Bone abnormalities Flashcards

1
Q

Recap:

Major functions of bone

Types of bone

Cells involved in bone remodelling

Osteoid composition

What else do osteoblasts secrete?

How is bone remodelling regulated?

A
  • Function of bone à support, movement, Ca2+ and phosphate homeostasis, protection
  • Types of bone –> first woven, then lamellar bone (mature bone), two types of lamellar bone –> cortical and trabecular
  • Cells involved in bone remodelling –> osteoblasts and osteoclasts
  • Osteoid –> Type 1 collagen, proteoglycans, glycoproteins
  • Osteoblasts secrete –> alkaline phosphatase, RANK ligand, Osteoprotegrin, osteocalcin (Binds Ca2+)

Regulation –> balance of OPG to RANKL, hormones PTH and oestrogen, interleukins, cytokines and age.

*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bone structure and function:

Describe main functions of bone as a metabolic tissue

Describe main functions of bone as a protective load bearing tissue

A

Metabolic tissue:

  • Acts as a mineral buffer, largest stores of Ca2+
  • Needs to be able to repair microfractures that occur throughout life to maintain quality of bone
  • Coordination of bone cells (osteoclasts vs blasts) vital

Protective, load bearing:

  • Cortical vs trabecular (weight vs strength)
  • Rigidity and resilience (hydroxyapatite: Collagen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What pathological changes can there be to bone?

A
  • Change in the quantity of bone:
    • too little –> osteoporosis, common
    • too much –> osteopetrosis, uncommon, very bright on an xray
  • Change in quality of bone:
    • defective/ loss of mineralisation –> rickets/ osteomalacia/ hyperparathyroidism
  • Change in the structure of bone:
    • osteogenesis imperfecta --> collagen defect, loss of flexibility bones v brittle
    • Paget’s disease –> rapid turnover due to osteoclasts, poor quality woven bone
    • Tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What clinical tests are there to assess bone structure?

A
  • Blood tests:
    • PTH, Ca2+, Vitamin D
    • Routine –> Alkaline phosphatase, albumin (nutritional status links to bone density)
  • Imaging:
    • plain X-ray
    • Radionuclide scans –> inject radioactive substance which targets overactive cell (osteoblast/clasts)
    • MRI/ CT/ Ultrasound
  • Bone biopsy –> tumour
  • Bone density –> DEXA scan (dual energy X-ray Absorptiometry)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is osteoporosis?

What bones are most commonly fractured?

A

Osteoporosis = complex skeletal disease characterised by low bone density and microarchitectural defects in bone tissue, resulting in increased bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture.

Common, affects 3,000,000 people in the UK, european and asian populations

Risk of fracture increases with Age, 1/2 for women, 1/5 for men, most common in post menopausal women

Bones most commonly fractured = neck of femur, vertebra and wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What damage can occur to the vertebral column with osteoporosis?

A
  • Crush fracture e.g. left picture L4 is crushed
  • Natural kyphosis of the thoracic vertebrae, with osteoporosis these vertebrae can become crushed, exaggerating the kyphosis giving a hunched over appearance
  • Intervertebral foramina get smaller too, can lead to nerve impingement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathology shown?

A
  • Left: Radial fracture and loss of ulnar styloid process, due to fall on outstretched hand
  • Right: Left intracapsular femur neck fracture, risk of cut off blood supply and avascular necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the wider implications of osteoporosis?

A
  • Osteoporosis often picked up due to a fall and subsequent fracture
  • Leads to a loss of confidence –> less exercise, lower bone density, slower reflexes and poor balance
    • –> increased risk falls and fractures
  • Pain
  • Decreased QOL, permanent disability, lost independence
  • Long term admission –> catch secondary infection/ AKI from surgery
  • High mortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some of the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Unmodifiable:

  • Age/ postmenopausal woman
  • Sex
  • Ethnicity (european or asian)
  • Family Hx

Modifiable:

  • Immobility (wolffs law)
  • smoking/ alcohol
  • steroids
  • vitamin D/ Ca2+ deficiency
  • Low BMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteoporosis

A

Peak bone density is achieved after reaching bone maturity, after which is declines with age. PBD influenced by genetics, nutrition and physical activity.

Women decline faster than men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the main screening tools used in osteoporosis?

What is secondary prevention?

A
  • FRAX = evaluates the fracture risk of patients by taking into account their risk factors and past fractures which gives you a score
  • Score may indicate a DEXA scan or may DEXA as a screen
  • Secondary prevention may be indicated –> prevent further falls with mobiloty aids, supported living situation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is DEXA?

What are possible DEXA scores?

A
  • DEXA (Dual energy Xray absorptiometry)
  • Gives two Scores Z score and T score (focus on T score)
  • T scores relate to the mean bone density of a young adult:
    • BMD of less than 1 SD from young adult mean (T score ≥-1) = Normal
    • BMD 1-2.5 SD below young adult mean (T score less than -1 but above -2.5) = osteopenia (may occur after fracture and immobility in healthy adult).
    • BMD more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean (T score less than -2.5) indicates osteoporosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you manage osteoporosis?

A
  • Diet
  • exercise
  • supplements - vitamin D and calcium
  • Fall prevention
  • Pharmacy:
    • oral bisphosphates
    • SERMs
    • PTH
    • Denosumab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What pharmacological treatments can be used to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • Bisphosphates –> alendronic acid
  • SERM –> selective oestrogen receptor modulator –> Raloxifiene
  • PTH
  • Monoclonal antibodies: Denosumab –> bind RANKL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name a bisphosphate and its administration

What is their mechanism of action

What diseases are they useful in treating?

What are their side effects

A
  • Alendronic acid
  • Must be on empty stomach, 1 glass water, remain upright for half an hour –>prevent erosion of oesophagus
  • MOA:
    • Absorbed onto the hydroxyapatite crystals which slows down rate of bone remodelling
    • Taken up by osteoclasts interferes with ruffled border attachment to bone
    • Osteoclasts unable to attach to bone, less enzymes released and less bone resorption
    • Slows rate of bone remodelling
  • Uses: Osteoporosis and Pagets disease, Hypercalcaemia of malignancy
  • Side effects:
    • asymptomatic hypocalcaemia
    • general GI disturbance
    • oesophageal reactions
    • osteonecrosis of the jaw–> rare but be aware of dentition before treatment, in larger doses or zolendronic acid.
    • possible long term effects –> atypical femoral fractures

Absorption and elimination:

  • Poorly absorbed; absorption ¯ if taken with Ca2+
  • Not metabolised, excreted unchanged in urine (caution in CKD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the SERM used in osteoporosis treatment

What is its MOA? why is it useful?

A

SERM = selective estrogen receptor modulator = Raloxifine

MOA: has mixed agonist/ antagonist function at the ER

Useful as hormone replacement therapy used to stimulate all estrogen receptors so women were at risk of developing breast and uterine cancers. SERM Raloxifine stimulates ER in bone, anatogonises ER in breast/ uterine tissue.

Use: osteoporosis

17
Q

What hormone can be used in osteoporosis treatment?

What is its action

How is it administered

What are the SE’s?

A
  • Parathyroid hormone
  • Promotes bone production
  • Administration:
    • via subcutaneous injection
    • Intermittent PTH stimulates production of trabecular bone –> inc. osteoblast diff and activity and decrease apoptosis
    • Continous PTH causes bone loss
  • Side effects: hypercalcaemia, muscle cramp, nausea and vomiting
18
Q

What antibody treatment can be used in osteoporosis?

What is its MOA

Administration

SE’s

A
  • Denosumab = monoclonal antibody directed against RANKL
  • Mimics the natural decoy receptor osteoprotegerin and binds to RANKL, inhibiting RANKL stimulation of osteoclasts prevent bone resorption
  • Administration : SC injection
  • SE’s: hypocalcaemia, diarrhoea, dysponea and constipation
19
Q

Name two disorders that affect mineralisation of bone

Which groups do these disorders primarily affect?

What are the most common causes of these disorders?

A
  • Rickets and osteomalacia both characterised by inadequate mineralisation of bone -> different manifestations of the same pathological process
  • Rickets: Affects children
    • growth plate still present –> defective mineralisation of the growth plate
    • Normally hypertrophic chondrocyte zone, these should apoptose and bone matrix should be deposited
    • In rickets it is not mineralised, cartilage tissue remains that can become deformed with use ( valgus and varus)
    • Cells can become splayed outwards and widening of growth plate
  • Osteomalacia:
    • Affects both adults and children
    • defective mineralisation of osteoid
  • Most common causes are: Vitamin D deficiency, resultin in low calcium and low phosphate levels
20
Q

What are three key pathological features with rickets?

A
  • Growth retardation
  • bony deformities
  • imaging shows widening/ splaying of the epiphyseal growth plate/ metaphysis
21
Q

what are some of the key presentation features of osteomalacia?

What blood tests would you do? What results would you expect?

How can we treat osteomalacia?

A
  • may be asymptomatic
  • may have muscle weakness proximally
  • bone pain
  • fractures

Blood tests:

  • Calcium and phosphate would be low
  • Alk P would be high
  • Low vitamin D

Usually treated with education, diet and supplements

22
Q

What different types of bone cancer can be seen?

A
  • Primary vs secondary bone cancers:
    • primary bone cancer is when the cancer has arisen from within bone tissue
    • this is very rare
    • secondary cancer is more common and is where another cancer has metastasised to the bone
    • often prostate, breast and lung cancers
  • Benign vs malignant:
    • benign bone cancer –> osteoma or chondroma
    • malignant bone cancer –> osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma
  • Lytic vs sclerotic:
    • When bone is invaded by metastatic cells it often causes two types of lesions depending on the primary cancer
    • In breast and lung –> often see lytic lesions, where bone is broken down and replaced with cancer tissue, often see hypercalcaemia
    • In prostate cancer –> tends to stimulate bone growth that is unstructured woven bone. This becomes mineralised and forms a sclerotic lesion.
    • Often affects surrounding tissues.
23
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

what is the pathophysiology and what type of lesions can be seen?

What bones may it affect?

What is its occurence?

A
  • Pagets disease is characterised by increased bone turnover with overactive osteoclasts which resorb bone very quickly –> lytic lesions
  • Osteoblasts react by laying down unstructured poor quality woven bone that does not get remodelled –> sclerotic lesions
  • woven bone is weak
  • results in overgrowth, bowing, pain, fractures and deformity
  • May be focal or multifocal
  • It can affect the skull and its foramina, may present with cranial nerve palsy, e.g. visual disturbance or hearing loss
  • Estimated to occur in 1-3% of people over 55 yrs
24
Q

What investigations would be done in suspected Paget’s disease?

What results would you expect?

A
  • Bloods:
    • Ca2+ (normal) , PTH (?) Alk P (high)
  • Xray
  • Radionuclide bone scan – > see overactive osteoclasts
  • Bone biopsy if malignant change is suspected –> cells working at much faster rate and therefore more susceptible to mutations and cancer, patient needs to be reviewed, suspect malignancy if rapid growth and erythema.
25
Q

Note the changes in the following xray and bone scan, describe them

A

Distal humerus has lost its structure v susceptible to fracture

Radionuclide scan showing high activity in L femur

26
Q

What is the treatment of paget’s disease?

A
  • Mobility aids –> walkers, sticks, orthotics
  • Analgesia if required
  • supplements
  • bisphosphonates:
    • decrease OC recruitment and maintain bone density, less activation of osteoblasts
    • increase OC apoptosis
    • decreases the depth of the resorption site
  • Surgically intervene
27
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta = group of disorders charactersied by defective production and processing of type 1 collagen due to genetic mutation in collagen genes
  • Two forms type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta mildest form, may have multiple fractures but no deformity
  • Type 2 is a severe form with very brittle bones that may fracture during labour and during breathing, kyphoscoliosis which restricts breathing.
  • It is a systemic disease:
    • brittle bones
    • 50% may have hearing loss
    • Sclera may appear blue, purple or grey (thin collagen allowing you to see vasculature underneath).
    • Often problems with teeth (brown tint)
    • Growth retardation