Books Flashcards

0
Q

Which drugs would you use to treat angular chelitis?

A

Fluconozole
Amphotericin
Nystatin

Miconazole

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1
Q

Which type of test would not be useful in diagnosis of angular chelitis?

A

Liver function test

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2
Q

Which drugs commonly cause Steven johsons syndrome?

A

Sulphonamides

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3
Q

What are the causes of burning mouth syndrome?

A
Vitamin b def
Type 2 diabetes
Xerostomia
Poorly made dentures
Allergy
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4
Q

Which human herpes virus is associated with kaposis sarcoma?

A

HHV8

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5
Q

How many types of kaposis sarcoma are there?

A

3
Classic
Endemic
Epidemic

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6
Q

Where is carbamezapine metabolised?

A

Liver

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7
Q

Which autoantibodies are associated with SLE?

A

Anti smith

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8
Q

What does CREST stand for?

A
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophogeal dismotility
Scleroderma
Telangiectasia
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9
Q

What disease are bench jones protein measured in?1

A

Multiple myeloma

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10
Q

What is the effect of Vit B12 on the nerves?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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11
Q

T/f Vit b12 def can cause oral ulceration?

A

T

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12
Q

What are the rare complications of chicken pox?

A

Encephalitis and pneumonia

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13
Q

What are the most common benign and maligant tumours of the parotid glands?

A

Benign: pleiomorphic adenoma
Malignant: mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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14
Q

Which nerve runs closely to the submandibular gland?

A

Hypoglossal

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15
Q

T/f vicryl is a Resorbable suture?

A

T

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16
Q

What re the articular surfaces of the TMJ covered by?

A

Fibrocartilage

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17
Q

Where does the Stylomandibular ligament pass with respect to the parotid gland?

A

Medial

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18
Q

What structure does the lingual nerve loop around in the floor of the mouth?

A

Whartons duct (duct from SM gland)

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19
Q

How long should you keep patient notes for?

A

11 years or until a child is 25 which ever is the longer one

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20
Q

Sterilisation times and temps for instruments ?

A

112 for 15 mins

134 for 3 mins

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21
Q

What are masters retractors used for?

A

Retraction of flaps during extrsction of upper 8’s

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22
Q

How many sections can temporalis be divided into?

A

3 posterior middle and anterior

Middle and anterior are for elevation of mandible

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23
Q

What is the nerve supply for the tongue?

A

Anterior 2/3:
Taste: corda tympani (branch of facial)
General sensation: lingual
Movement: hypoglossal

Poster 1/3
Taste: Glosso
Gen sensation: gloss
Movement : hypoglossal

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24
Q

If rigid fixation is used during surgery for facial fracture repair what does this mean?

A

Rigid prevents micro movement about the fracture line preventing infection and aiding healing

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25
Q

Which phase of amalgam is responsible for creep?

A

Gamma 2

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26
Q

Which element reduces the amount of creep?

A

Copper

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27
Q

Etched enamel has what type of surface enters?

A

High therefore does not need wetting

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28
Q

What’s the function of a Dentine primer?

A

Wets the dentine ( increase surface energy)

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29
Q

What’s the function of a dentine conditioner?

A

Remove smear layer

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30
Q

What size overjet is IOTN 4?

A

6-9mm

31
Q

What open bite is IOTN 4?

A

4mm

32
Q

What type of anaesthetic is lidocaine?

A

Amide

33
Q

What voltage X-ray do we use?

A

70kv

34
Q

Who sets the dose limits For xrays?

A

IRR

35
Q

What is the annual dose limit for classified workers?

A

20mSv

36
Q

What is the annual dose limit for non classified workers?

A

6mSv

37
Q

What is the annual dose limit for general public?

A

1 mSv

38
Q

What is the radiation dose for an OPG?

A

0.01msv

39
Q

What is the dose to the patient for an OPG?

A

0.034mSv

40
Q

What is the name of the Endodontic file used to explore apical area of the canal?

A

Seeker

41
Q

Which organ absorbs fluoride?

A

Stomach

42
Q

Ketoacidosis is more common in which type of diabetics?

A

Type 1

43
Q

What is the name of the initiator in acrylic resin?

A

Benzoyl peroxide

44
Q

What is the name of the inhibitor in acrylic resins?

A

Hydroquinone

45
Q

What are the three main components of dental composites?

A

Inorganic filler
Resin
Coupling agents eg gamma MPTS

46
Q

TF Keratocyts can be both unilocular and multilocular ?

A

T

47
Q

What feature do all giant cell lesions have?

A

Cross the midline

48
Q

Giant cell lesions are usually seen in which age group?

A

Young adults

49
Q

Pale films can result from?

A

Underexposure

Developer too dilute/weAk of being contaminated by the fixer

50
Q

What would happen to he image if the film was out of date?

A

The image would appear foggy

51
Q

What do the international commission for Radiation Protrction do?

A

Limitation
Screening
Optimisation

52
Q

TF an adequately trained nurse can take an X-ray?

A

T

53
Q

What are the two types of stochiastic effects?

A

Genetic and somatic (they may occur )

54
Q

What are the deterministic effects?

A

They will defo occur and are somatic

55
Q

What happens when the film is placed in the fixer solution?

A

Unsensitised silver halide crystals are removed and exposes the white areas of the film

56
Q

Is the developer alkali or acidic?

A

Alkali

57
Q

When is the charter tooth brushing good?

A

Perio surgery and ortho

58
Q

When is the fines technique good?

A

Poor manual dexterity

59
Q

How far do the bristles in the bass go down the pocket?

A

3mm

60
Q

Which nerve supplies buccal gingiva of the lower?

A

Long buccal

61
Q

What does the antibody to HBsAg mean?

A

AB present if they have been successfully immunised or mounted an immune response.

62
Q

Who are at risk from bacterial endocarditis?

A

Previous
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral valve regurgitation

Heart murmur
Congenital Cardiac

63
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis?

A

1:1000 0.5ml adren IM

64
Q

What is the managemt of diabetics unconscious?

A

1mg glucagon IM

65
Q

Which drug in addition to adrenaline can be given in anaphylaxis?

A

10-20mg chlorphenamine

66
Q

When is an AED used?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

67
Q

Hashimoto disease causes what?

A

Auto immune destruction of thyroid gland

68
Q

How long does it take to see acute osteomyelitis on an X-ray?

A

About 10 days

69
Q

Page 93

A

Syphylitic

70
Q

Dry mouth occurs when salivary flow rate falls below what?

A

0.1ml/min

71
Q

Which nerve loops around the SM duct?

A

Lingual

72
Q

What leaches out of soft liners to make them hard?

A

Aromatic esters

73
Q

What are the signs of lidocaine over dose?

A

Light headlines and convulsions

74
Q

What antibiotic causes red man syndrome?

A

Vancomycin