Bolded/Key points Flashcards

1
Q

Papovaviridae is the family for what virus?

A

HPV

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2
Q

Papillomavirus is the GENUS for what virus?

A

HPV

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3
Q

How many types of HPV are there?

A

100

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4
Q

What are the two types of HPV?

A

Cutaneous and mucosal

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5
Q

What layer of skin does HPV grow and thicken (acanthosis) in?

A

Basal layer of epithelium

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6
Q

How can HPV be transmitted?

A

Fomites, surfaces of furniture, bathroom floors and inadequately chlorinated swimming pools

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7
Q

What virus is one of the most common sexually-transmitted diseases and affects 20-60% of adult women?

A

HPV

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8
Q

What HPV types cause laryngeal papilloma?

A

6 & 11

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9
Q

What HPV types cause oral papillomas?

A

2, 6, 11, 16

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10
Q

What HPV type causes focal epithelial hyperplasia?

A

13 & 32

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11
Q

What HPV types cause cervical cancer?

A

16,18,31, 35

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12
Q

What HPV types cause conjunctival papilloma?

A

6 & 11

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13
Q

What are conjunctival papillomas?

A

Non-malignant, mushroom-shaped growths on the eyelid.

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14
Q

What virus is associated with exophytic warts?

A

HPV

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15
Q

What are exophytic warts?

A

Dome-shaped papules or have hyperkeratosed fonds

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16
Q

What are focal epithelial hyperplasias (Heck’s disease)?

A

Nodular lesions of the mouth

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17
Q

What virus is associated with focal epithelial hyperplasia?

A

HPV

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18
Q

What HPV types cause genital warts?

A

6 & 11

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19
Q

How would you diagnose HPV?

A

PAP smear to observe koilocytotic (vacuolated cytoplasm) squamous epithelial cells; DNA Probe analysis; PCR, and Southern Blotting

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20
Q

What treatment is used for HPV?

A

Warts removed by surgical cryotherapy, electrocautery or chemical means (Podofilox); Interferon and Imiquimod; Cidofovir

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21
Q

Are there any vaccines used for HPV and if so what are they?

A

Yes - Gardasil (protects against 6, 11, 16 & 18) and Cervarix (NOT approved in US)

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22
Q

How many serotypes are there for Adenovirus?

A

100 - 51 are infectious to humans

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23
Q

What virus causes the most URT infections, conjunctivitis, hemorrhagic cystitis and gastroenteritis?

A

Adenovirus

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24
Q

What virus is the cause of 5-10% of all viral infections and are seen most commonly in children and military recruits?

A

Adenovirus

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25
Q

What virus is the 2nd most important cause of primary gastroenteritis in infants and is used as a vector for gene replacement therapy?

A

Adenovirus

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26
Q

What virus is the 1st most common cause of primary gastroenteritis in infants?

A

Rotovirus

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27
Q

What is the family name for Adenovirus?

A

Adenoviridae

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28
Q

What is the genus name for Adenovirus?

A

Mastadenovirus

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29
Q

How is adenovirus contracted and what does it affect?

A

Aerosol, close contact or fecal-oral route; it affects epithelial cells of respiratory tract and enteric organs

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30
Q

Adenovirus may become latent where?

A

Lymphoid tissue (Tonsils, adenoids, peyers patches, etc.)

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31
Q

What virus is associated with dark basophilic nuclear inclusions due to accumulation of DNA, proteins, and capsids?

A

Adenovirus

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32
Q

What are the most common types of adenovirus seen among military recruits?

A

Serotypes 4 & 7

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33
Q

What is acute febrile pharyngitis and what virus is it associated with?

A

Pharyngitis that mimicks strep throat

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34
Q

What often accompanies pharyngitis when infected with adenovirus?

A

Conjunctivitis

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35
Q

Swimming pools are common sources for outbreaks of Adenovirus related what (infection)?

A

Conjunctivitis

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36
Q

What does ARDS stand for?

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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37
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Acute, severe injury to most or all of both lungs. These patients require mechanical ventilation

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38
Q

What virus is associated with ARDS?

A

Adenovirus

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39
Q

What virus is associated with Epidemic Keratoconjunctivitis (EKC)?

A

Adenovirus

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40
Q

What virus is associated with atypical pneumonia?

A

Adenovirus

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41
Q

What virus is associated with gastoenteritis and diarrhea and what serotypes are responsible?

A

Adenovirus - serotypes 40,41 & 42.

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42
Q

What virus causes NO specific oral diseases?

A

Adenovirus

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43
Q

What types of cutures are used for adenovirus?

A

From throat; NOT diarrhea samples

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44
Q

What techniques are used for diagnosis of adenovirus?

A

Immunoasays; PCR; DNA probing

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45
Q

What is the treatment for adenovirus?

A

No known treatment - Eye drops given to help with comfort of the pink eye

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46
Q

Are there vaccines used for adenovirus and if so what is it?

A

Oral vaccines of live adenovirus 4 & 7 are given ONLY to military recruits

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47
Q

How many herpesviruses cause clinical disease in humans?

A

8 total

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48
Q

What viruses have the capacity to persist in the host indefinitely in the form of an episome?

A

Herpesvirus

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49
Q

What are the three disease phases of human herpes viruses?

A

Primary infection, latency, and reactivation

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50
Q

Is it possible for the disease syndrome during a primary infection to change during reactivation?

A

Yes

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51
Q

What occurs during primary infection?

A

The virus is replicating, initial clinical disease occurs, patient is infectious

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52
Q

What are the three major factors that determine severity of herpes virus?

A

Age, Site of infection & Immunocompetence of the individual

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53
Q

What occurs during latency?

A

The viral genome persists but there is no replication of the virus, no disease, not infectious

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54
Q

What viruses establish latency in neurons?

A

HSV1, HSV 2, and VZV (HHV3)

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55
Q

What viruses establish latency in lyphocytes?

A

CMV, EBV, and HHV6

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56
Q

When does reactivation generally occur?

A

Immunosupression of patient - stress, pregnancy, menses, other disease, or suppressive therapy

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57
Q

What occurs during reactivation?

A

Virus begins to replicate & individual becomes infectious (clinical disease may be different during this time because it may be at another site from original infections)

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58
Q

What is the family name for herpesvirus?

A

Herpesviridae

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59
Q

What HHVs are in the Alphaherpersvirinae subfamily?

A

HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV

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60
Q

What HHVs are in the Betaherpervirinae?

A

CMV, HHV6, HHV7

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61
Q

What HHVs are in the Gammaherpesvirinae?

A

EBV & HHV8

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62
Q

What cells do HSV1 & 2 initially infect?

A

Mucoepithelial cells

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63
Q

What is the most common sites of inoculation with HSV1 and HSV2?

A

HSV1 - Oral mucosa

HSV2 - Genital mucosa

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64
Q

90% of people living in underdeveloped areas produce antibodies for what virus by age 2?

A

HSV1

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65
Q

How can HSV be transmitted?

A

Saliva, vaginal fluids, and lesion fluids - orally, sexually, autoinnoculation of the eyes and through breaks in the skin.

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66
Q

HSV1 is generally transmitted via what route? HSV2?

A

HSV1 - orally

HSV2 - sexually

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67
Q

What type of herpes virus can cause oral herpes?

A

HSV1 and HSV2

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68
Q

What virus is associated with Herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

HSV

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69
Q

What is Herpetic gingivostomatitis and what virus generally is the cause?

A

Sores of the mouth on the lips, gums, tongue, and cheeks and is mostly seen in toddlers and young children - HSV1

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70
Q

What is herpes labialis and what generally causes it?

A

Cold sores - reactivation of HSV1 from mandibular nerve via the trigeminal nerve ganglia - can be due to stress, menstruation, fatigue, hot liquids and UV light

71
Q

What is herpes keratitis and what generally causes it?

A

Causes sensitivity to light and pain in the eye - due to reactivation of HSV1 - virus travels down opthalmic branch of the eye from trigeminal nerve

72
Q

What virus causes Herpetic Whitlow and what is it?

A

Infection of the finger (wear gloves) - HSV1 & HSV2

73
Q

Genital herpes is generally caused by what virus?

A

HSV2 (90%) and HSV1 (10%)

74
Q

What virus usually causes herpes encephalitis?

A

HSV1

75
Q

What is herpes encephalitis?

A

Causes swelling of the brain characterized by seizures and localized signs in the temporal lobe.

76
Q

What is the leading cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US?

A

HSV1

77
Q

What is an accurate and fast way to test for HSV?

A

PCR (1 day)

78
Q

What virus is associated with Tzanck smear?

A

HSV

79
Q

What does a Tzanck smear look for?

A

Epidermal multinucleated cells and eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions.

80
Q

What are the ways to treat HSV?

A

Acyclovir (For non ocular herpes) and Trifluidine (opthalmic solution)

81
Q

Research has suggested certain diets play an important role in keeping herpesvirus outbreaks to a low. What are they?

A

High lysine to arginine ratio (suppresses HSV replication) - Things like beef, chicken, fish, milk, cheese, beans, fruits and veggies.

82
Q

What is the initial site of VZV and where does it move to?

A

Respiratory tract (inhaled) to lymphatics to live and spleen then secondary viremia spreads to skin and mucosal surfaces.

83
Q

What is VZV also known as?

A

Chickenpox in its first infection and shingles when it is reactivated.

84
Q

What virus is highly communicable and over 90% of susceptible individuals in a single household are at risk of becoming infected?

A

VZV

85
Q

What virus is the ONLY HHV virus that spreads from person-to-person via airborne transmission?

A

VZV

86
Q

What does VZV stand for?

A

Varicella Zoster Virus

87
Q

What virus can be extremely dangerous for immunocompromised people, the elderly (that haven’t had it before) and newborns?

A

VZV

88
Q

Is the VZV a source of contagion when it is reactivated?

A

YES

89
Q

What are the characteristics of vericella and what virus is it associated with?

A

Vesiculopustular rash, and vesicles are described as “dewdrops on a rose petal” that then become pustules on mucous membranes as well as skin - VZV

90
Q

What is herpes zoster and what virus is it associated with?

A

Singles - erythematous base with small, closely-spaced lesions which rarely cross the midline, painful and can even cause devitalization of teeth or root resorption - VZV reactivated

91
Q

What virus is associated with devitalization of teeth and root resorption?

A

VZV - seen in herpes zoster (shingles) patients

92
Q

What virus is associated with postherpetic neuralgia?

A

VZV - Complication of shingles

93
Q

What is postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Chronic pain syndrome affecting the nerve fibers and skin (usually where it first occurred)

94
Q

What virus is herpes zoster opthalmicus associated with?

A

VZV - shingles

95
Q

What is herpes zoster opthalmicus?

A

Ocular complications ranging from involvement of the lid, persistent conjunctivitis, keratouveitis, glaucoma, papillitis, occular nerve palsy and deep ocular pain.

96
Q

How is VZV diagnosed?

A

Observation, examining giant cells under scope, VZV specific antigens via immunofluorescent techniques and ELISA

97
Q

What are the treatments for VZV?

A

Usually let it run its course

98
Q

Are there any vaccines for VZV?

A

Chickenpox - Varivax, ProQuad (MMRV vaccine), Acyclovir, Valacyclovir and Famcyclovir (VZIg is give to nonimmune pregnant women who have been exposed)
Shingles - Zostavax

99
Q

What is EBV?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

100
Q

What is EBV the common name for?

A

Lymphocryptovirus

101
Q

What virus is spread via saliva and causes kissing disease?

A

EBV

102
Q

What virus infects B cells?

A

EBV

103
Q

What occurs when a person is infected with EBV?

A

Swollen lymph glands, spleen and liver due to the build up of T cells that have been activated due to the destroying of the B cells

104
Q

Teenagers and adults are at risk for what when infected with EBV? What about immunocompromised individuals?

A

Teenagers/adults - mononucleosis (mono)

Immunocompromised - neoplastic disease

105
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

Glandular fever - fatigue, high fever, malaise, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

106
Q

What virus causes infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV

107
Q

What is the main cause (79%) of mononucleosis?

A

EBV

108
Q

What virus is associated with hairy oral leukoplakia?

A

EBV

109
Q

What is hairy oral leukoplakia?

A

White lesions in the mouth usually on the lateral boarder of the tongue - usually in immunocompromised patients

110
Q

What virus is African burkitt’s lymphoma associated with?

A

EBV

111
Q

What is African Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

Endemic lymphoma - B cell cancer of the jaw and face - found in the malarial regions of africa.

112
Q

What virus is Hodgkin’s lymphoma associated iwth?

A

EBV

113
Q

What is Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Maalignancy of the lymph tissue found in the lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

114
Q

What is Nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

Cancer that occurs in nasopharynx - rare in US but found in Orient

115
Q

What virus is nasopharyngeal carcinoma associated with?

A

EBV

116
Q

What virus causes follicular conjunctivitis, epithelial keratitis, and stromal keratitis?

A

EBV

117
Q

What is easily seen to diagnose EBV?

A

Large, lobed, B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei and neutropenia - early indications

118
Q

What tests can be used to determine if someone has EBV?

A

Immunofluorescent microscopy or ELISA

119
Q

What are the treatments/ vaccinations for EBV?

A

There are none - NO vaccine - steroids may be considered for those with severe symptoms

120
Q

What is CMV?

A

Cytomegalovirus

121
Q

What virus has been a problem for patients following solid-organ transplant for AIDS patients?

A

CMV

122
Q

What virus has the largest genome of the HHVs?

A

CMV

123
Q

What virus is the most common viral cause of congenital birth defects?

A

CMV

124
Q

What is the most common opportunistic pathogen in the immunocompromised?

A

CMV

125
Q

What virus is a major cause of blindness and death in patients with AIDS?

A

CMV

126
Q

What virus is the leading cause of inner ear hearing loss and nervous system damage in children in the US?

A

CMV

127
Q

What virus causes the other ~21% of cases of infectous mononucleosis?

A

CMV

128
Q

What type of nucleic acids does CMV have?

A

genome - DNA

In virion - RNA (contained)

129
Q

How does CMV escape immune detection and killing?

A

It prevents antigen presentation to T cells by interfering with MHC Class I and II molecules in infected cells. A viral protein also prevents killing of the infected cell by NK cells

130
Q

How can CMV be transmitted?

A

Saliva, tears, urine, stool, semen, breast milk, etc.

131
Q

What is CMV sialadentis?

A

Bilateral swelling of the salivary glands - quite painful

132
Q

What virus is associated with sialadentis?

A

CMV

133
Q

What is the most common opportunistic ocular infection?

A

CMV

134
Q

What causes hemorrhagic necrotizing retinitis?

A

CMV

135
Q

What virus gives a telltale infection of “Owl’s eye”?

A

CMV

136
Q

What is used to diagnose CMV?

A

Immunofluorescence, Indirect ELISA, and visualizaiton of Owls eyes.

137
Q

What is used in the treatment of CMV?

A

Ganciclovir (aggressive CMV retinitis) - only given to AIDS patients because it is quite toxic
Implant into eye with drugs other than ganciclovir

138
Q

What is Roseola?

A

Rapid onset of high fever followed by faint maculopapular rash over neck, trunk, and buttocks.

139
Q

What viruses cause Roseola?

A

HHV6 & HHV7

140
Q

Is was found that Kaposi’s sarcomas housed what virus and what are they?

A

HHV8 - rare type of B-cell lymphoma from AIDS patients - appear as red, purple, or dusty patches and may mimic an amalgam tatoo on the gums or hard palate

141
Q

There is a high incident of what among homosexual men with AIDS in comparison to hemophiliacs, transfusion recipients, or IV drug users with aids?

A

Kaposi’s sarcomas

142
Q

Patients with red, purple, or dusty patches and may mimic amalgam tatoo on the gums or hard palate have what disease and what virus?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma - HHV8

143
Q

What virus is common in summer months and there is often an increase in the infections after children return to schools?

A

Coxsackie A virus

144
Q

What virus is spread easily among school aged children due to the close contact?

A

Coxsackie A virus

145
Q

What virus causes hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD)?

A

Coxsackie A virus

146
Q

What is HFMD?

A

Causes painful red blisters on the throat, tongue, gums, hard palate, inside of cheeks, and the palms and soles of feet

147
Q

What virus causes herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A virus

148
Q

What is herpangina?

A

Throat infection that causes a very sore throat characterized by red-ringed blisters and ulcers on the tonsils and soft palate

149
Q

About 90% of aseptic meningitis (non-bacterial) is caused by what virus?

A

Coxsackie A & B viruses and echoviruses

150
Q

What virus causes hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

A

Coxsackie A virus

151
Q

What is hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

A

Eye pain, followed quickly by red, watery eyes with swelling, light sensitivity and blurred vision. Its extremely contagious

152
Q

What is the treatment for Coxsackie A virus?

A

Pain relievers may be used, bed rest, fluids, cleaning of all things with soap and water followed by chlorine-containing bleach.

153
Q

What virus is segmented?

A

Influenzavirus

154
Q

What two important glycoproteins does influenza have?

A

HA - Hemagglutinin

NA - Neuraminidase

155
Q

What does hemagglutinin (HA) do?

A

It anchors the virus to the cell by binding to sialic residues on the surface.

156
Q

What does neuraminidase (NA) do?

A

It enzymatically cleaves the sialic acid from the cell surface, allowing the release of the newly formed virion.

157
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Takes place over years and results in the regular flu epidemics that occur (slow process)

158
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

Reassortment of two different strains of influenza A virus that are both in the same cell (Ex: avian and human flu are in birds and reassort and then the bird come into contact with handler and passes it on)

159
Q

What are some complications associated with influenza?

A

Bacterial pneumonia, myositis and Reye’s syndrome

160
Q

Most death associated with influenza are actually the result of what?

A

Secondary bacterial pneumonia

161
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

Rare complication associated with viral respiratory disease. It usually affects children and infants

162
Q

How would you diagnose Influenza?

A

Immunofluorescence or hemadsorption inhibition with specific antibodies

163
Q

What are the different treatments used for influenza?

A

Oral prophylaxis - Amantadine & Ramantadine (target M2 protein - Also H1N1 and H5N1 are resistant to these drugs) - OLD PPL
Oseltamivir and Zanamivir - for ADULTS and inhibits NA but must be taken within 48 hours of symptoms (Oseltamivir is best bc nothing is resistant to it yet.)
Flu Shot -trivalent vaccine

164
Q

What is RSV?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

165
Q

What is the most common cause of fatal acute respiratory tract infections in young children and infants?

A

RSV

166
Q

What virus infects everyone by the age of 2?

A

RSV

167
Q

RSV is different from other paramyxoviruses - why?

A

It lacks HA and NA activities

168
Q

What virus causes plugs of mucus, fibrin, and necrotic material in small airways which can lead to obstruction?

A

RSV

169
Q

Do maternal antibodies of RSV protect the infant?

A

NO

170
Q

Does natural infection prevent reinfection for RSV?

A

NO

171
Q

What are the clinical syndromes associated with RSV?

A

Broncholitis & pneumonia in children under 1
Pharyngitis and rhinitis in children over 1
Common cold in adults and older children

172
Q

What diagnosis is used for RSV?

A

RT-PCR, Immunofluorescence, or ELISA

173
Q

What is used to treat and prevent RSV?

A

Ribavirin - off-label protocol for infants with serious disease (otherwise give oxygen, IV or nebulized cold streams to infants)
RSV-IGIV - hyperimmune globulin from humans
RSV-MAb - monoclonal antibody specific for RSV

174
Q

What virus is also known as Morbillivirus?

A

Measles