

a. A lot of people don’t know they have it and it causes a lot of damage
b. It causes kidney damage and other organ damage
c. It puts you at risk for diabetes
d. High blood pressure can kill you.
e. It’s not a silent killer if your heart explodes.

A

a. A lot of people don’t know they have it and causes a lot of damage.

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2
Q

True or false:

The only artery carrying oxygenated blood is the pulmonary artery.

A

False
All arteries except the pulmonary artery (it is carrying deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs) carry oxygenated blood.

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3
Q

BP = CO x TPR
What are the 2 components of CO?
Rewrite the eqn for BP.

A

CO = SV x HR

BP = SV x HR x TPR

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4
Q

SVR = TPR. What does SVR stand for?

A

SVR = systemic vascular resistance

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5
Q

What is TVR?

A

Total Vascular Resistance

-the total resistance the heart must pump against (=DBP)

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6
Q

What equation defines TPR?

A

Poiseuille-Hagen formula

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7
Q

Which section of the vascular tree is thickest?

a. Capillaries
b. Lymphatic
c. Large vessels
d. Small vessels
e. Arterioles

A

c. Large vessels

- large vessels are thick to withstand the high pressure they are exposed do when the heart pumps out blood

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8
Q

True or False:

Large vessels are the target when trying to decrease TPR

A

False

-Arterioles are the target when trying to decrease TPR because they regulate systemic blood pressure.

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9
Q

True or False:

As vessel diameter gets smaller so too does pressure

A

True

-Pressure decreases as you go from arteries to arterioles to capillaries

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10
Q

Arteries have which of the following layers: (select all that apply)

a. Endothelial layer
b. Smooth muscle layer
c. Fibroblast layer
d. Cholesterol layer
e. Sinusoidal layer

A

a, b, and c

  • Arteries have an endothelial layer, large smooth muscle layer, and a fibroblast layer
  • the other two layers are made up
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11
Q

Arterioles have all of the following layers except: (select all that apply)

a. Endothelial layer
b. Smooth muscle layer
c. Fibroblast layer
d. Cholesterol layer
e. Sinusoidal layer

A

c, d, and e

  • Arterioles have a few layers of smooth muscle and one layer of endothelial cells
  • Only arteries have a fibroblast layer
  • the other 2 are made up
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12
Q

Of the three types of capillary endothelial cells, which is considered to be standard, which is associated with the endocrine system, and which is found in bone marrow?

A
  • Continuous capillaries are the standard and are permeable
  • Fenestrated capillaries has small slits for diffusion and are associated with the endocrine system
  • Sinusoidal capillaries have large holes for cells to pass through and is found in bone marrow
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13
Q

Define each coefficient:
Fluid Filtration = 𝐾𝑓[(𝑃𝑐 −𝑃𝑖𝑓)−𝜎(Π𝑐 −Π𝑖𝑓)]

Which factors dictate fluid movement?

A

𝐾𝑓= permeability coefficient
𝑃𝑐 = hydrostatic pressure in capillaries = BP
𝑃𝑓 = hydrostatic pressure for interstitial fluid
Π is oncotic pressure (proteins)
𝜎 is a “correction” factor that will vary

-BP (𝑃𝑐) and density of proteins in the blood (Π𝑐) dictate fluid movement

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14
Q

True or False:
Driving pressure increases as blood flows through a capillary from the arterial side to the venous side. This action drives the exchange of O2 and nutrients for CO2 and other waste products.

A

False

-Driving pressure decreases as blood flows through a capillary from the arterial side to the venous side. This action drives the exchange of O2 and nutrients for CO2 and other waste products.

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15
Q

The kidney is divided into 2 sections, the cortex and the medulla, which section contains the glomeruli and which contains the collecting ducts?

A
  • The cortex contains the glomeruli

- The medulla contains the collecting ducts

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16
Q

Blood flows into the glomerulus through the _______ and leaves through the _______.

A

In: afferent arteriole

Out: efferent arteriole

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17
Q

All of the following happen when the macula densa senses high [Cl-] except: (select all that apply)

a. ATP is released and undergoes a series of steps to make adenosine
b. Afferent arteriole constricts
c. Renin is released by JG cells in response to Adenosine binding to A1 receptor
d. Afferent arteriole dilates
e. GFR will increase

A

Answer: c, d, and e

  • High [Cl-] in MD is interpreted as “GFR is too fast!”
  • MD induces ATP release.
  • ATP undergoes a series of steps to make adenosine
  • Adenosine binds to A1 receptors in afferent arterioles which causes constriction.
  • Binding to A1 receptors on JG cells inhibits renin release
  • Adenosine bind to A2 receptors in the efferent arteriole to cause dilation
  • GFR will decrease
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18
Q

Low NaCl in the MD initiates a _________ mediated signal cascade resulting in the production of _______ which binds to JG cells that will _________ renin. GFR will __________.

A
  1. NKCC2
  2. PGE2 / prostaglandin
  3. Release
  4. Increase
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19
Q

Which part of the nephron absorbs most of the solutes?

a. Proximal tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

a. Proximal tubule

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20
Q

Which part of the nephron acts a counter current exchange?

a. Proximal tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

b. Loop of Henle

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21
Q

Which part of the nephron is more associated with hormonal control and Ca2+ handling?

a. Proximal tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

c. Distal tubule

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22
Q

True or False:

Water and NaCl are absorbed through the descending limb of the Loop of Henle.

A

False

  • The descending limb is permeable to water but not NaCl
  • The ascending limb actively transports Na+ and Cl- but not water.
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23
Q

Which part of the nephron is the site of new bicarbonate generation?

a. Proximal tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

d. Collecting duct

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24
Q

When urine is less concentrated, the concentration of vasopressin is _______.

A

Low

  • Vasopressin (ADH) will lead to expression of aquaporin on the cell membrane of the luminal side of the collecting duct which will lead to more water reabsorption and more concentrated urine. When ADH is low, there is less water reabsorption –> urine is less concentrated.
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25
Q

To maintain homeostasis, the renal system and cardiovascular system work together to control which of the following:

a. Gas exchange and indirect BP control
b. Vol. control, ECF osmolarity, and indirect BP control
c. Acid-base vol., vol. control, and indirect BP control
d. Vol. control, ECF osmolarity, and direct BP control

A

d. Vol. control, ECF osmolarity, and direct BP control.

  • The cardiovascular system and respiratory system work together to control gas exchange and indirect BP control
  • The renal system and respiratory system work together to control acid-base vol., vol. control, and indirect BP control
26
Q

Low pressure baroreceptors are present in the: (select all that apply)

a. Vena cava
b. Aorta
c. Pulmonary vein
d. Right side of the heart
e. Left side of the heart

A

a and d

-Low pressure baroreceptors are present in the vena cava, pulmonary artery, and right side of the heart. They are sensing the pressure of blood returning to the heart and the pressure of blood being sent to the lungs.

27
Q

When activated, low pressure baroreceptors will signal through the sympathetic nervous system that will lead to all of the following except:

a. Increased thirst
b. Release of ADH
c. Increased sympathetic tone
d. Release of renin
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above
- Low pressure baroreceptors will signal through the sympathetic nervous system of the CNS which will result in secretion of ADH and increased sympathetic tone. ADH will stimulate thirst and water retention. Increased sympathetic tone also modulates vascular tone and can lead to renin release.

28
Q

High pressure baroreceptors are present in the: (select all that apply)

a. Aortic arch
b. Pulmonary artery
c. Vena cava
d. Carotid artery
e. Kidney

A

a and d

  • High pressure baroreceptors are present in the aortic arch, carotid artery, and cardioid sinus. They are sensing the pressure of blood leaving the heart.
  • The pulmonary artery and vena cava have low pressure baroreceptors
  • Kidneys do not have baroreceptors
29
Q

When activated, high pressure baroreceptors will signal through the ANS which will lead to which of the following: (select all that apply)

a. Release NPs
b. Na+ retention
c. Decrease HR
d. Vasodilation
e. Increased urination

A

ANS: a, c, d, and e

  • Signals through the ANS will lead a decrease in HR. Atrial sensors will release natriuretic peptides in response to high pressure that will stimulate natriuresis (Na+ excretion) and vasodilation. This will increase urination in an attempt to lower blood volume. Lower blood volume means lower blood pressure.
30
Q

Ang II has all of the following effects except:

a. Acts on kidneys to release Aldosterone
b. Acts on tubules in kidney to increase Na+ absorption and K+ excretion.
c. Acts on pituitary gland to stimulate release of ADH.
d. Increase sympathetic activity to increase SV and CO.
e. Act on V1 receptors of JG cells to inhibit renin release.

A

ANSWER: a

-In addition to the other 4 actions given in the question, Ang II acts on adrenal glands to release aldosterone which will act on the kidney to increase Na+ and water retention, and K+ excretion.

31
Q

True or false:

AT2R promotes cardiovascular disease and vasoconstriction, but its effects are mitigated by AT1R.

A

False

-AT1R promotes CVD and vasoconstriction. AT2R counteracts the effects of AT1R.

32
Q

True or false:
Aldosterone binds w/a mineralocorticoid receptor to slowly cause increased expression of ENaC and Na+/K+ ATPase in principal cells of the collecting duct.

A

True.

33
Q

Which of the following drug classes reduce the effects of Ang II? (select 3)

a. MR receptor blockers
b. Renin inhibitor
c. Diuretics
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e. ARBs

A

ANSWER: a, b, and e

  • Renin inhibitors will prevent renin from converting angiotensinogen to Ang I which will reduce levels of Ang II.
  • ACE inhibitors will prevent ACE from converting Ang I to Ang II thereby reducing effects of Ang II.
  • ARBs bind to AT1Rs to inhibit Ang II binding. This will prevent the release of Aldo and will also prevent vasoconstriction.
34
Q

Which of the following is a renin inhibitor? (select all that apply)

a. Spironolactone
b. Losartan
c. Zestril
d. Tolvaptan
e. Tekturna

A

e. Tekturna

  • Spironolactone is a MR blocker
  • Losartan is an ARB
  • Zestril = Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor
  • Tolvaptan is a V2 antagonist which is a fancy way of saying “aquaretic”
35
Q

Tekturna is the brand name version of ___________.

A

Aliskiren

36
Q

True or False:

A renin inhibitor will completely eliminate production of Ang II and will lead to increased levels of Ang 1-7 which will counteract the effects of Ang II.

A

False

A renin inhibitor will lead to increased levels of Ang 1-7 which will counteract the effects of Ang II; however, it will not completely eliminate production of Ang II. There are other ways to get Ang II.

37
Q

True or False:

Aliskiren is safe for pregnant or nursing women.

A

False

  • Ang II is important for fetal development. Consequently, Aliskiren is teratogenic and should not be given to pregnant women.
  • Aliskiren can also be passed through breast milk and can cause severe problems in infants.
38
Q

ARBs and ACE inhibitors have similar side effects including all of the following except (select 2):

a. 1st dose hypotension
b. Angioedema
c. Gout
d. Dry cough
e. Erectile dysfunction
f. Hyperkalemia
g. GI symptoms

A

ANSWER: d and e

Both ARBs and ACE inhibitors can cause 1st dose hypotension, angioedema, elevation of uric acid (gout), hyperkalemia, GI symptoms.

-Only ACE inhibitors cause dry cough and ED.

39
Q

Which of the following drugs are ACE inhibitors? (Select all that apply)

a. Zestril
b. Captopril
c. Chlorthalidone
d. Sacubitril
e. Enalapril

A

a, b, and e

  • Captopril, Lisinopril (Prinivil® and Zestril®), and Enalapril are all ACE inhibitors.
  • Chlorthalidone is a thiazide-like drug used as a NCC inhibitor in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys.
  • Sacubitril is a neprilysin inhibitor typically prescribed with an ARB to treat HF.
40
Q

True or False:

ACE inhibitors are safe for nursing women but not pregnant women.

A

False

ACE inhibitors are not safe for pregnant or nursing women.

41
Q

A woman comes in to your office to have her potassium levels checked. She is taking a new medication to help with her blood pressure. When you ask about her medical history, she mentions that her menstrual cycle has been irregular lately. Assuming that her medication is the cause, what type of medication is she most likely taking? (Bonus points if you can name the drug(s) in this class)

A

-Menstrual irregularities are an adverse effect associated with the MR blocker Spironolactone

  • The 2 MR blockers are:
    1. Spironolactone
    2. Eplerenone
42
Q

Which of the following drugs would you want to use to inhibit AT1R? (select all that apply)

a. Diovan
b. Valsartan
c. Entresto
d. Cozaar
e. Losartan

A

ANSWER: all of them

  • Valsartan is the generic version of Diovan
  • Losartan is the generic version Cozaar

-Entresto is a combination of Valsartan and Sacubitril. It will inhibit AT1R while also prolonging the effects of natriuretic peptides.

43
Q

True or False:

Spironolactone is considered a K+ sparing diuretic because of its action as a MR blocker.

A

True

  • Spironolactone is an MR blocker that will bind to the mineralocorticoid receptor in principal cells in the collecting duct thereby blocking aldosterone. Without aldosterone, ENaC transporters and Na+/K+ ATPase do not work. Because Na+ is not reabsorbed, K+ is not secreted. Consequently, K+ is spared.
44
Q

Which oral medication will block V2 receptors to prevent insertion of channels into the membrane to decrease reabsorption of water?

a. Tolvaptan
b. Metoprolol
c. Nesiritide
d. Mannitol
e. Conivaptan

A

ANSWER: a. Tolvaptan

  • Tolvaptan and conivaptan both act as V2 antagonists. Tolvaptan is given orally while Conivaptan is injected because it is a peptide.
  • Metoprolol is a B-blocker.
  • Nesiritide prolongs the effects of NPs
  • Mannitol is a sugar that has no target receptor.
45
Q

True or false:

All natriuretic peptides are produced in response to pressure changes sensed by baroreceptors.

A

False

  • ANP and BNP are both made in the heart as a response to pressure changes.
  • CNP is made by endothelial cells in response to sheer stress and cytokines.
  • Uroguanylin is a nonclassical NP made by enterocytes in response to salt ingestion.
46
Q

True or false:

All natriuretic peptides deal with an increase in blood volume by leading to natriuresis.

A

False

  • ANP, BNP and uroguanylin all lead to natriuresis.
  • CNP deals with an increase in blood volume by leading to vasodilation.
47
Q

A family member of a coma patient comes in for a visit. During the visit, you walk in and see that the family member, overcome with emotion, is hyperventilating. Regarding her blood pH, what is your concern and what is it about hyperventilating that can cause it?

A

The rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation means that CO2 is rapidly being lost from the blood as O2 is being inhaled which can lead to blood alkalosis.

48
Q

Of the three methods used by the body to make HCO3-, which method is associated with chronic diabetes?

a. Make bicarbonate using the breakdown of amino acids
b. Make bicarbonate using carbonic anhydrase (CA) in the proximal tubule.
c. Recycle bicarbonate using CO2 and OH-.
d. Make bicarbonate by breaking down water in the cell separating the proximal tubule and interstitial space. Combine CO2 with OH- and donate the extra proton to a phosphate.

A

ANSWER: a. Make bicarbonate using the breakdown of amino acids.

-With this method, glutamine is metabolized to generate NH4+ and OH-. CA is used to combine CO2 with OH- to make bicarbonate. This method occurs with chronic diseases.
-Normally, CAIV is used to cleave bicarbonate into CO2 and OH- in the proximal tubule. CO2 diffuses through the membrane while the OH- gains a proton in the tubule to become water and then diffuses through the membrane. CAII takes CO2 and OH- and recycles and reforms it into bicarbonate.
- The phosphate pathway involve breaking down water into OH- and H+. CA makes OH- and CO2 into bicarbonate. The proton diffuses into the proximal
tubule where it is picked up by a phosphate and excreted.

49
Q

Glucose is reabsorbed through the ________ family of transporters. The gradient is maintained by ____________ and _______________.

A
  1. SGLT

2. GLUT and 3. Na+/K+ pump

50
Q

SGLT2 blockers include which of the following: (Select 2)

a. Tekturna
b. Invokana
c. Mannitol
d. Lasix
e. Farxiga

A

ANSWER: b and e

-Invokana and Farxiga are SGLT2 blockers

  • Mannitol does not have a target
  • Lasix = furosemide; it is a loop diuretic
51
Q

A HTN patient is interested in reducing their risk of future cardiovascular events as much as possible. They are considering asking their doctor about hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone. Which one would you recommend and why?

A

ANSWER: Chlorthalidone.

Chlorthalidone is a thiazide like drug while hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide type drug.

There is sufficient evidence indicating that TL drugs are superior and provide greater reductions in cardiovascular events than TT drugs.

52
Q

You have a patient who has HTN and angina. Drugs from which of the following drug classes would this patient most commonly be prescribed to treat their HTN? (select all that apply)

a. A loop diuretic
b. A beta blocker
c. An ACE inhibitor
d. A calcium channel blocker
e. An osmotic diuretic

A

ANSWER: b and d

  • Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are commonly given to treat HTN in pt’s w/angina.
  • Diuretics and ACE inhibitors are alternate drugs given to treat HTN in pt’s with angina.
53
Q

True or false

A pheochromocytoma can cause a person to develop primary HTN.

A

False

  • The cause of HTN in a patient with primary HTN is unknown.
  • The cause of HTN in a patient with secondary HTN is known.
54
Q

A person has their BP measured and it comes up 118/81 mmHg. According to the new AHA guidelines, into what blood pressure category do they fall?

a. Normal BP
b. Elevated
c. Hypertension stage 1
d. Hypertension stage 2
e. Low BP

A

ANSWER: c. hypertension stage 1

Normal: < 120 / < 80
Prehypertension: 120-129 / <80
Stage 1: 130-139 / 80-89
Stage 2: >140 / >90

55
Q

Drugs from which of the following drug classes are most commonly prescribed to treat HTN in patients who also have insulin dependent diabetes and hyperlipidemia? (select all that apply)

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aquaretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Diuretic

A

ANSWER. a and d

  • ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers are most commonly prescribed to treat HTN in patients who have insulin dependent diabetes and/or hyperlipidemia.
  • Patients with insulin dependent diabetes and hyperlipidemia who also have HTN are not give diuretics or beta blockers to treat their HTN.
56
Q

Drugs from which of the following drug classes are most commonly prescribed to treat HTN in patients who also have CHF?(select all that apply)

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aquaretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Diuretic

A

ANSWER: a and e

  • ACE inhibitors and Diuretics are commonly used to treat HTN in patients who also have congestive heart failure
  • Calcium channel blockers are used as an alternative therapy with the exception of verapamil which would kill the pt.
  • Beta blockers are never given because it would likely kill the pt.
57
Q

Drugs from which of the following drug classes are most commonly prescribed to treat HTN in patients who also have had a previous myocardial infarction? (select all that apply)

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aquaretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Diuretic

A

ANSWER: a and c

  • ACE inhibitors and Beta blockers are the most commonly used drug to treat HTN in patients who also have had a previous myocardial infarction.
  • Diuretics and calcium channel blockers are used as alternate drug choices.`
58
Q

Drugs from which of the following drug classes are most commonly be prescribed to treat HTN in patients who also have chronic kidney disease? (select all that apply)

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aquaretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Diuretic

A

ANSWER: d and e

  • Diuretics and calcium channel blockers are most commonly used to treat HTN in pts w/concomitant chronic kidney disease
  • ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are used as alternative drug choices.
59
Q

Drugs from which of the following drug classes are most commonly be prescribed to treat HTN in patients who also have asthma or chronic pulmonary disease?(select all that apply)

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aquaretic
c. Beta blocker
d. Calcium channel blocker
e. Diuretic

A

ANSWER: d and e

  • Diuretics and calcium channel blockers are most commonly used to treat HTN in patients w/concomitant asthma or chronic pulmonary disease.
  • ACE inhibitors are used as an alternative drug choice.
  • Beta blockers are not used.
60
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors have which of the following effects on urine and blood pH?

a. Increased NaCl and HCO3- excretion, decreased K+ excretion, no effect on Ca2+, metabolic acidosis
b. Increased NaCl, Ca2+, and HCO3- excretion, increased K+ excretion, metabolic acidosis
c. Increased NaCl, K+, and HCO3- excretion, no effect on Ca2+, metabolic acidosis
d. Increased NaCl and HCO3- excretion, increased K+ excretion, decreased Ca2+, metabolic alkalosis

A

ANSWER:c. Increased NaCl, K+, and HCO3- excretion, no effect on Ca2+, metabolic acidosis

  • Increased NaCl excretion in the urine occurs because bicarbonate (and the proton used from the breakdown of carboxylic acid) is needed for transporters responsible for the reabsorption of Na in the proximal tubule.
  • The depletion of bicarbonate leads to acidosis.
  • CA inhibitors increase secretion of K+ in the distal tubule where aldosterone works to reabsorb Na.
61
Q

Acetazolamide can be used to treat all of the following except:

a. Mountain sickness
b. Blood alkalosis from the use of loop diuretics
c. Chronic glaucoma
d. Diabetes
e. Gout

A

ANSWER: d. diabetes

  • Acetazolamide is not used to treat diabetes.
  • Acetazolamide is a CA inhibitor that is useful topically to decrease the production of aqueous humor in pts who need a long-term treatment option for glaucoma.
  • CA inhibitors are sometimes used to correct acidosis caused by loop diuretics.
  • CA inhibitors are sometimes used to raise blood pH to increase the urinary solubility of uric acid. High levels of uric acid are seen in pts w/gout.