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Perio > BookQuestions Ch.10-12, 16-22, 24-25 > Flashcards

BookQuestions Ch.10-12, 16-22, 24-25 Flashcards

Exam 2 Review

1
Q

The key to answering the second basic diagnostic question is:

A. Gingival bleeding

B. Attachment loss

C. Tooth mobility

A

B. Attachment loss

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2
Q

Migration of the junctional epithelium to a position apical to the level

of the CEJ is termed:

A. The natural level of the gingival attachment

B. Change inconsistency

C. Attachment loss

A

C. Attachment loss

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3
Q

Signs of periodontal disease are features of the disease that are observed by:

A. The patient

B. The clinician

C. Both A and B

A

B. The clinician

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4
Q

The natural level of the junctional epithelium is located:

A. At the same level as the CEJ

B. Apical to the CEJ

C. Coronal to the CEJ

A

A. At the same level as the CEJ

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5
Q

Staging of periodontitis defines the:

A. Severity of disease

B. Extent of disease

C. Rate of progression of disease

D. Category of disease

A

A. Severity of disease

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6
Q

ADA Case Type II patients are defined as patients having:

A. Gingivitis only

B. Slight (mild) periodontitis

C. Moderate periodontitis

A

B. Slight (mild) periodontitis

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7
Q

Self-care education for a patient is normally provided during which phase of treatment?

A. Assessment phase and preliminary therapy

B. Nonsurgical periodontal therapy phase

C. Restorative therapy phase

A

B. Nonsurgical periodontal therapy phase

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8
Q

Disease grading indicates:

A. Severity of disease

B. Extent of disease

C. Rate of progression of disease

D. Category of disease

A

D. Category of disease

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9
Q

A systematic approach to clinical problem solving which allows the integration of best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values is called___________.

A. Systematic review

B. Evidence-based health care

C. Shared decision making

A

B. Evidence-based health care

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10
Q

Examples of shared decision-making characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Establish patient preferences

B. Develop a treatment plan for what you think is best for the patient

C. Identify important patient goals

D. Develop a periodontal care plan with the patient

A

B. Develop a treatment plan for what you think is best for the patient

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11
Q

Sharing expertise includes:

A. Dentist and hygienist collaboration

B. Family and friends

C. Providing research to the patient

D. Clinician and patient collaboration

A

D. Clinician and patient collaboration

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12
Q

Factors that increase an individual’s susceptibility to periodontitis by modifying the host response to bacterial infection are called:

A. Contributing factors

B. Genetic influences

C. Neutrophils

D. Biologic equilibrium

A

A. Contributing factors = Genetic influences

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13
Q

Periodontal risk questionnaires may be helpful in:

A. Identifying individual who are at high risk for periodontal disease

B. Eliciting the presence of common periodontal risk factors

C. Initiating a discussion with patients about periodontal risk factors

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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14
Q

Periodontitis has a multifactorial etiology, and social atmosphere can be a contributing risk factor for periodontal disease.

A. The first phrase is true, the second phrase is false

B. The first phrase is false, the second phrase is true

C. Both phrases are true

D. Both phrases are false

A

C. Both phrases are true

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15
Q

Factors that increase an individual’s susceptibility to periodontitis by modifying the host response to bacterial infection are called:

A. Systemic risk factors

B. Genetic influences

C. Neutrophils

D. Biologic equilibrium

A

A. Systemic risk factors

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16
Q

In smokers, smoking cessation might prevent more periodontal disease than daily plaque control.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

Smoking may increase the risk for periodontal disease by at least

two to three times.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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18
Q

Persons with well-controlled diabetes have no more periodontal disease than persons without diabetes.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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19
Q

Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to have periodontitis?

A. An individual with well-controlled diabetes

B. An individual who does not have diabetes

C. An individual with poorly controlled diabetes

A

C. An individual with poorly controlled diabetes

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20
Q

Levels of sex hormones may have an effect on the periodontium.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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21
Q

ALL pregnant women develop gingivitis.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

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22
Q

Certain individuals have a genetically determined immune response that predisposes them to periodontal disease.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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23
Q

Abnormalities in PMN function can lead to overwhelming systemic bacterial infection and increased susceptibility to severe periodontal destruction.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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24
Q

Individuals with Down Syndrome rarely develop periodontitis.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

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25
Q

Which of the following medications commonly cause gingival hyperplasia?

A. Tetracycline (Achromycin)

B. Ibuprofen (Advil, Midol, Nuprin)

C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

D. Alprazolam (Xanax)

A

C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

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26
Q

High financial stress increases the incidence of periodontal disease

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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27
Q

All of the following are metabolic syndrome disturbances that increase risk for periodontal disease EXCEPT:

A. High blood pressure

B. High blood sugar

C. Abnormal cholesterol levels

D. Gout

A

D. Gout

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28
Q

Calculus is considered a local risk factor because:

A. The surface of calculus is irregular and provides a place for bacteria to grow undisturbed

B. The bacteria derive many of their needed nutrients from the hard calculus deposits

C. The surface of calculus can damage the adjacent soft tissue through direct trauma

D. Calculus is the primary cause of periodontal disease

A

A. The surface of calculus is irregular and provides a place for bacteria to grow undisturbed

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for attachment of calculus to a tooth surface?

A. Attachment by means of pellicle

B. Attachment to the blood clots that can form on the tooth

C. Attachment to irregularities that occur in the surface of a tooth

D. Attachment by direct contact of the calcified component and the tooth surface

A

B. Attachment to the blood clots that can form on the tooth

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30
Q

The term overhanging restoration refers to restorations (or fillings) that:

A. Are accidentally placed on the wrong tooth

B. Are not smoothly contoured with the tooth surface

C. Contain grooves or concavities in the surface of the restoration

D. Cover the entire anatomical crown of the tooth

A

B. Are not smoothly contoured with the tooth surface

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31
Q

Pathogenicity of plaque refers to:

A. The ability of plaque to contribute to tooth staining

B. The likelihood that the patient will be able to detect the plaque

C. Damage to the periodontium from occlusal forces

D. Disease-causing potential of the plaque

A

D. Disease-causing potential of the plaque

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32
Q

Parafunctional occlusal forces are forces placed on the teeth that:

A. Occur only during the act of chewing food

B. Occur from repeated use of chewing gum

C. Result from tooth to tooth contact other than during chewing food

D. Can be detected only after occlusal adjustment

A

C. Result from tooth to tooth contact other than during chewing food

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33
Q

Which of the following can result in direct damage to the periodontium?

A. Failure to remove plaque from the surfaces of teeth

B. A dental prosthesis that impinges on the gingiva

C. Way too many soft foods in the diet

D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

Failure to remove plaque from the surfaces of teeth

and

A dental prosthesis that impinges on the gingiva

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34
Q

A healthy immune system decreases the incidence of periodontal disease.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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35
Q

Research shows that diets high in refined carbohydrates increase the risk for periodontal disease.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

36
Q

Emerging scientific evidence indicates obesity appears to play a role in the etiology of periodontal disease.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

37
Q

Diets deficient in vitamin D, calcium, and antioxidants increase the risk for periodontal disease.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

38
Q

Antioxidants are substances that occur naturally in the body and certain foods inhibit oxidation and may block damage to cells by free radicals.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

39
Q

Vitamin C has effective antioxidant properties and helps protect against the ROS generated during inflammatory responses.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

40
Q

In comparing smokers and nonsmokers with periodontitis, smokers have all of the following EXCEPT:

A. More attachment loss

B. More gingival recession

C. Fewer teeth with furcation involvement

D. More tooth loss

A

C. Fewer teeth with furcation involvement

41
Q

The effect of smoking and periodontal destruction is dose-dependent with number of cigarettes daily. Nonsmokers and smokers heal well in response to periodontal treatment.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second false

D. The first statement is false, the second true

A

C. The first statement is true,

the second statement false

42
Q

What percentage of the periodontitis cases among adults in the United States is associated with current and former smoking?

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 35%

D. Greater than 50%

A

D. Greater than 50%

approximately half of periodontitis cases could be attributed to either

current (42.9%) smoking

or

former smoking (10.9%).

43
Q

Smokers are at higher risk for tooth loss. In smokers, the periodontal tissues are continuously exposed to more than 4,000 toxins in smoke.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second false

D. The first statement is false, the second true

A

A. Both statements are true

44
Q

In smokers, the clinical signs of inflammation, such as redness and bleeding upon probing, are:

A. Diminished, less evident, than in nonsmokers

B. Exaggerated in comparison to inflammation in nonsmokers

C. Similar to that of nonsmokers

D. Bleeding is more pronounced

A

A. Diminished, less evident, than in nonsmokers

45
Q

In smokers, the lack of bleeding on probing does NOT indicate healthy tissue as it does in nonsmokers.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

46
Q

Smoking cessation is beneficial to periodontal health. The American Academy of Periodontology does NOT recommend including tobacco cessation counseling in periodontal therapy.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second false

D. The first statement is false, the second true

A

C. The first statement is true, the second statement false

47
Q

The comprehensive periodontal assessment is a rapid information-gathering process to determine health versus disease.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False (not rapid)

in-depth information-gathering process
used to gather the detailed data needed to document the complete
periodontal health status of a patient.

48
Q

The PSR (Periodontal Screening and Recording) requires that the clinician probe which of the following tooth surfaces?

A. Only the facial surfaces of the teeth

B. Only the lingual surfaces of the teeth

C. Only the mesial and distal surfaces of the teeth

D. All surfaces of the teeth

A

D. All surfaces of the teeth

49
Q

During a comprehensive periodontal assessment, probing depth measurements are recorded on how many surfaces of each tooth?

A. 1 surface

B. 2 surfaces

C. 4 surfaces

D. 6 surfaces

A

D. 6 surfaces

50
Q

Which of the following is a synonym for exudate?

A. Pus

B. Blood

C. Calculus

D. Fremitus

A

A. Pus

51
Q

Gingival recession means that the free gingival margin is:

A. Coronal to the CEJ

B. At the same level as the CEJ

C. Apical to the CEJ

D. Even with the free gingival margin of the adjacent teeth

A

C. Apical to the CEJ

52
Q

When measuring tooth mobility, the preferred clinical technique is for the clinician to trap each tooth between:

A. Two fingers

B. One finger and an instrument handle

C. Two instrument handles

D. The working ends of two probes

A

C. Two instrument handles

53
Q

Furcation involvement is measured with what type of instrument?

A. Explorer

B. Curved periodontal probe

C. Straight periodontal probe

D. Gracey curette

A

B. Curved periodontal probe

54
Q

Attached gingiva is the part of the gingiva that is tightly connected to the cementum or periosteum.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

55
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate measurement of tooth support?

A. Probing depths

B. Clinical attachment levels

A

B. Clinical attachment levels

56
Q

All of the following are radiolucent materials and structures, EXCEPT:

A. Tooth pulp

B. Enamel

C. Periodontal ligament space

D. Marrow spaces in the bone

A

B. Enamel

57
Q

The normal level of the alveolar bone is approximately ________ apical to the cementoenamel junction.

A. 0.5 mm

B. Less than 1 mm

C. 2 mm

D. 3 mm

A

C. 2 mm

58
Q

When one of two adjacent teeth is tilted or erupted to a different height than its neighboring tooth, the crest of the interproximal bone will have a _________ crest contour.

A. Angular

B. Horizontal

C. Parallel

D. Vertical

A

A. Angular

59
Q

The alveolar bone proper is the thin layer of dense bone that lines a normal tooth socket. On a radiograph, the alveolar bone proper is identified as the:

A. Alveolar bone proper

B. Periodontal ligament space

C. Cortical bone

D. Lamina dura

A

D. Lamina dura (strong bone)

60
Q

On a radiograph, widening of the periodontal ligament space is an indication of:

A. Tooth mobility

B. A partially erupted tooth

C. Triangulation

D. Subgingival calculus

A

A. Tooth mobility

61
Q

On a radiograph, when the crestal bone between two adjacent teeth has a pointed, triangular appearance, this is termed:

A. Tooth mobility

B. A partially erupted tooth

C. Triangulation

D. Subgingival calculus

A

C. Triangulation

62
Q

Radiographs may useful in visualizing all of the following signs of periodontitis, EXCEPT:

A. Periodontal pockets

B. Horizontal bone loss

C. Vertical bone loss

D. Recognition of local contributing risk factors

A

A. Periodontal pockets

63
Q

The best method for detection of subgingival calculus deposits is:

A. Dental radiograph

B. Periodontal explorer

A

B. Periodontal explorer

64
Q

Which of the following is a component of evidenced-based care?

A. Scientific evidence

B. Clinical experience

C. Patient preference

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

65
Q

Which type of evidence carries the highest rank?

A. Randomized clinical trial

B. Systematic review

C. Cohort study

D. Case-controlled study

A

B. Systematic review

66
Q

The tendency to look for or interpret information that confirms our beliefs is called:

A. Natural selection

B. Affirmative action

C. Confirmation bias

D. Best practice

A

C. Confirmation bias

67
Q

Factors that influence the type of care a patient selects include:

A. Cost of care

B. Pain associated with treatment

C. Insurance benefits

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

68
Q

A well-rounded continuing education course will spur the need to?

A. Re-affirm some current ways of practicing

B. Re-energize the need to make change

C. Re-examine new ideas or concepts

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

69
Q

New products and research are always superior to the traditional way of doing things.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

70
Q

Peer-reviewed journals use a panel of experts to review research articles for study design, statistics, and conclusions.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

71
Q

The goal of best practice is consistent, superior patient outcomes.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

72
Q

Which of the following is NOT a goal of nonsurgical periodontal therapy?

A. Minimize the bacterial challenge to the patient

B. Eliminate the need for daily self-care

C. Stabilize the attachment level on the teeth

A

B. Eliminate the need for daily self-care

73
Q

Successful periodontal debridement always results in the complete removal of all cementum from a root surface exposed due to clinical attachment loss.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

74
Q

The endpoint for periodontal debridement is which of the following?

A. Return of soft tissue health

B. Increased pigmentation of the gingiva

C. Decreased need for daily self-care

A

A. Return of soft tissue health

75
Q

The type of healing that occurs following successful root instrumentation is a long junctional epithelium.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

76
Q

Pain caused by dentinal hypersensitivity can result from mechanical, thermal, or chemical stimuli.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

77
Q

Management of mild dentinal hypersensitivity following nonsurgical periodontal therapy can include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Meticulous efforts at daily self-care

B. Using chemical agents in toothpaste to occlude (block) dentinal tubules

C. Applying acidic solutions to the exposed tooth roots

A

C. Applying acidic solutions to the exposed tooth roots

78
Q

When considering a decision for a referral to a specialist in periodontics which of the following type of patients should normally be referred?

A. Patients with moderate plaque-induced gingivitis

B. Patients with Stage I periodontitis

C. Patients with Stage III periodontitis

A

C. Patients with Stage III periodontitis

79
Q

Who should be involved in determining which devices and aids a patient uses for plaque control?

A. The dentist

B. The dental hygienist

C. The patient

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

80
Q

Power toothbrushes should be recommended ONLY for individuals with a disability.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

81
Q

Patients with type II embrasure spaces need to use interdental brushes and wooden toothpicks to effectively control plaque biofilm.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

82
Q

A coated tongue is the primary oral malodor inducing factor.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

83
Q

Which of the following interdental aids would be recommended for a patient with type I embrasure spaces throughout the mouth?

A. An interdental brush

B. Standard dental floss

C. Tufted dental floss

D. Toothpick and Holder

A

B. Standard dental floss

84
Q

Which of the following might be recommended for plaque removal in an exposed furcation area on a tooth that has experienced gingival recession?

A. An interdental brush

B. Standard dental floss

C. Tufted dental floss

D. Toothpick and Holder

A

A. An interdental brush

85
Q

Which of the following is the most effective means for cleaning exposed root concavities?

A. An interdental brush

B. Standard dental floss

C. Tufted dental floss

D. Toothpick and Holder

A

A. An interdental brush

86
Q

Dental floss has shown to provide superior biofilm and bleeding reductions when compared to alternative interdental aids.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

Perio (3 decks)

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