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HUBS 191 > Bone and Muscle > Flashcards

Bone and Muscle Flashcards

1
Q

superior

A

closer to the head (ie. higher)

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2
Q

what plane does rotation occur in

A

the transverse plane

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3
Q

rotation

A

the turning/pivoting of a bone at a joint

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4
Q

what plane(s) does circumduction occur in?

A

sagittal, coronal

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5
Q

circumduction

A

the sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, adduction

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6
Q

what plane does abduction and adduction occur in

A

the coronal

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7
Q

Abduction

A

the movement away from the median line of the body

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8
Q

adduction

A

the reverse of abduction

the movement towards the median line of the body

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9
Q

Extension

A

the opposite of flexion

increasing the angle between the two bones at a joint to straighten

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10
Q

Extracellular material (and/or fluids) and cells combine to form

A

Tissues

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11
Q

radius rotating over ulna is

A

pronation

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12
Q

radius and ulna are parallel is

A

supination

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13
Q

Long bones are ________ and have __________ and _____________

A
  • bones that are longer than they are wide
  • have a long shaft (diaphysis)
  • have two expanded ends (epiphyses)
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14
Q

short bones

A

bones that are roughly the same width and length and are often rounded or cube shaped

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15
Q

irregular bones

A

bones that do not fit the other categories (long, short, flat) and often have a foramen (hole) through them

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16
Q

flat bones

A

bones that are thin, flat and often curved

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17
Q

Axial skeleton includes

A

skull, vertebral column, rib cage, sternum

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18
Q

appendicular skeleton includes

A

pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, lower limbs

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19
Q

What are the 5 regions of the vertebral column?

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

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20
Q

describe the cervical region of the vertebral column

A

the smallest vertebrae in the neck - they allow greater range of motion of the head and neck

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21
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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22
Q

describe the thoracic region of the vertebral column:

A

allowing some movement and providing attachments to the thorax (ribs)

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23
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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24
Q

describe the lumbar region of the vertebral column:

A

the largest vertebrae of the body because they needs to support the weight of the trunk, and allow movement

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25
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

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26
Q

describe the sacrum in the vertebral column:

A

five fused vertebrae that form the posterior view of the pelvic girdle

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27
Q

describe the coccyx in the vertebral column:

A

two of the five vertebrae (of the sacrum) forming a single bone (vestigial tail bone)

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28
Q

how does the appendicular and axial skeleton join?

A

the pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle

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29
Q

what 3 bones make up each hip bone?

A

ilium, ischium, pubis

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30
Q

What are the 5 functions of the skeleton?

A
  • support
  • movement
  • protection of vital organs
  • storage of minerals
  • bone marrow formation
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31
Q

describe compact bone

A
  • strong
  • good at transmitting force and resisting compression
  • dense, organised
  • found in the diaphyses
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32
Q

describe trabecular bone

A
  • spongy
  • shock absorbing in multiple directions
  • found in the epiphyses
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33
Q

what is bone tissue made of?

A

cells

calcified extracellular matrix

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34
Q

what are the cells in the bone matrix

A

osteocytes
osteoblasts
osteoclasts

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35
Q

what do the osteocytes do

A

Communicate when to build bone and when to break bone (they are the maintainers)

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36
Q

what do the osteoblasts do?

A

secrete extracellular matrix to build new bone

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37
Q

what do the osteoclasts do?

A

reabsorb the bone matrix (bone destroyers)

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38
Q

what material makes up the extracellular matrix of bone?

A

organic material

inorganic material

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39
Q

describe the inorganic material of the bone matrix

A
  • makes up 67% of the bone matrix
  • Hydroxyapatite
  • makes the bone hard and resistant to compression
    which is important because of weight bearing
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40
Q

describe the organic material of the bone matrix

A
  • makes up 33% of the bone matrix
  • Collagen
  • resists tension (without it the bone is brittle and breaks too easily)
  • this is important to resist forces coming in many directions
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41
Q

Compare the structure of cancellous bone vs compact bone

A

cancellous bone has a spongy trabecular structure whereas compact bone has an osteon structure

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42
Q

Describe the osteon structure of compact bone

A

Osteons are cylindrical structures running lengthways down compact bone.
Each osteon contains a central canal, lacunae, lamellae and canaliculi

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43
Q

Describe the central canal

A

in the very centre of an osteon, surrounded by cylinders of lamellae
carry nutrients and nerves to the bone

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44
Q

Describe the lacunae

A
  • sit in between the lamellae
  • they hold the osteocytes
  • the osteocytes (and therefore the lacunae) is what needs the nutrients
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45
Q

Describe the lamallae

A

series of cylinders running down the bone creating the osteon

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46
Q

describe the canaliculi

A

tiny channels radiating outwards from the central canal to the outer lamellae to deliver nutrients

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47
Q

Describe the trabecular structure of compact bone

A
  • the lamellae are arranged in fragile struts called trabeculae
  • Each strut contains a lacunae, lamellae, lacunae and canaliculi
  • the canaliculi are on the surface of the struts and blood diffuses in from the marrow through here
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48
Q

Describe bone remodelling

A

the osteoblasts build new bone of the outside of the bone at the same time as osteoclasts are destroying bone from the middle out

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49
Q

what happens if bone homeostasis is not maintained?

A

the amount of bone that is destroyed is greater than the amount of bone that is being formed - osteopenia and if serious, osteoporosis. The trabeculae in the cancellous bone gets thinner which can lead to fractures

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50
Q

Describe the principles of bone growth

A

in the womb, we begin to grow a cartilage model instead of bones. This cartilage is converted to bone in a process called endochondral ossification

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51
Q

Describe endochodral ossification

A

In the womb, blood vessels grow on the outside of the cartilage model. This allows osteoblasts to secrete bone matrix on the outside, forming hard real bone. Eventually the vessels penetrate the cartilage and osteoblasts can build bone from the middle out.

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52
Q

What are the two types of endochondral ossification?

A
  • Primary ossification (this is how diaphyses grow)

- Secondary ossification (this is how epiphyses grow)

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53
Q

Why are the diaphysis and epiphysis separated?

A

they are separated by a growth plate because it allows the diaphysis to keep growing and then the two join during puberty

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54
Q

How do bones grow? (width and length)

A
  • Width (appositional growth - osteoblasts building on the outside and osteoclasts destroying in the middle)
  • Length (due to the growth plate)
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55
Q

What is a joint?

A

Where two bones meet

A joint holds bones together and allows free movement or the control of movement

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56
Q

What are the soft tissue associated with joints?

A
  • Cartilage (hyaline/articular, fibrocartilage)
  • Ligaments
  • Tendons
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57
Q

Describe the general cartilage composition

A

made up of collagen fibres in a ground substance (proteins and water) and chondrocytes in the lacuna

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58
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage

A
  • this cartilage coats the surface of bones to create a frictionless movement
  • the collagen fibres are a thin mesh
  • degrades with age which can cause stress of the bone structure
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59
Q

Describe fibrocartilage

A

bundles of collagen in different angles in the matrix to be able to resist stress from different angles
function: resist compression and tension

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60
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Ligaments connect bone to bone

Their function is to “restrict movement away from themselves”

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61
Q

What are ligaments made of?

A

DFCT

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62
Q

What does DFCT consist of?

A

Collagen, elastin and fibroblasts that form the DFCT
There is minimal elastin because ligaments need to restrict movement
There is more elastin in tendons because more movement is required

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63
Q

What are tendons?

A

Connect muscle to bone

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64
Q

What are tendons made of?

A

DFCT

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65
Q

Do tendons or ligaments have more elastin?

A

tedons

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66
Q

Types of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

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67
Q

Describe fibrous joints

A

Fibrous joints connect bones what can not be separated (such as the bones of the skull or the tibia and fibula)
The bones are essentially sewn together
Structure: ligament
Tissue: DFCT

68
Q

Describe cartilaginous joints

A

more movement allowed (eg. in the vertebrae or pubis symphysis)
Structure: various with different structures
Tissue: fibrocartilage

69
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

free moving joints consisting of:

  • hyaline/articular cartilage
  • a joint capsule
  • a joint cavity
  • synovial membrane
  • ligaments
70
Q

Purpose of hyaline cartilage in a synovial joint

A

covers both ends of the bone
because of the high water content in it, it creates a smooth, frictionless end for the bones to slide over each other
the subchondral bone is also smooth

71
Q

Describe the joint capsule in a synovial joint

A

the joint capsule is made of DFCT and it surrounds the two bone ends to create a capsule

72
Q

Describe the joint cavity in a synovial joint

A

The joint cavity is the space that is between the bones and the DFCT that encloses the joint capsule. This is a fluid filled space (synovial fluid) which lubricates the bone ends to make frictionless movement

73
Q

Describe the joint synovial membrane in a synovial joint

A

a thin sheet of epithelial cells on the inside of the joint capsule that secrete synovial fluid

74
Q

What ligaments are involved in a synovial joint?

A
  • capsular ligament

- intracapsular ligament

75
Q

Describe the capsular ligament in a synovial joint

A 
this is the ligament that makes up the joint capsule
made of DFCT
hold bones together
tight and thick where support is needed
thinner where more movement is required
76
Q

Give an example of a capsular ligament and describe how it works

A
  • the collateral ligaments in the knee:
    the medial collateral ligament restricts adduction
    the lateral collateral ligament restricts abduction
77
Q

Describe the function of intracapsular ligaments in synovial joints

A

restricts movement between bones

78
Q

Give an example of an intracapsular ligament and describe how it works

A
  • the cruciate ligaments in the knee:
    they go from the proximal end of the tibia into the distal head of the femur
    the anterior cruciate ligament restricts posterior movement of the femur
    the posterior cruciate ligament restricts anterior movement of the femur
  • the menisci in the knee:
    low bony congruence so menisci needed to deepen articulation
79
Q

What is range of movement determined by? (3 things)

A
  • bone end shape
  • ligament location and length
  • body surface contact
80
Q

List the synovial joint shapes (7)

A
  • plane joint
  • ball in socket joint
  • saddle joint
  • hinge joint
  • pivot joint
  • condylar joint
  • ellipsoid joint
81
Q

describe a plane joint

A
  • multiaxial
  • 3 planes
  • on flat articular surfaces
82
Q

what plane(s) does a plane joint move in?

A

saggital
coronal
transverse

83
Q

describe a ball in socket joint

A
  • multiaxial
  • circumduction (ie. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction)
  • rotation
84
Q

what plane(s)does a ball and socket joint move in?

A

saggital, coronal, transverse

85
Q

describe a saddle joint

A
  • biaxial
  • circumduction (ie. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction)
  • obligatory rotation
86
Q

Describe a hinge joint

A
  • Uniaxial

- flexion and extension

87
Q

what plane(s) does a hinge joint move in

A

saggital

88
Q

what plane(s) does a saddle joint move in?

A

saggital and coronal

89
Q

Describe a pivot joint

A
  • uniaxial

- rotation

90
Q

what plane(s) does a pivot joint move in

A

transverse

91
Q

describe an ellipsoid joint

A
  • biaxial
  • circumduction ((ie. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction)
  • NO rotation
92
Q

what plane(s) does an ellipsoid joint move in?

A

sagittal, coronal

93
Q

describe a condylar joint

A
  • biaxial
  • flexion and extension
  • rotation only WHEN FLEXED
94
Q

what plane(s) does a condylar joint move in?

A

sagittal, coronal

95
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue called?

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

96
Q

Function of a muscle depends on

A

form

97
Q

Shape/form of a muscle depends on

A
  • length of muscle fibres
  • number of muscle fibres
  • arrangement of muscle fibres
98
Q

how does the length of a muscle fibre affect movement?

A

Longer muscles = movement over a greater distance = greater range of movement

99
Q

Types of levers with muscle attachments

A
  • first lever
  • second lever
  • third lever
100
Q

what does the first lever do?

A

stabilise the joint position

101
Q

give an example of a first lever attachment and describe its function

A

the head is very heavy with the brain and facial muscles (internal load) and the muscles in the neck need to apply force to keep the head upright

  • the fulcrum is the joint between the skull and the C1
102
Q

what does the second lever do?

A

it is effective at overcoming loads

103
Q

give an example of a second lever and describe its function

A

Plantarflexion

the body weight on the legs acts as the internal load. To overcome this load, force is applied from the muscles at the back of the leg

*the fulcrum is at the front of the foot

104
Q

what does the third lever do?

A

it provides a greater range of motion and speed

105
Q

give an example of the third level and describe its function

A

when you are lifting a weight (bicep curl), the load is the external weight of the dumbbell and force is applied from the biceps brachii to move quickly and efficiently

*the fulcrum is the elbow

106
Q

what are the three types of muscle action

A

concentric, isometric, eccentric

107
Q

describe a concentric contraction and give an example

A
  • shortening of the muscle
  • change in joint position
  • eg. bicep curl, shortening bicep brachii and decreasing angle of elbow joint
108
Q

Describe an isometric contraction and give an example

A

where muscle tension does not cause muscle shortening because the load is too heavy, can be voluntary (like weigh lifting above head)

there is no change to the joint poition

109
Q

describe an eccentric muscle contraction and give an example

A

tension is developed to lengthen muscle in a controlled manner. there is a change in the joint position

eg. bringing down a bicep curl

110
Q

what are the four types of muscle roles?

A
  • agonist
  • antagonist
  • stabiliser
  • neutraliser
111
Q

agonists acts

A

concentrically

112
Q

antagonists act

A

eccentrically

113
Q

give an example of an antagonist and an agonist

A

when doing a bicep curl (upwards):

  • biceps brachii concentrically contract to bring the weight up towards the body. This decreases the angle so there is flexion at the elbow
  • biceps brachii is the agonist (it shortens)
  • triceps brachii contract eccentrically to control the movement upwards
  • triceps brachii is the antagonist (it lengthens)
  • this is the opposite for bringing the weight back down
114
Q

stabilisers act

A

isometrically

115
Q

describe a stabiliser muscle

A

hold a joint still

there is no change to the length of biceps brachii

116
Q

describe a neutraliser muscle and give an example

A
  • minimise unwanted movement caused by another muscle
    eg. the biceps brachii cause flexion at the elbow but pronators in the forearm act as neutralisers to prevent unwanted supination (eg. when lifting a glass to take a drink)
117
Q

what muscle is associated with the shoulder joint?

A

deltoid

118
Q

what two muscles are associated with the elbow joint?

A

biceps brachii

triceps brachii

119
Q

what two muscles are associated with the hip joint?

A

Iliopsoas

Gluteus maximus

120
Q

what two muscles are associated with the knee joint?

A

hamstrings

quad femoris

121
Q

what two muscles are associated with the ankle joint?

A

tibialis anterior

triceps surae

122
Q

any muscle that lies anterior to a joint will always produce

A

flexion

123
Q

any muscle that lies posterior to a joint will always produce

A

extension

124
Q

any muscle that lies medial to a joint will always produce

A

adduction

125
Q

any muscle that lies lateral to a joint will always produce

A

abduction

126
Q

The actions of muscles applies for all joints except the

A

Knee

127
Q

what is the location of the deltoid muscle?

A

in the shoulder - from clavicle and scapular to an attachment at the humerus

128
Q

what is the principle movement of the deltoid muscle?

A

flexion (the anterior muscle fibres)

abduction (the lateral muscle fibres)

extension (the posterior muscle fibres)

129
Q

what is the principle movement of biceps brachii?

A
  • produce flexion of the shoulder
  • produce flexion of the elbow
  • produce supination at the radioulnar joint
130
Q

describe the form of biceps brachii and how that links to its movement

A

There are two heads (long head and short head) which both come from the scapula and fuse at the radial tuberosity. Because they are connected to two joints, they influence both flexion of the elbow and the scapula.

The tendon of biceps brachii attaches to medial side of the radius (which sits laterally on the anatomical position) which means that when you pronate, the tendon wrap around to be underneath the radius.

131
Q

What are the major and minor role of the triceps brachii?

A
  • major: produce extension at the elbow

- minor: produce extension of the shoulder

132
Q

describe the form of triceps brachii and how that links to its movement

A

There are three heads (long head, lateral head and medial head). The bulk of the muscle crosses over and inserts into the radius so when flexed, the muscles can powerfully extend the elbow

133
Q

Describe the form of iliopsoas and how that relates to

A

made up of psoas major (which goes into the femur) and iliacus (which goes into the iliac fossa) . These fuse together on the anterior part of the hip which means that it helps produce flexion of the hip

134
Q

Describe the form of gluteus maximus and how that relates to

A

Powerful muscle that attaches to the femur which allows extension of the hip

135
Q

What four muscles make up the quadriceps femoris?

A

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

136
Q

Where is the rectus femoris?

A

anterior aspect of the thigh. It is the most superficial of the quadriceps femoris muscles

137
Q

Describe the function of the rectus femoris muscle (only)

A

It is the only muscle of the quadriceps femoris to cross anteriorly over the hip which means that it helps produce flexion of the hip

138
Q

Describe the function of the quadriceps femoris

A

all four of the muscles cross anteriorly over the knee to produce EXTENSION (exception to the rule) of the knee

139
Q

what are the three muscles of the hamstrings?

A

biceps femoris, semi-tendinosus, semi-membranosus

140
Q

describe the form of the hamstrings and how that relates to their function

A

The muscles cross posteriorly over the hip and knee which means that they help produce extension of the hip, flexion of the knee and rotation of the knee (when it is flexed)

141
Q

describe the form of the tibialis anterior and how that relates to their function

A

Attaches to the tibial tuberosity and the medial side of the foot which means that it only which means that it produces movement in the ankle and foot not the knee.

It produces dorsiflexion at the ankle and inversion of the foot

142
Q

What two muscles does the triceps surae consist of?

A
  • gastrocnemius

- soleus

143
Q

describe the form of the gastrocnemius and how that relates to its functions

A

it attaches to the calcaneus of the foot and crosses the knee posteriorly so produces flexion of the knee and plantarflexion of the foot

144
Q

describe the form of the soleus and how that relates to its function

A

it attaches to the calcaneus of the foot so produces plantarflexion of the foot

145
Q

What’s the difference between quadrupedal and bipedal standing?

A 
Quadrupedal: 
- base support
- limbs are active at many joints
- demands a lot of energy
Bipedal:
- relatively small contact with the ground
- plantar surface of the feet is the only art in contact with the ground
- energy efficient
146
Q

does gravity act as an agonist or antagonist?

A

both

when the head is tipping forward, it is an agonist

when the muscles are contracting to keep our head upright, it is an antagonist

147
Q

where is the line of gravity in relation to the hip?

A

it is posterior to the hip joint

148
Q

describe how the hip joints affects bipedal standing

A

rather than using muscles, ligaments lock the hip joint into extension which uses a lot less energy than muscles

149
Q

what are the three reinforcing ligaments of the hip?

A

pubofemoral ligament

iliofemoral ligament

ischiofemoral ligament

150
Q

when in flexion, the ligaments of the hip are _________________ anteriorly and __________________ posteriorly

A

lax, taut

151
Q

when in extension, the ligaments of the hip are _________________ anteriorly and __________________ posteriorly

A

taut, lax

152
Q

describe how the knee joint affects bipedal standing

A

the ligaments are are tight, locking the knee into extension which is very energy efficient. The congruence is highest when the joints are in extension

153
Q

where is the line of gravity in relation to the knee?

A

anterior

154
Q

where is the line of gravity in relation to the ankle?

A

anterior

155
Q

What are the three things to consider when describing parts of the Gait cycle

A

Joint position

muscles involved

type of contraction

156
Q

describe how the ankle joint affects bipedal standing

A

due to gravity, the ankle naturally falls into dorsiflexion and it is not locked. The plantar flexors (gastrocnemius and soleus) have to stabilise the joint which means that a lot of energy is consumed

157
Q

An action potential causes the release of _____ into the synaptic cleft

A

ACh

158
Q

The release of ACh into the synaptic cleft leads to

A

excitation

159
Q

What is excitation?

A

The generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma

160
Q

Bundles of myofilaments combine to form

A

many parallel myofibrils

161
Q

many parallel myofibrils form

A

muscle fibres (muscle cells)

162
Q

Many muscle fibres form

A

bundles of fascicles

163
Q

bundles of fascicles combine to from

A

the muscle organ

164
Q

What is the sarcolemma?

A

The plasma membrane of the muscle fibre (muscle cell)

165
Q

What is the sarcoplasm?

A

The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre (muscle cell)

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