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Boeing 737 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

41,000 ft

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2
Q

What is the maximum TOL pressure altitude?

A

8,400 ft

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3
Q

CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING immediate action items

A
  1. Don oxygen masks and set regulators to 100%
  2. Establish crew communications
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4
Q

What is the minimum and maximum takeoff operating temperature limits?

A

-54 degrees C to +54 degrees C

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5
Q

What is the flight maneuvering loads? Flaps up/Flaps down

A

Flaps up = +2.5 g to -1.0 g
Flaps down = +2.0 g to 0.0 g

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6
Q

What is the maximum Mach Trim Inoperative Maximum Speed?

A

280 kts/0.82 M

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7
Q

What is the maximum airspeed (Vmo/Mmo/Gear speeds, etc.)

A

Maximum operating speed must not be exceeded in any regime of flight as listed on the placards or the overspeed warning (clacker). If the clacker or gear/flap placard speeds are exceeded, a logbook entry is required.

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8
Q

What is the maximum runway slope?

A

+/- 2%

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9
Q

What is the minimum recommended plowed or usable runway width?

A

100 ft.

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10
Q

What type of field condition report requires that you not attempt to takeoff or land?

A

NIL or MU value of 20 or less

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11
Q

What type of field condition report requires that you will not attempt a taxi or takeoff?

A

NIL

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12
Q

If the rudder pedal nose wheel steering is inoperative or thrust reverse inoperative (one), what is the minimum width of the runway?

A

45 m at minimum (147.6 ft)

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13
Q

What is the minimum width of a runway when you have a jammed or restricted flight controls, trailing edge flap asymmetry, leading edge flap/slat asymmetry, or loss of A/B hydraulics?

A

45 m at minimum (147.6 ft)

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14
Q

What is the maximum steady state crosswind for takeoff/landing on a dry runway?

A

35 kts (25 kts on narrow runway)

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15
Q

What is the maximum gust tailwind for takeoff or landing?

A

10 kts (exception for SJO/ITO)

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16
Q

What is the maximum steady state crosswind for takeoff or landing on a 5-Good runway?

A

25 kts

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17
Q

What is a narrow runway for crosswind considerations?

A

less than 45 m (147.6 ft)

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18
Q

What are low visibility steady crossing takeoff/landing winds?

A

<4000 RVR or 3/4 mi - 35 kts (25 kts for narrow runway) takeoff or 15 kts on landing

<1600 RVR or 1/4 mi - 20 kts takeoff, 15 kts landing

< 500 RVR - 10 kts takeoff

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19
Q

When is the sideslip (no crab) landings recommended?

A

For crosswind components up to 15 kts

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20
Q

What is the maximum bank angle with aircraft that have ventral strakes for landing?

A

8.8 degrees bank. Do not use sideslip only with crosswind techniques that exceed 15 kts

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21
Q

What are the MAX ground wind operating envelopes?

A

> 45 kts crosswind, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi.

> 58 kts crosswind, limit engine thrust to idle except when setting takeoff thrust on the runway

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22
Q

What is the maximum headwind component for an HGS AIII mode?

A

25 kts

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23
Q

When do you use gusts in your takeoff/landing calculations?

A

Usually use steady state in the takeoff/landing crosswind/headwind component calculations. Use gusts for tailwind computations.

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24
Q

When winds are variable, what do you use for calculations?

A

Use the most restrictive direction for variable winds (tailwind)

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25
Q

What types of winds does the PWB system use?

A

Magnetic (must convert from reports to magnetic)

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26
Q

What is the maximum wind velocity for takeoff and landing?

A

50 kts steady wind and 70 kts peak gust

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27
Q

What is the minimum flight deck crew?

A

2

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28
Q

What must be done before departing with passengers (check)?

A

Overwing exit handle cover must be verified and all girt bars must be installed for taxi, takeoff, and landing

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29
Q

If you are conducting a flight without passengers, how many girt bars must be installed?

A

One forward door escape slide retention bar must be installed during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

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30
Q

May you dispatch with all lavatories inoperative?

A

Not for revenue flights

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31
Q

May you access the Onboard Maintenance Function (PMF) or MCDU Maintenance pages?

A

Not unless allowed by MX Control or MEL.

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32
Q

When may you use PWB intersection takeoff data?

A

It is only valid for that runway and intersection and not for another intersection or full length

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33
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight?

A

-700 = 155,000 lbs
-800 = 174,700 lbs
-Max = 181,700 lbs

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34
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

-700 = 154,500 lbs
-800 = 174,200 lbs
-Max = 181,200 lbs

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35
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

-700 = 129,200 lbs
-800 = 146,300 lbs
-Max = 151,500 lbs

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36
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

-700 = 121,700 lbs
-800 = 138,300 lbs
-Max = 145,000 lbs

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37
Q

If a cargo load has been exceeded, do you need to make a logbook entry?

A

Contact Dispatch and Maintenance - they will instruct is a logbook entry is required.

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38
Q

What is the approximate maximum total of the cargo bins?

A

-700 = approximately 4,300 lbs (fwd), 7,000 lbs (aft)
-800/Max = approximately 7,500 lbs (fwd), 10,500 lbs (aft)

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39
Q

If an aircraft has a drag reduction kit, what is the minimum landing weight?

A

93,000 lbs. If landing at a weight of below 93,000 lbs, use this weight to calculate a Vref (may not use a Vref number lower than 93,000 lbs) – PWB will automatically adjust for a minimum of 93,000 lbs

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40
Q

What is the maximum safety system relief differential pressure?

A

9.10 psi

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41
Q

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure for takeoff and landing?

A

0.125 psi

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42
Q

What position must the PACK switch be for takeoff, approach, or landing?

A

May not be in HIGH position (this does not include when directed by a fire protection non-normal checklist

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43
Q

What is the maximum operating differential pressures

A

range from 7.45 to 8.35 psid

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44
Q

What is the maximum external air pressures?

A

60 psi

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45
Q

Can a pack and preconditioned air be used at the same time?

A

No, pack and preconditioned air sources can not be used at the same time to heat or cool the aircraft

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46
Q

What types of operations are allowed with an unpressurized aircraft?

A

Non-revenue flights

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47
Q

When may you use the Engines Bleeds On procedures?

A

When operational conditions permit

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48
Q

When may you power two engine packs from an engine bleed source?

A

The MAX may power two packs by one engine bleed source in flight only.

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49
Q

When must engine ignition be on?

A

For takeoff, landing, operation in heavy rain, and during anti-ice operation.

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50
Q

When must engine anti-ice be on?

A

During all ground/flight operations in icing conditions (exist or anticipated) except during climb or cruise below -40 degrees C SAT. Must turn on during the descent even when below -40 degrees SAT

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51
Q

Can you hold with flaps extended?

A

Only when there are no icing conditions - holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited

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52
Q

When may you not operate the wing anti-ice?

A

On the ground with temperatures above 10 degrees C (OAT)

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53
Q

Can you use wing anti-ice as a ground de-ice/anti-ice method?

A

Do not use as a substitute for ground de-ice/anti-ice or inspection procedures

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54
Q

What is the maximum speed with window heat inoperative?

A

Maximum speed is 250 kts below 10,000 ft.

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55
Q

When must problems heat be on?

A

All phases of flight

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56
Q

When may you operate the weather radar?

A

Do not operate during fueling, near fuel spills, or people

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57
Q

When must you turn off the wing anti-ice?

A

Before the takeoff roll (must be in OFF position)

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58
Q

After you de-ice, how long must you wait to turn on an APU or engine bleed?

A

1 minute

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59
Q

For the max, when may you activate the engine anti-ice system?

A

You may not activate until in actual or anticipated icing conditions (may result in severe engine inlet damage or failure

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60
Q

When may you use the autopilot?

A

Anytime except takeoff, landing, or below 400 ft AGL on takeoff. You must disengage by 50 ft below DA/DDA but no less than 50 ft AGL

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61
Q

May you use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

No

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62
Q

When may you use the autothrottle?

A

Must be disengaged by 50 ft below DA/DDA but no less than 50 ft AGL. Must be disengaged in severe turbulence. Must be disengaged when the autopilot is disengaged during cruise, descent, or approach phases. Momentary use is allowed with in CWS pitch mode.

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63
Q

What is the maximum generator output for the NG? Max? in a single generator scenario.

A

On the ground - 215 amps per engine-driven generator (NG). On the ground or air - 215 amps per engine-driven generator (MAX)

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64
Q

What can be used to reduce an engine-driven generator below the max amperage?

A

The CAB/UTIL and IFE/PASS SEAT switches must be turned off in flight with one generator and no APU available to minimize below 215 amps.

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65
Q

What is a generator maximum load amps?

A

260 amps

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66
Q

What is the maximum TR load with or without cooling?

A

75 amps with cooling, 50 amps without cooling

67
Q

What is the normal battery voltage range?

A

22 - 30 volts

68
Q

After you shut down the IRS, how long must you wait to remove AC power?

A

30 seconds

69
Q

What may you use flight deck outlets for?

A

Charging/powering the EFB only

70
Q

May you reset a circuit breaker in flight?

A

Only reset in accordance with the QRH and allow 2 minutes for cooling. You may reset other than when directed by QRH if the CA believes regaining the system is critical to the safe conduct of the flight. You may not reset a tripped fuel quantity indicator, fuel pump, or fuel pump control circuit breaker.

71
Q

If you reset a circuit breaker, must you make a logbook entry?

A

You must notify Maintenance and enter a logbook entry if reset in flight. On the ground, if not reset, make a fault entry and if reset, make an Info Only entry. You must include the Maintenance Controllers name to document.

72
Q

May you reset a tripped circuit breaker on the ground?

A

One reset is allowed if Maintenance has determined it is safe to reset. Allow 2 minutes before resetting.

73
Q

May you cycle a circuit breaker in flight?

A

You may not cycle a circuit breaker unless directed by QRH, listed in a AOM/FOM/Ops Binder procedure. Include an info only write up in the maintenance logbook.

74
Q

May you cycle a circuit breaker on the ground?

A

You may not cycle a circuit breaker unless coordinated/approved by Maintenance Control. Include an Info Only writeup with maintenance controller’s name in writeup.

75
Q

Can you exceed redline or red arc limitations?

A

No. These indicate an overspeed/overtemperature condition

76
Q

In the max, what oil temperature must you have before taking off?

A

After start, oil temperature must rise to at least 31 degrees C and be indicating this before setting takeoff thrust.

77
Q

What is the maximum RPM (N1)?

A

104.0% (NG) 104.3% (Max)

78
Q

What is the maximum EGT for TO/GA?

A

950 degrees C (NG), 1038 degrees C (Max)

79
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure?

A

13 psi min (NG); 17 psi (Max) - must be in green band for takeoff in max

80
Q

What must be true for takeoff with the EEC in the alternate mode?

A

Reduced thrust takeoffs are not allowed and both EECs must be in the alternate mode.

81
Q

When must ignition be on?

A

For takeoff and landing.

82
Q

Where must he oil pressure digital readouts be for takeoff?

A

In the white band and will display amber/red if the limits are exceeded.

83
Q

How long must an engine warmup before takeoff?

A

Operate engines at or near idle after rollback for 5 minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust (recommended) but at minimum 2 minutes for the NG or 3 minutes for the MAX.

84
Q

How long must an engine cooldown after landing?

A

Prior to shutdown, operate engines at or near die for a minimum of 1 minute on the NG (3 minutes if able) and 3 minutes on the MAX.

85
Q

What is the starter duty cycle for a normal engine start?

A

NG - 2 minutes ON, 10 seconds OFF
MAX - 3 minutes ON, 10 seconds OFF

86
Q

What is the starter duty cycle for motoring?

A

NG - 15 minutes
MAX - 5 minutes and then five minutes between the first two extended engine motoring.

87
Q

How much oil must you have to depart a non-maintenance based?

A

NG - 60%, coordinate for oil servicing when terminating at < 65%
MAX - 66%, coordinate for oil servicing when terminating at <70%

88
Q

How much oil must you have to depart a maintenance base?

A

NG - 70%
Max - 70%

89
Q

When may you see a low oil quantity alert during takeoff/climb?

A

NG = 65%
Max = 70%

90
Q

When may you not use reverse?

A

Intentional selection in flight is prohibited, backing up the aircraft with reverse thrust, going around after thrust reverser deployment on landing, during taxi to reduce speed.

91
Q

If a thrust reverser is inoperative, may you takeoff?

A

If either thrust reverse is inoperative - only if the runway is not contaminated with clutter resulting or braking action < 5 GOOD. You may also not dispatch from a runway < 45 m wide if one thrust reverser is inoperative.

92
Q

If nose wheel steering is inoperative, may you takeoff?

A

Only from runways that are 45 m wide or more.

93
Q

When must you use reverse thrust, if available?

A

During landing at a detent of 2 or higher unless a higher level is specified.

94
Q

What is the maximum altitude for operation?

A

41,000 ft.

95
Q

What is the maximum altitude for generator only?

A

41,000 ft.

96
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air only?

A

17,000 ft.

97
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air and electric?

A

14,000 ft

98
Q

When must the APU bleed air valve be closed?

A

Ground air is connected and isolation valve is open, engine Bleed Valve #1 is open, isolation valve and engine bleed valve #2 are open.

99
Q

If the DUAL BLEED light is illuminated, what must occur?

A

You may not exceed engine power above idle.

100
Q

How long must you wait between APU start attempts?

A

90 seconds

101
Q

When may you turn the battery switch OFF following an APU shutdown?

A

You must wait 2 minutes (NG) or 5 minutes (MAX) to turn off the battery switch after the APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates.

101
Q

If the APU fails to start, when must you call maintenance?

A

After the third attempt, call Maintenance and Dispatch.

102
Q

When may you turn on the APU in flight?

A

You may only start the APU airborne when directed by QRH procedure or by PWB performance considerations.

103
Q

How long must the APU be operated before it can be used as a bleed air source?

A

2 minutes

104
Q

What flap settings are authorized for takeoff?

A

All, except Flaps 2.

105
Q

When using the alternate flaps system, what time requirements must be met?

A

You may use one complete cycle (up and down) and then must wait for 5 minutes. You must leave the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch position in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.

106
Q

What is the maximum setting of the speed brakes handle in flight?

A

You may not exceed the FLIGHT DETENT of the speed brake lever handle.

107
Q

What is the minimum altitude for speed brake extension?

A

Below 1,000 ft AGL, may not extend speed brakes.

108
Q

What is the maximum flaps setting for speed brake extension?

A

Do not use speed brakes with greater than Flaps 10.

109
Q

What is the maximum speed for speed brake extension?

A

If the speedbrake wing load alleviation system is inoperative, do not operate at speeds in excess of 320 kts or at weights above 143,000 lbs.

110
Q

What must you avoid with flight control usage?

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, with changes in pitch, roll or yaw - these may result in structural failure at any speed even below Va.

111
Q

When may you select flaps?

A

Avoid selecting flaps at or near the speeds as placarded and use the PFD flap maneuvering speeds or recommended speed schedules.

112
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference in altimeters for RVSM operation?

A

200 ft between the CA and FO altimeters.

113
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference in altimeters for field level?

A

Sea Level to 5,000 ft: 50 ft between CA and FO, 75 ft between CA/FO and field elevation; >5000 ft: 60 ft between CA and FO, 75 ft between CA/FO and field elevation.

114
Q

When must you recharge your EFB?

A

20% or less battery power indications

115
Q

Where may the charging cord be for EFB charging?

A

Not between/behind panels or under switch covers and not interfere with flight controls/instruments/oxygen masks, etc.

116
Q

If you are unable to charge your EFB, what charge must it have to depart?

A

Reference the EFB Flight Time +10% chart based on flight length (each hour requires 10% + 10% buffer). At minimum 30% and 6 hour flights require 80%

117
Q

What is the primary source of weather documentation?

A

AVIO Weather tab (or paper weather packet) is the primary reference with the WSI Pilotbrief Optima as supplemental.

118
Q

What is the approved location of the suction mount if the EFB mount is deferred?

A

The #2 window

119
Q

Where may the EFB be placed?

A

On the mount (permanent or suction), face down on the glare shield for a short period of time, may not be placed on the lower DU.

120
Q

May you use the digital form of the QRH in operations?

A

No - the paper copy in the flight deck is the official copy.

121
Q

Where is it determined if the HGS III is available?

A

Logbook, HGS placard, Dispatch Release annotation

122
Q

What MELS may you not use with the 5G procedures?

A

Antiskid, alternate anti-skid valves, automatic brake system, parking brake valve. You may not takeoff or land on a runway with a runway condition of 1 or 0.

123
Q

What message on the FMS CDU would prevent using LNAV?

A

UNABLE REQD NAV PERF_RNP

124
Q

When must you use the flight director during RNAV operations?

A

1.0 RNP or less and RNAV operations

125
Q

When must you use the autopilot during RNAV operations?

A

RNAV approaches with RNP less than 0.30 NM

126
Q

When may you engage VNAV on a go-around/missed approach?

A

When flaps are fully retracted

127
Q

What is the approximate usable fuel quantity for the aircraft?

A

Maximum of approximately 30,500 lbs (NG) and 30,300 (MAX). Dependent on fuel density

128
Q

What is the maximum fuel tank temperature?

A

+49 degrees C

129
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-30 degrees C

130
Q

What is the maximum taxi, takeoff, and landing fuel imbalance?

A

1000 lbs. An inspection may be required if exceeded.

131
Q

What types of fuel are prohibited?

A

Jet B or JP-4

132
Q

If you are going to put fuel in the center tank, what must be true?

A

If center tank quantity exceeds 1,000 lbs, the main tanks must be full (approximately 9000 lbs per side dependent on fuel density). For 1,000 lbs the effects of balance must be considered

133
Q

When must the center tank fuel pumps be on?

A

Center tank fuel pumps must be ON for all operations with more than 1,000 lbs of fuel in the center tank. This does not apply to refueling or transferring fuel. The pumps must be switched OFF when the LOW PRESSURE light (either one) for the center tank illuminates or less than 1,000 lbs and may be turned back on when in level flight as long as the center tank contains usable fuel.

134
Q

When may you transfer fuel from tank to tank or defuel? What must occur?

A

Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with passengers onboard given that the fuel quantity in the tank from which the fuel is being taken is at least 2,000 lbs. Remove passengers and non-critical personnel when defueling and below 2,000 lbs until the operation is complete and boost pumps are off.

135
Q

What must be present for you to turn on the center fuel pumps?

A

Personnel must be available on the flight deck to monitor the low pressure lights to turn on the center fuel pumps.

136
Q

May you run the center tank dry?

A

Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated) is prohibited.

137
Q

What type of tripped circuit breakers may you not reset?

A

Tripped fuel quantity indicator, fuel pump, or fuel pump control circuit breakers.

138
Q

Where must the hydraulic pressure be before pushback?

A

Hydraulic System A must be depressurized (Both pumps OFF and low pressure lights illuminated) before pushback.

139
Q

What must be present before the aircraft can be towed?

A

Engines shut down, hydraulic system A is depressurized (both pumps off and LOW PRESSURE lights illuminated)

140
Q

What is the maximum gear extension speed?

A

270 kts/0.82 Mach

141
Q

What is the maximum gear retraction speed?

A

235 kts

142
Q

What is the maximum gear extended speed?

A

320 kts/0.82 Mach

143
Q

When may you apply brakes?

A

Do not apply until touchdown

144
Q

When may you takeoff with anti-skid inoperative?

A

Dry runway

145
Q

What is the maximum temperature/time for a ground turn regarding brake temperatures?

A

NG - 425 degrees F, measure 10-15 minutes after parking.
-800/MAX - fixed time of 48 minutes if MQTW is exceeded. Cannot take a break temperature measurement - this is landing not rejected takeoffs.

146
Q

May you conduct a revenue flight with landing gear down?

A

No

147
Q

When are auto brakes not allowed?

A

Not allowed with anti-skid inoperative

148
Q

When must you use auto brakes?

A

On a runway 5-Good or less, less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 mi reported visibility, landing at less than Flaps 30. Also to be used for landing in strong/gusty crosswinds or when uniform brake application due to rudder input may be affected.

149
Q

May you use a higher auto brake setting in lieu of computing new landing data if conditions are deteriorating?

A

No

150
Q

What auto brakes setting must you use?

A

If anticipated to be worse than reported, use that which most appropriately corresponds to that which you anticipate. Use one that corresponds with a positive stopping margin, Autobrake 1 is not available.

151
Q

When must you land if you have discharged the fire suppression system?

A

NG - 60 minutes of initial discharge
-MAX - 180 minutes

152
Q

May you use the terrain display for navigation?

A

No

153
Q

When must you inhibit the terrain display?

A

within 15 nm of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport/runway not in the GPWS terrain database. This is done through the TERR INHIBIT switch to INHIBIT. All hard surfaced runways > 3500 ft are included in this database

154
Q

When may you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

To meet a TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA)

155
Q

When must you respond to a TCAS TA or RA?

A

Immediately

156
Q

When must you test the flight deck door access system?

A

Operational check once each flight day - this occurs when the WN-966 Aircraft Security Checklist is required or on the first flight of the day.

157
Q

When must you use EGPWS

A

At least one pilot should select terrain display on EGPWS during a climb/descent below the MSA, when accept responsibility for terrain/obstacle clearance, during conduct of uncharted visual arrivals/approaches especially at night or in mountainous terrain, during RNAV/RNP approached, charted visual approaches, or circling approached, in the event a landing at the nearest suitable airport is required, or in the case of an emergency descent.

158
Q

When may you access e-documents on the EFB?

A

Those needed to safety conduct the flight and other e-documents during non-critical phases of flight.

159
Q

What is the aborted engine start immediate action items?

A

Engine start lever [affected engine]…CUTOFF

160
Q

What is the APU fire immediate action items?

A

APU Fire Switch…Confirm…Pull, rotate to the stop, hold for 1 second
APU switch….OFF

161
Q

What is the Airspeed Unreliable Immediate Action Items?

A
  1. Autopilot (if engaged)…Disengage
  2. Autothrottles (if engaged)…Disengage
  3. F/D switches (both)…OFF
  4. Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
    Flaps extended…10 degrees and 80% N1
    Flaps up…8 degrees and 75% N1
162
Q

What is the Runaway Stabilizer Immediate Action Items

A
  1. Control Column…Hold firmly
  2. Autopilot (if engaged)…Disengage
  3. Autothrottle (if engaged)….Disengage
  4. Control column and thrust levers…Control aircraft pitch attitude and airspeed
  5. Main Electric Stabilizer trim…Reduce control column forces
  6. If the runaway stops after the autopilot is disengaged - Do not re-engage autopilot or auto throttle
  7. If the runaway continued after the autopilot is disengaged:
    STAB TRIM cutoff switches (both)…CUTOUT
    If the runaway continues: Stabilizer trim wheel…Grasp and hold
163
Q

What is the maximum EGT for start?

A

725 degrees C

737 (4 decks)

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