Bone and Joints pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Denervation atrophy

A
  • Involved both type I (red) and type II (white) fibers
  • Target fibers may also be seen
  • After reinnervation - fiber-type grouping, clusters of type I and type II, may be seen
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2
Q

Difuse atrophy

A
  • Associated with prolonged immobilization

- Characterized by angular atrophy, primary of type II fibers

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3
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  • Most common and most severe of the muscular dystrophies
  • Replacement of skeletal muscle by adipose tissue
  • Begins with weakness in the proximal muscles of the extremities –> immobilization, wasting, muscle contracture, and death in early teens
  • Caused by deficiency of dystrophin - X-linked inheritance
  • Random variation in muscle fiber size, necrosis of individual muscle fibers, and replacement of necrotic fibers by fibrofatty tissue
  • Characterized by calf pseudohypertrophy
  • Serum creatine kinases is elevated
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4
Q

Becker muscular dystrophy

A
  • Clinical similar, but less severe than, Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Caused by abnormality in dystrophin - molecule is truncated and presumably less functional
  • Caused by segmental deletions within the gene that do not cause a coding frameshift
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5
Q

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy

A
  • Autosomal dominant inheritance
  • Associated with slowly progressive, nondisabling course and an almost-normal life expectancy
  • Involves muscles of face, scapular area, and humerus
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6
Q

Limb-girdle dystrophy

A
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance

- Involves proximal muscles of the shoulder, pelvic girdle, or both

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7
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A
  • Autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
  • Weakness associated with myotonia (inability to relax muscles once contracted)
  • Associated features include cataracts, as well as testicular atrophy and baldness in men
  • Caused by increased number of trinucleotide repeats - CTG repeats
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8
Q

Central core disease

A
  • Loss of mitochondria and other organelles in he central portion of type I muscle fibers
  • Characterized by muscle weakness and hypotonia
  • Affected infants eventually become ambulatory
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9
Q

Nemaline myopathy

A
  • Tangles of small rod-shaped granules, predominantly in type I fibers
  • Varies clinically from a mild, nonprogressive disease to severe weakness ending in death from respiratory failure
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10
Q

Mitochondrial myopathies

A
  • Non-Mendelian inheritance
  • Mediated by maternally transmitted mitochondrial DNA abnormalities
  • May be characterized by ragged red appearance of muscle fibers and by various mitochondrial enzyme or coenzyme defects
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11
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A
  • Autoimmune disorder
  • Caused by antoantibodies to postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors of the neuromuscular junction
  • More common in women
  • Characterized by muscle weakness intensified by muscle use, with recovery on rest
  • Involves extraocular and facial muscles, muscles of the extremities, and other muscle groups
  • Ptosis or diplopia, difficulty in chewing, speaking, or swallowing
  • Symptoms improve with anticholinesterase agents
  • Associated with tumors of the thymus or with thymic hyperplasia
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12
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

A
  • Paraneoplastic disorder - most commonly associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung
  • Caused by a defect in the release of acetylcholine by nerve cells
  • May be due to acquired autoantibodies that react with presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels
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13
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • Characterized by a decrease in bone mass due to loss of bone matrix
  • May be caused by impaired synthesis or increased resorption of bone matrix protein
  • Most common bone disorder in older persons
  • Results in bone structures inadequate for weight bearing - fractures commonly occur
  • Assocaited with postmenopausal state and estrogen deficiency
  • Present with fractures, kyphosis, and shortened stature
  • Predisposed by: postmenopausal state, physical inactivity, hypercorticism, hyperthyroidism, calcium deficiency
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14
Q

von Recklinghausen disease of bone (osteitis fibrosa cystic)

A
  • Caused by primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • May manifest as “brown tumor” of bone
  • Can be morphologically indistinguishable from giant cell tumor of bone
  • Lab: hyperparathyroidism, high serum calcium, low serum phosphorus, and high serum alkaline phosphatase occur
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15
Q

Osteomalacia

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency in adults
  • Characterized by defective calcification of osteoid matrix
  • Result in weak bone with increased risk for fracture
  • Lab: decreased serum calcium and serum phosphate, increased PTH and alkaline phosphatase
  • When secondary to renal disease, osteomalacia is called renal osteodystrophy
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16
Q

Rickets

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency in children
  • Increased thickness of the epiphyseal growth plates and other skeletal deformities
  • Clinical: Craniotabes, late closing of fontanelles, rachitic rosary, harrison groove, pigeon breast, decreased hight
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17
Q

Paget disease of bone

A
  • Most common in the elderly
  • Imbalance between osteoclast and osteoblast function
  • Etiology is unknown; possibly viral
  • Localized process involving one or more bones; does not involve entire skeleton
  • Involves most commonly the spine, pelvis, calvarium of the skull, femur, and tibia
  • Stages; (1) Osteoclastic, (2) Mixed osteoblastic - osteoclastic (3) Osteoblastic
  • End result is thick sclerotic bone that fractures easily
  • Complications: bone pain resulting from fractures, high-output cardiac failure, hearing loss, osteosarcoma
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18
Q

Scurvy

A
  • Caused by ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency
  • Characterized by bone lesions leading to impaired osteoid matrix formation - caused by failure of the proline and lysine hydroxylation required for collagen synthesis
  • Bone changes: subperiosteal hemorrhage, osteoporosis, epiphyseal cartilage not replaced by osteoid
19
Q

Achondroplasia

A
  • One of the most common cause of dwarfism
  • Autosomal dominat disorder caused by mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 gene
  • Characterized by short limbs with a normal-sized head and trunk
20
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

A
  • Characterized by replacement of portions of bone with fibrous tissue
  • Unknown etiology
    (1) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia - soliraty lesions that are often asymptomatic
    (2) Polystotic fibrous dysplasia - multiple sites are involved
    (3) McCune-Albright syndrome - polyostotic fobrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, cafe-au-lai spots on skin, and short stature
21
Q

Aseptic necrosis

A
  • Most often of unknown etiology
  • Most often results from infarction caused by interruption of arterial blood supply
  • Can be secondary to trauma or to embolism of diverse types
  • Clinical: femur (Legg-Calve-Perthes disease), tibial tubercle (Osgood-Schlatter disease), or the navicular bone (Kohler bone disease)
22
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • Characterized by multiple fractures occurring with minimal trauma (brittle bone disease)
  • Caused by a group of specific gene mutations, all resulting in defective collagen type I synthesis
  • Blue sclerae
23
Q

Osteopetrosis

A
  • Characterized by greatly increased density of the skeleton - abnormally thick, heavy bone that fractures easily
  • Inherited defect of bone resorption
  • Caused by failure of osteoclastic activity
  • Multiple genetic variants
  • Carbonic anhydrase II mutation results in lack of acidic environment required for resorption on bone
  • Associated with anemia, blindness, deafness, and cranial nerve involvement
  • Treatment: bone marrow transplant
24
Q

Osteomyelitis

A
  • Infection of marrow space and bone; usually occurs in children
  • Most often bacterial; arises due to hematogenous spread
  • Seed metaphysis in kids, epiphysis in adults
  • Causes: S. aureus, N gonorrhoeae, Salmonella, Pseudomonas, Pasteurella, TB
  • Clinical: bone pain with fever and leukocytosis, lytic focus surrounded by sclerosis on x-ray
25
Q

Osteochondroma

A
  • Most common benign tumor of bone
  • Bone growth covered by a cap of cartilage projecting from the surface of a bone
  • Most often originates from the metaphysis of long bones, with the lower end of the femur or the upper end of the tibia being favored locations
26
Q

Giant cell tumor

A
  • Benign bone tumor
  • Characterized by a monotonous oval- or spindle-shaped cells intermingled with numerous multinucleate giant cells
  • Occurs most often in the epiphyseal end of long bones; more than 50% occur around the knee
  • Locally aggressive tumor and often recurs after local curettage
  • May be associated with secondary formation of an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC) - “soap bubble” appearance on x-ray
27
Q

Osteosarcoma

A
  • Second most common primary malignant tumor of bone (after plasma cell myeloma)
  • Malignant proliferation of osteoblast
  • Occurs most frequently in the metaphysis of long bones; around the knee
  • Clinical: pain and swelling, increase in serum alkaline phosphatase, Codman triangle, “sunburst” pattern, early hematogenous spread to bones, lungs, liver, and brain
  • Risk factors: familial RB, Paget disease of bone, fibrous dysplasia, chondroma, osteochondroma, ionizing radiation, bone infarctions
  • High-grade central lesions (the most common)
28
Q

Chondrosarcome

A
  • Malignant cartilaginous tumor
  • Arises in medulla of pelvis of central skeleton
  • May arise as a primary tumor or from transformation of preexisting cartilaginous tumors
29
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A
  • “Small blue cell” malignant tumor
  • Proliferatio of poorly-differentiated cells derived from neuroectoderm
  • Arises in the diaphysis of long bones, usually in male children <15 yrs
  • Occurs most often in long bones, ribs, pelvis, and scapula
  • Follows and extremely malignant course with early metastases
  • Present with: Painful, tender and swollen mass, fever, elevated sedimentation rate, anemia and leukocytosis, mimic infection
30
Q

Rhematoid arthritis

A
  • Chronic, systemic autoimmune disease
  • Associated with HLA-DR4-positive individuals
  • Hallmark is synovitis leading to formation of pannus (inflamed granulation tissue)
  • Serum rheumatoid factor, IgM autoantibody, against Fc portion of IgG. Neutrophils and high protein in synovial fluid
  • Morning stiffness that improves with activity
  • Symmetric involvement of PIP joints of the fingers, wrists, elbows, ankles, and knees
  • Clinical: joint space narrowing, loss of cartilage, osteopenia, fever, malaise weight loss, myalgias, rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis, baker cyst, pleural effusion, LAD, and interstitial lung fibrosis
  • Variants: Sjøgren syndrome, Felty syndrome, Still disease
31
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A
  • Lack of rheumatoid factor
  • Axial skeleton invovlement
  • High incidence in HLA-B27-positive individuals
  • Peripheral arthritis
  • Sacroiliitis
    (1) Anykolsing spondylitis - HLA-B27 association, affects spine and sacroiliac joints
    (2) Reiter syndrome - urethritis, conjunctivits, and arthritis; associated with general or intestinal infection
    (3) Psoriatic arthrits
    (4) Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
32
Q

Osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease)

A
  • Most common form of arthritis
  • Progressive degeneration of articular cartilage
  • Most often due to “wear and tear”
  • Risk factors: age, obesity and trauma
  • Involves hip, lower lumbar spine, knees, DIP and PIP of fingers
  • Clinical: joint stiffness in the morning that worsens during the day
  • Disruption of the cartilage that lines the auricular surface, Eburnation of the subchondral bone. Osteophyte formation
33
Q

Gout

A
  • Deposition of MSU crystals in tissues, especially in the joints. Begins with opsonization of crystals by IgG
  • Due to hyperuricemia
  • Primary gout: Most common form, etiology of hyperuricemia is unknown
  • Secondary gout: Hyperuricemia cause by Leukemia and MPDs, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Renal insufficiency
  • Acute gout: Painful arthritis of the great toe (podagra), caused by alcohol and consumption of meat
  • Chronic gout: Tophi - uric acid crystals in soft tissue or joints, renal failure - uric acid deposition in tubules
34
Q

Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis)

A
  • Caused by calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystal deposition
  • Inflammatory raction in cartilage
  • Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence under polarized light
35
Q

Infectious arthritis

A
  • Charcterized by purulent synovial fluid
  • Due to infectious agnt, usually bacterial
  • N. gonorrhoeae - young adults; most common overall cause
  • S. aureus - older children and adults; 2nd most common cause
  • Clinical: involves a single joint, usually the knee. Warm, erythematous joint with limited range of motion. Fever, increased WBC, and elevated ESR.
36
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A
  • Associated with systemic disorders, such as chronic lung disease, congenital cyanotic heart disease, cirrhosis of the liver, and inflammatory bowel disease
  • Clubbing of the fingers; periostitis at the distal end of the radius and ulna
  • Clinical: painful swelling and tenderness od the peripheral joints
37
Q

Ganglion cyst

A
  • Small cystic nodule arising in the tendon sheath or the joint capsule of the wrist
  • Due to myxoid degeneration of connective tissue
38
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  • Malignant tumor of skeletal muscle
  • Most common malignant soft tissue tumor in children
  • Rhabdomyoblast is the characteristic cell; desmin positive
  • Most common site is head and neck; vagina is a classic site in young girls
  • Several variants: pleomorphic, emrbyonal, and alveolar
39
Q

Synovial sarcoma

A
  • Highly malignant soft tissue tumor
  • Most often originates in tissue adjacent to a joint, rather than in a join cavity
  • No etiologic or direct anatomic relationship to the synovium
  • Often occurs in he lower extremities
  • X;18 translocation
  • Commonly biphasic with both spindled and epithelial contributions
40
Q

Fibrous histocytoma

A
  • Benign tumor

- Consisting of a mixture of fibroblasts and histiocytes

41
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A
  • Malignant tumor of fibroblasts

- characterized by spindle-shaped cells demonstrating a herringbone pattern

42
Q

Lipoma

A
  • Benign tumor of mature adipose tissue

- Most common benign soft tissue tumor in adults

43
Q

Liposarcoma

A
  • Malignt tumor of adipose tissue

- Most common malignant soft tissue tumor in adults