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CompTIA Network+ > Book-Cards-Pt3 - Sheet 1 (2) > Flashcards

Book-Cards-Pt3 - Sheet 1 (2) Flashcards

1
Q

qtext

A

answer

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2
Q

Which routing protocol uses a composite metric of bandwidth and delay of the line to find the best path to a remote network?

A

EIGRP

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6
Q

Which command will display the current contents of the ARP cache on the local workstation?

A

arp -a

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8
Q

A network device that is used to connect multiple devices without segmenting a network is a ?

A

Hub

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9
Q

The Spanning Tree Protocol allows for redundancy of what networking device?

A

Bridge (switch)

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10
Q

Which can operate at both Layers 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model?

A

Layer 3 switch

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11
Q

SMTP resides at what layer of the OSI model?

A

Application

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12
Q

A user discovers that their wireless 802.11g Internet connection is intermittently disrupted. What can typically cause this problem?

A

Cordless phones and/or microwave ovens

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13
Q

Which device helps to increase the number of collision domains?

A

Switch

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14
Q

Which logical physical topology does 802.3 utilize?

A

Bus

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15
Q

Which wireless standard has a maximum data rate of 11Mbps?

A

802.11b

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16
Q

What functionality does Kerberos provide?

A

Authentication of security principles and authorization of access to resources

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17
Q

What TCP/IP port numbers does FTP utilize?

A

20 and 21. 20 is FTP data or a client, and 21 is an FTP server.

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18
Q

At what layer of the OSI model does UDP reside?

A

Transport

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19
Q

Convert the following binary string to its dotted decimal address: 11000000.10101000.01100011.00011010

A

192.168.99.26

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20
Q

100BaseTX uses how many pairs of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cables?

A

2 pairs

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21
Q

What device connects computers with wireless adapters to a network in infrastructure mode?

A

Access point

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22
Q

Converting analog signals to digital signals and digital signals to analog signals can be done using what device?

A

Modem. Dial-up modems are rarely used today, but cable modems are.

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23
Q

The maximum segment length for Ethernet is .

A

100 meters (328 feet)

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24
Q

What is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

A

54Mbps (megabits per second)

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25
Q

Which techniques would increase the bandwidth for network transmission by joining multiple connections into one logical connection?

A

Bonding

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26
Q

True/False: Firewalls are used to prevent packets from entering and leaving a network.

A

TRUE

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27
Q

Which device can never run full duplex?

A

Hub

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28
Q

A valid Media Access Control (MAC) address is how many bytes long?

A

6

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29
Q

What well-known port does Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) use?

A

69

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30
Q

In which OSI layer does a bridge operate?

A

Data Link

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31
Q

An IT specialist is going to implement a packet filter on a network for Internet connections. What port must they allow through the firewall for users to connect to the Web?

A

80

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32
Q

What is the name of the point where local exchange carrier responsibility ends?

A

Demarc

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33
Q

What protocol translates the IP address to its physical network address?

A

ARP

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34
Q

Ethernet networking is known as a physical topology.

A

Star

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35
Q

What is the default port for HTTPS?

A

443

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36
Q

In the Media Access Control (MAC) address 00:B0:D0:6A:F2:B5, what does 00:B0:D0 identify?

A

The manufacturer of the device, known as the OUI

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37
Q

Which network segment is located outside the firewall?

A

DMZ

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38
Q

A network administrator needs to establish a remote connection to a client machine. Telnet is not secure because everything is sent in the clear. Which protocol and port number should be used instead?

A

Secure Shell (SSH), port 22

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43
Q

What fiber connector looks similar to an RJ-45 connector and connects two strands of fiber?

A

Mechanical transfer registered jack (MT-RJ)

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44
Q

What cable type is used to link together two buildings that are over 10 miles (16.09 kilometers) apart?

A

Single-mode fiber (SMF)

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45
Q

What is the maximum Cat 3 length acceptable for a horizontal cross-connect?

A

100 meters (328 feet)

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46
Q

An optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR) can be used to assess what?

A

Fiber segments

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47
Q

What level of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does a proxy server operate in?

A

Application

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48
Q

What device is used to create a virtual local area network (VLAN)?

A

Switch

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51
Q

What protocol creates a secure connection between a web browser and a web server and is an alternative to using Telnet?

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

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52
Q

True/False: If an administrator wants to set up an email server to exchange emails with other servers over the Internet, Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) would be utilized.

A

TRUE

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53
Q

Which remote access authentication protocol allows usernames and passwords to be transmitted as clear text?

A

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP), which has been replaced by CHAP.

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54
Q

At what layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does a router function?

A

Network

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55
Q

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) utilizes what well-known Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) port number?

A

25

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57
Q

A technician pings 127.0.0.1 and gets the following result - Unable to contact IP driver, error code 2. - What should you do now?

A

Reinstall the TCP/IP protocol

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58
Q

True/False: 172.192.4.256 is a valid Internet Protocol (IP) address.

A

False

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59
Q

What Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer converts digital data into electronic signals to be put on a wire?

A

Physical

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60
Q

True/False: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used for error reporting with Internet Protocol (IP).

A

TRUE

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61
Q

Which WAN technologies uses 30 64Kpbs channels?

A

E-1

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62
Q

What network hardware allows most traffic collisions?

A

Hub

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63
Q

Which system detects and reports attempts of unauthorized access to the network?

A

IDS

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64
Q

True/False: 32-bit is a valid Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) key.

A

FALSE

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65
Q

True/False: 1000Mbps is known as 1000 terabytes per second.

A

False. It means gigabyte per second.

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66
Q

True/False: One of the purposes of a virtual local area network (VLAN) is to add more users.

A

False. It is to break up broadcast domains.

67
Q

Which device would administer routing in a network?

A

Router, or Layer 3 switch

69
Q

True/False: If a network administrator needs to restrict access to certain websites, a proxy server should be implemented.

A

TRUE

70
Q

A technician is terminating a line that was extending an Ethernet jack to a wiring closet. Which hardware tool is necessary to complete the task?

A

Punch-down tool

71
Q

What is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another?

A

Router, or Layer 3 switch

73
Q

At what two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does a packet-filtering firewall operate?

A

Network and Transport

74
Q

How many pairs are crossed in a crossover cable?

A

Two

75
Q

True/False: The maximum speed of 802.11b is 54Mbps (megabits per second).

A

FALSE

76
Q

True/False: The maximum speed of 802.11b is 11Mbps (megabits per second).

A

TRUE

77
Q

Which documentation would a network administrator need to update if they have just finished upgrading the firmware on all switches within the LAN?

A

Physical network diagram

78
Q

True/False: The number of wireless users will affect the range of an 802.11b wireless access point (WAP).

A

False. It will affect the throughput but not the distance.

79
Q

True/False: 1000BaseCX is an Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) copper cable standard.

A

TRUE

80
Q

True/False: A mesh network has the least collisions.

A

TRUE

81
Q

True/False: Mesh network topology uses the most cable of any physical topology.

A

TRUE

82
Q

True/False: 100BaseFX runs over Category 5e cable.

A

FALSE

83
Q

True/False: 100BaseFX runs over multimode fiber (MMF) cable.

A

TRUE

84
Q

What is the maximum cable type required for 100BaseTX?

A

Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)

85
Q

True/False: Using a wireless access point (WAP), you can bridge an 802.3 network to an 802.11 network.

A

TRUE

86
Q

Which type of connector does a 10BaseFL network use?

A

Straight tip (ST)

87
Q

True/False: The 802.11b/g frequency band is 2.4GHz (gigahertz).

A

TRUE

88
Q

Which protocol permits secure polling network devices?

A

SNMPv3

89
Q

Which is a topology used in networks for its scalability?

A

Star

90
Q

What is part of the IP suite and is used to monitor network-managed devices?

A

SNMP

92
Q

A technician is extending a data circuit to the other side of the building. What would the technician set up at the new location?

A

IDF

93
Q

Among the encryption protocols that the DoD says are unbreakable, which is the best?

A

AES

94
Q

What encryption protocol or standard allows you to create a virtual subnet on an intranet?

A

SSL VPN

95
Q

Which user-authentication method uses a public key and private key pair?

A

PKI

96
Q

True/False: RIPv2 is a hybrid routing protocol.

A

FALSE

97
Q

True/False: RIPv1 is a link state routing protocol.

A

FALSE

98
Q

Which two software types would be used for identifying an attack?

A

IDS and IPS

99
Q

A client purchases a new wireless printer and wants to be able to bond it their PDA. What is the name of the technology that describes the type of wireless printer that was purchased?

A

Bluetooth

100
Q

True/False: Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) uses 128-bit addresses.

A

TRUE

101
Q

A technician has just finished implementing a solution for a network issue. What steps in should the technician do next?

A

Document the issue and the solution that was implemented.

102
Q

True/False: A denial of service (DoS) attack is meant to prevent users from accessing a system.

A

TRUE

103
Q

True/False: IP spoofing is the process of sending a packet with a fake source address, pretending that the packet is coming from within the network the hacker is trying to attack.

A

TRUE

104
Q

Which routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing table?

A

BGP

105
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a switch and has identified the symptoms. What step should the technician take next?

A

Escalate the issue.

106
Q

What kind of tool could a hacker use to intercept traffic on your network?

A

Packet sniffer

107
Q

Remote users are having problems accessing files from a file server. Which should a technician check first?

A

Connectivity

108
Q

Which type of virus attacks executable application and system program files?

A

File virus

109
Q

Which monitoring software is used to view a network at the frame level?

A

Packet sniffer

110
Q

A technician needs to test a wire that is in the wall. What is the best way for the technician to identify the wire’s location?

A

Use a tone generator

111
Q

What devices allow segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains?

A

Switches

112
Q

What is the maximum transmission distance of 10GBaseLR?

A

6 miles

113
Q

In which layer of the OSI model does IPSec operate?

A

Network (Layer 3)

114
Q

What tool would be used to test the break in a fiber connection on the network?

A

OTDR

115
Q

True/False: A rogue access point is where a switch has been installed on a network without the administrator’s knowledge.

A

False. Where an AP has been installed without permission.

116
Q

True/False: Phishing/social engineering refers to the act of attempting to illegally obtain sensitive information by pretending to be a credible source.

A

TRUE

117
Q

What are the three main types of intruder detection and defense?

A

Active detection, passive detection, proactive defense

118
Q

What defines how security will be implemented in an organization, including physical security, document security, and network security?

A

Security policy

119
Q

What authentication method allows for domain-level authentication on a wireless network?

A

RADIUS

120
Q

A company is in the process of upgrading its network infrastructure to support new VoIP telephony equipment. What is a primary feature to consider when selecting a new switch to support the phones?

A

PoE

121
Q

True/False: A security procedure defines the appropriate response to a security event on your network.

A

TRUE

122
Q

What are the three primary LAN topologies?

A

Bus, ring, and star, but we only use bus in today’s LANs.

123
Q

What common WAN topology often results in multiple connections to a single site, leading to a high degree of fault tolerance?

A

Mesh

124
Q

What is the term for a device that shares its resources with other network devices?

A

Server

125
Q

What network model draws a clear distinction between devices that share their resources and devices that do not?

A

Client-server

126
Q

Which network topology or connection type can be implemented with only two endpoints?

A

Point-to-point

127
Q

Will a computer that shares no resources most likely be connected to the backbone or to a segment?

A

Segment

128
Q

Which LAN topology is characterized by all devices being daisy-chained together with the devices at each end being connected to only one other device?

A

Bus

129
Q

True/False: RIP is a vendor-neutral routing protocol that uses very little bandwidth but a lot of memory on a router.

A

False. Yes, RIP is vendor neutral, but it uses little router processing and a lot of bandwidth to do its job.

130
Q

True/False: OSPF is a hybrid routing protocol.

A

FALSE

131
Q

True/False: EIGRP is used to update the ARP tables on a router.

A

FALSE

132
Q

What does the acronym ICMP stand for?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol

133
Q

True/False: EIGRP is a classful routing protocol.

A

FALSE

134
Q

True/False: EIGRP has no version that supports IPv6.

A

FALSE

135
Q

True/False: OSPF is a link state protocol that supports VLSM and classless routing.

A

TRUE

136
Q

True/False: RIPv1 is a distance vector protocol that does not support VLSM and supports only classful routing.

A

TRUE

137
Q

What does the acronym IS-IS stand for?

A

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System

138
Q

What does the acronym IDS stand for?

A

Intrusion detection system

139
Q

What WAN protocol is described as residing in Layer 2.5 of the OSI model?

A

MPLS

140
Q

True/False: If you can ping a host, this does not mean you can access its services.

A

TRUE

142
Q

What is another name for the Media Access Control (MAC) address?

A

Physical address or hardware address

143
Q

Which LAN connection technology has a full-duplex speed of 200Mbps and uses a Cat 5e cable?

A

100BaseT

144
Q

What is the Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) loopback address?

A

127.0.0.1

145
Q

An Ethernet Media Access Control (MAC) address consists of how many bits?

A

48

146
Q

True/False: EIGRP uses hop count as a metric to determine the best path to a remote network.

A

FALSE

147
Q

Why would you use dynamic routing over static routing?

A

It updates the routing table automatically and scales to large networks.

148
Q

True/False: OSPF can be used only on Cisco routers.

A

FALSE

149
Q

True/False: DSL is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet hub.

A

FALSE

150
Q

True/False: SDSL means that your download and upload speeds on the line are different.

A

TRUE

151
Q

True/False: A link light is the small, usually red, LED on the back of a network card.

A

FALSE

152
Q

True/False: ADSL means that the uplink and download speeds of a DSL link are the same.

A

TRUE

CompTIA Network+ (30 decks)

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