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body systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five main components of the skeletal system?

Hint - CBCLT

A
  • bones of skeleton
  • cartilage
  • ligaments
  • tendons
  • CT to stabilise/connect bones
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2
Q

What are the five stages of bone formation?

(Hint -

  1. collar around the model
  2. the 3Cs: cartilage → calcification → cavities
  3. peri bud → int. c + spongy bone form
  4. diaphysis + med. cavity → 2° oss centres in epiph.
  5. epiph. + end → h.c only remain in 2 places stating with first 2 vowels)
A
  1. bone collar forms around hyaline cartilage model
  2. cartilage in center of diaphysis calcifies, then develops cavities
  3. periosteal bud invades internal cavities + spongy bones begin to form
  4. diaphysis elongates + medullar cavity forms → secondary ossification centres appear in epiphyses
  5. epiphyses ossify and complete → hyaline cartilage only remains in epiphyseal plates + articular cartilages
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3
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

Hint - LSP is BS

A

1) levers – change direction of forces generated by skeletal muscle
2) support and framework
3) protection (delicate tissues and organs)
4) blood cell production – (RBC, WBC in bone marrow)
5) storage – minerals/Ca salts + lipids (YBM)

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4
Q

What are the three types of cartilage and what is each one made of?

(Hint - HEF + ‘hyalos’ = glass, collagen-elastic-collagen)

A 
1. hyaline cartilage 
• most common, tough but flexible 
• translucent matrix
• closely-packed collagen
- i.e. connects ribs and sternum, nasal cartilages, respiratory tract, articular cartilage
2. elastic cartilage 
• resilient + flexible 
• tolerates distortion
- i.e. external flab outer ear, epiglottis, larynx 
3. fibrocartilage 
• matrix with lots of densely-interwoven collagen 
• little ground substance 
• tough and durable
• resists compression + shock-absorption
• prevents bone friction 
- i.e. pads between spinal vertebrae
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5
Q

Which types of marrow do bones contain and what is the function of each one?

A
  • yellow bone marrow → stores fat

- red BM → haematopoiesis

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6
Q

What is found within compact bone?

Hint - OLP

A
  • osteon/Haversian functional unit with osteocytes arranged in concentric layers
  • lamellae of osteons form cylinders around central canal (with blood vessels)
  • perforating canals are passageways and are surrounded in periosteum
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7
Q

What is found within spongy bone?

Hint - NOT

A
  • no capillaries/venules (nutrients reach cells by diffusion along canaliculi)
  • open network (formed by frequent branching of thin trabeculae)
  • trabeculae (rods formed by lamellae which contain RBM)
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8
Q

What are the different bone shapes? provide examples of each one.

(Hint - s’ fliss)

A
  • long – long, slender i.e. femur, humerus
  • short – small, boxy i.e. carpals, tarsals
  • flat – thin, parallel surfaces i.e. parietal, ribs, scapula
  • irregular – complex, notched/ridged surface i.e. pelvis
  • sesamoid – small, flat i.e. inside joints like patella
  • sutural – small, flat, irregular i.e. between flat bones of skull
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9
Q

Which cells are found in bone and what are their functions?

Hint – ‘OsteoBlasts’ Build bone & ‘osteoClasts’ consume bone

A
  1. osteoprogenitor cells – form CT
  2. osteoblasts – secrete collagen fibres to build ECM of bone
  3. osteocytes – maintain daily metabolism of bone tissue
  4. osteoclasts – release powerful enzymes to digest protein and mineral components of ECM
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10
Q

What is the blood supply to bones?

Hint - MNoP

A
  • nutrient artery
  • metaphyseal vessels
  • periosteal vessels
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11
Q

What role does bone play in calcium homeostasis in the body?

A
  • body’s major calcium reservoir (deposition + resorption)
  • controls nerve and muscle function
  • normal plasma [Ca] is 9-11 mg/100mL
  • levels decrease → osteoclasts release Ca
  • levels increase → osteoblasts absorb Ca
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12
Q

How do we treat fractures to restore function and what are the different methods of this process?

A
  • realign and immobilise bone fragments by ‘reduction’
    • closed reduction – fractured ends brought into alignment by manual manipulation
    • open reduction – fractured ends brought into alignment by surgical procedure with fixation devices i.e. screws
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13
Q

What are the 4 stages of repair of bone fractures?

Hint - HFBB

A
  1. hematoma formation
  2. fibrocartilaginous callus formation
  3. bony callus formation
  4. bone remodelling
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14
Q

What is a joint?

A

unions between 2+ bones

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15
Q

What are the different types of joint?

Hint - SPF-HCBC-P → s fluid, way to be flexible “p” and the part of the door your hand can get trapped in “t”

A
  • synovial joint → most common which provides free movement between joined bones
  • plane joints → permit sliding movements in plane of articular surfaces - opposed bone surfaces flat with limited movement
  • fibrous joint → bones held close together, interlocking along a wavy line
  • hinge joints → joint capsule thin and lax anteriorly and posteriorly where movement occurs - bones joined by strong lateral collateral ligaments and only permit flexion and extension
  • cartilaginous joint → bones united by hyaline cartilage/fibrocartilage - can be primary (temporary) or secondary (stronger)
  • ball-and-socket joints → spheroidal bone surface which moves within the socket of another allowing multiple axes + plane movement
  • condyloid joints → permit most movements such as metacarpophalangeal joints
  • pivot joints → permit rotation around a central axis
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16
Q

What are the four different types of ball-and-socket dislocations?

(Hint - three subs with C-G-C and one i)

A
  • subcoracoid (most common)
  • subglenoid
  • subclavicular
  • intrathoracic
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17
Q

What is a grade I AC sprain?

A
  • slight displacement of AC joint (most common AC joint injury)
  • AC ligament stretched or partially torn
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18
Q

What is a grade II AC sprain?

Hint - main point + what happens to the clavicle

A
  • partial separation of joint
  • with some possible superior displacement of clavicle

(not always obvious during physical examination - AC ligament torn but coracoclavicular intact)

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19
Q

What is a grade III AC sprain?

A
  • a complete separation of joint (AC ligament, coracoclavicular ligaments and capsule surrounding joint)
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20
Q

How can a grade III AC sprain be seen on clinical examination and how?

A
  • obvious
  • without any ligament support, shoulder falls under weight of arm → clavicle pulled up by trapezius + sternocleidomastoid muscle → bump on shoulder
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21
Q

Where is the heart found, and where are the functions of the pulmonary and systemic circulations?

(Hint - ‘pulmonary’ means lungs and is the most important hence the ‘RIGHT’ bit)

A
  • between the lungs (2nd-6th rib) covered by the mediastinum
  • pulmonary circulation – right heart + pulmonary arteries, capillaries and veins (RV pumps blood to lungs)
  • systemic circulation – left heart + systemic arteries, capillaries and veins (pumps blood to all organs except lungs)

NB: L + R heart → different functions

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22
Q

What is the largest systemic artery and why is it significant?

A
  • aorta

- medium and small-sized ones all branch off it

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23
Q

What are systolic and diastolic arterial pressure?

A
  • systolic pressure – pressure in arteries after blood ejected from LV during systole
    (highest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle)
  • diastolic pressure – pressure in arteries when no blood is ejected from LV during ventricular relaxation
    (lowest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle)
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24
Q

What are the three main different types of blood vessel and their derivatives?

A
  • types: arteries, capillaries and veins

- derivatives: artery → arteriole → capillary → venule → vein

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25
Q

What do larger lymphatic vessels contain?

A

vasa vasorum (supply of small blood vessels)

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26
Q

How can blood cells found in the CV system be classified?

Hint - ELPP

A

• erythrocytes
- normal blood: 12 – 18g Hb/100ml of blood
• leukocytes – WBC’s for diapedesis of blood vessels
• plasma (92% water)
• platelets - megakaryocyte fragments which control bleeding by serotonin release (blood vessels spasm + narrow → decrease blood flow to site of injury)

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27
Q

State the route of cardiac APs in the CV system.

A
  1. SAN
  2. atrial internodal tracts + atria
  3. AV node
  4. Bundle of His, Purkinje system and ventricles:
    - AVN → ventricle system
    - common bundle → Bundle of His → L + R bundle branches of Purkinje system
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28
Q

What is atherosclerosis, how is its risk increased and what are its symptoms and treatment?

A
  • artery wall thickens due to accumulation of fatty material → damage to endothelium + plaque
  • risk factors: high BP, smoking or high cholesterol
  • asymptomatic until a stroke/heart attack
  • treatment: lifestyle changes, medications, stenting, bypass surgery
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29
Q

What is the digestive system and what is its function?

A
  • long muscular tube that begins at mouth and ends w/ anus

- function: chemical breakdown of biological molecules into their component parts

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30
Q

What are the components of the digestive system?

Hint - dotostlas

A
  • oral cavity
  • teeth and periodontium
  • tongue
  • salivary glands
  • oesophagus
  • digestive tract
    • small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
    • large intestine (caecum, appendix, colon, rectum)
  • accessory organs: organs not in the digestive tract, but still aid digestion
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31
Q

What are the three main functions of the mouth?

Hint - HSM

A
  1. secretion of salivary amylase
  2. manipulates food for mastication
  3. highly-muscular tongue
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32
Q

How is taste conducted by the tongue, what are the different types and what is the major function and histology of these structures?

(Hint - fungi, circumference, valet, folic acid → epithelia type)

A
  • by lingual papillae (cover tongue surface):
    • filiform (most numerous)
    • fungiform
    • circumvallate
    • foliate
  • major function → ingestion + mechanical fragmentation of food
  • major histology → lined by stratified squamous epithelium
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33
Q

What are the three main transport passages of the digestive system?

(Hint - OPA)

A
  1. pharynx
  2. oesophagus
    - mucosa → stratified sq. (above D)
    - columnar epithelium (below D)
    - well-defined lamina propria + muscularised mucosae
    - peristalsis propels food + water → stomach
  3. anal canal - simple muscular transport tubes lined with stratified sq. epithelium + some mucous glands for lubrication
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34
Q

Name the 4 layers of the oesophagus/alimentary (GI) tract, from top to bottom.

(Hint - M-S-M-A/E)

A
  1. mucousa
    - columnar epithelial cells → glandular secretions → moisten surface
    - lamina propria: loose CT with small blood vessels, lymphatics, nerve fibres + cells (macrophages)
  2. submucosa
    - CT layer to separates mucosa from underlying muscle layers
    - regulates contractions + glandular secretions
    - submucosal plexus (meissnr’s plexus)
  3. muscualris
    • inner SM: circular layer
    • outer SM: longitudinal
    → layers allow peristaltic contractions
    - second myenteric nerve plexus located between muscular layers
  4. serosa and adventitia
    - connected to surrounding tissues + made of fibrous CT
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35
Q

What is the stomach, its function and its structure?

Hint - structure → IGM

A
  • reservoir + digestive organ where food is mixed with gastric juices, HCl + enzymes (pepsin)
  • inner folds (rugae) → increase SA
  • gastric mucosa: muscularis mucosae (circular + longitudinal SM)
  • muscularis externa → 3 layers (oblique, circular, longitudinal)
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36
Q

What are the structures of the mucosa of the small intestine, where are they found and by what scale do they increase its SA?

(Hint - PIM)

A
  • plicae - permanent structures (no distension change) absent from start of duodenum → increase SA 3x
  • intestinal villi - entire intestinal mucosa with mainly enterocyte (absorptive) cells → increase SA
  • microvilli - on enterocytes → increase SA 20x
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37
Q

What is the function of the large intestine (frames small intestine) and its main histology?

A
  • reabsorption of water and inorganic salts

- histology → SM, goblet cells (more numerous than SI), neither plicae nor villi

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38
Q

What is a hiatal hernia?

A

protrusion of stomach into mediastinum through oesophageal hiatus of diaphragm

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39
Q

What is a gastric ulcer?

Hint - holes in stomach due to bacteria H

A

lesions in stomach lining caused mainly by bacterium helicobacter pylori

40
Q

What are the four digestive accessory organs and their functions?

(Hint - consult L’ GPS)

A
  • salivary glands → lubricating fluid + enzymes
  • liver → bile-production + storage
  • gallbladder → stores + concentrates bile
  • pancreas → exocrine cells (fluid and enzymes)
41
Q

Classify the large and small glands of the digestive system.

Hint - large is LLB MP and small is SPS

A

• large (situated in submucosa of oral cavity + tongue):
- lingual
- labial
- buccal
- molar
- palatine
• small:
- sublingual (beneath tongue, many ducts)
- submandibular (floor of mouth, along inner surface of mandible behind teeth)
- parotid (largest + empties into mouth at 2nd molar)
→ secretes about 1000-1500 ml saliva/day

42
Q

What do glands which are close and distal to oral cavity secrete?

(Hint - close is balgam and far is thinner fluid)

A
  • close → mucus

- distal → serous fluid

43
Q

For each gland, state the cells types found within:

a) sublingual
b) submandibular
c) parotid

(Hint - just m, s + m or just s)

A

a) mucous acini
b) serous and mucus acini
c) serous acini

44
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

Hint - DM the DG

A
  • digestive
  • metabolic and synthetic
  • glucose, fat and protein metabolism
  • detoxification
45
Q

What is the liver, what is it protected by and functionally divided into?

A
  • highly-vascularised
  • exocrine gland
  • protected by T7-11 and diaphragm
  • functionally divided into larger R lobe (caudate + quadrate lobes) and L lobe by middle hepatic vein
  • further divided into 8 → divisions of R, M and L hepatic veins
  • each segment has its own portal pedicle
  • comprised of hexagonal lobules separated by a septum made of hepatocytes
46
Q

Which structures can be found in the gallbladder?

A
  • bile canaliculi → collect hepatocyte-produced bile → drain into bile duct
  • bile passes from liver, via biliary ducts which join to form common hepatic duct
  • common hepatic duct + cystic duct → common bile duct
  • bile → aids in lipid digestion
47
Q

Describe the vasculature of the liver.

A
  • 25% of resting cardiac output, delivered via 2 main vessels, entering liver hilum:
    • hepatic artery (branch of coeliac axis)
    • portal vein (drains most of GI tract + spleen)
48
Q

What does a single functional unit of the liver (lobule) contain histologically?

(Hint - HPV)

A
  • terminal hepatic venule
  • interconnecting plates of hepatocytes
  • peripherally-arranged portal triads
49
Q

What is the composition of bile, what is it produced by and pass into?

A
  • bile = bilirubin (organic) and bile salts (inorganic)
  • produced by hepatocytes
  • bile passes: into bile canaliculi → bile duct

(NB: jaundice = over-production of bile)

50
Q

Which ducts is bile secreted from?

Hint - IT and then the 3 Cs

A
  • terminal bile ducts (cuboidal epithelium)
  • intrahepatic bile ducts (columnar epithelium)
    • carry bile within liver → coalesce into L + R hepatic ducts → unite as common hepatic duct
  • cystic duct (to/from gallbladder)
  • common bile duct (to duodenum)
51
Q

What is the gallbladder and what is its actions?

A

• ovoid sac with muscular wall which can distend and concentrates + stores bile
• actions:
- water and ions absorbed by mucosa
- receives watery bile from hepatic duct and empties thick, concentrated bile into common bile duct
- when small intestine empty, sphincter of Oddi closes

52
Q

What are gallstones?

A

crystallized cholesterol within gall bladder

53
Q

What is cholecystokinin (CCK) and how does it work?

Hint - the first steps and then hp dilates, g contracts and bile ejected

A
  • peptide hormone released from duodenal inclusion cells
  • reduces digestive motility (gastric muscle contractions) + gastric emptying (food emptying from stomach → SI)
  • works by dilating hepatopancreatic sphincter, contracting gallbladder and ejecting bile into duodenum via duodenal ampulla
54
Q

What is the histological structure of the gallbladder?

Hint - no middle layer and mostly an outside layer

A
  • columnar epithelium with microvilli
  • no mucus-producing cells or submucosa
  • muscularis externa
  • adventitia
55
Q

What is the pancreas?

A
  • retroperitoneal organ located behind stomach with no distinct capsule (CT layer)
  • both endocrine and exocrine function
56
Q

State the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas and the cells found within it.

A
  • exocrine functions → acini cells are clusters surrounding ducts responsible for secreting digestive enzymes
  • endocrine functions → islets of Langerhans
  • cells:
    • β-cells (secrete insulin - stimulates glycogen, protein and fatty acid synthesis)
    • α-cells (secrete glucagon to raise BGC)
    • δ-cells (secrete locally-acting somatostatin - inhibits release of other hormones)
  • degeneration of β-cells → type 1 diabetes
57
Q

What is gastritis and what is it caused by?

A
  • inflammation associated with mucosal injury of the stomach
  • caused by H. pylori infection, excessive drinking/smoking or prolonged NSAID use

NB: NSAID (non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs) = if chronic can lead to gastric intestinal metaplasia which is a precursor of gastric cancer

58
Q

What is a gastric tumour?

Hint - H → C → A + P

A

H. pylori infection → chronic gastritis → atrophic gastritis + pre-malignant intestinal metaplasia

59
Q

What are the two major types of gastric cancer?

Hint - type 1 (in one place “i”) and types 2 (other parts)

A
  1. intestinal (type 1): intestinal metaplasia seen in surrounding mucosa more likely to involve distal stomach and occur in patients w/ atrophic gastritis
  2. diffuse (type 2): may involve any part of stomach (cardia) with worse prognosis than intestinal → loss of E-cadherin expression = key event in carcinogenesis
60
Q

What is IBS, its two forms and how do they differ?

Hint - Ibb’s is the milder one

A
  • inflammatory bowel disease
  • 2 major forms recognised:
    1. Crohn’s disease, CD - can affect any part of GI tract
    2. Ulcerative colitis, UC – only affects colon
  • degree of overlap betw/ 2 conditions
  • 10% IBD cases termed ‘undetermined type of colitis’
61
Q

State the symptoms, investigations and management of crohn’s disease (CD).

(Hint - investigations for faeces, low iron symptom, esrcrp, low bulimia)

A
  • symptoms: diarrhoea, abdominal pain, weight loss, or emergency acute R iliac fossa pain
  • investigations: stool test including C. diff toxin assay, blood tests for anaemia, raised ESR and CRP and hypalbuminaemia (severe disease in response to inflammation associated with raised CRP)
  • management: induce remission of CD - oral prednisolone 30-60mg/day, 2° complications of CD (i.e. abscess + perianal disease) → antibiotics i.e. ciprofloxacin, maintenance of remission – anti-TNF agents i.e. infliximab
  • 50% of patients → intestinal resection within 5 years of diagnosis
62
Q

State the symptoms, investigations and management of crohn’s disease (CD).

A
  • major symptoms: diarrhoea with blood + mucus, lower abdominal discomfort, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, colon dilated with diameter >6cm on X-ray
  • serious associated complication of severe UC → toxic megacolon
  • investigations: colonoscopy, blood tests WBC and platelet counts raised in moderate-severe, raised ESR and CRP, pANCA* may be +VE (usually –VE in CD)
  • management: mainly aminosalicylate which delivers 5-ASA (aminosalicyclic acid), absorbed in SI
63
Q

What is GERD and its causes?

A
  • chronic condition of mucosal damage caused by oesophagus not closing properly so stomach acid rises from stomach into oesophagus
  • causes: abnormal changes in relaxation of lower oesophageal sphincter due to: oesophagitis, oesophageal spasm or hiatal hernia
64
Q

What is rupture of spleen and why is it the most frequently-injured abdominal organ?

A
  • well-protected by 9th-12th ribs

- severe blows on L side may fracture 1+ ribs and rupture underlying spleen

65
Q

What is splenomegaly, its causes, symptoms and treatment?

A
  • spleen enlargement
  • causes: granulocytic leukaemia (high leukocyte and WBC) can enlarge 10x
  • symptoms: >3x enlarged spleen palpated below L costal margin, X-ray shows a black area (spleen filled w/ air) significantly enlarged
  • treatment: splenectomy (spleen removal)
66
Q

Describe the organisation of the lymphatic system.

A 
• lymph nodes
- filter fluid in collecting vessels 
• lymphoid organs
-  lymphatic nodules
- tonsils
- spleen 
- thymus 
• extensive network of capillaries and collecting vessels
- receive fluid from loose CTs throughout body and transport  to the CV system
67
Q

Slightly more fluid leaves the capillaries into the lymphatic system (with plasma proteins) than enters them. What then happens to this extra fluid and what is it called?

A
  • extra fluid accumulates in intercellular spaces

- interstitial fluid (within the lymphatic system)

68
Q

What is the flow of lymphatic vessels?

A

capillary → collecting vessel → trunk → duct

69
Q

How do lymphatic capillaries compare to blood capillaries?

Hint - overlap valves + gaps which can close

A
  • two unique structural modifications:
    1) endothelial cells loosely overlap → create mini-valves
    2) endothelial cells anchored to surrounding tissue cells by fine anchoring filaments → exposed gaps in the capillary wall which close if fluid too great - prevents leakage
70
Q

What are lacteals and what does lymph plasma look like and why?

A
  • highly-specialised lymph capillaries in villi of the intestinal mucosa
  • milky white rather than clear as it contains chyle (– digested intestinal fats)
71
Q

What are lymphatic trunks and ducts and what do the ducts empty into?

(Hint - large areas, varies and then the two main vessels you saw in anatomy)

A
  • lymphatic trunks → drain large areas of the body
  • lymphatic ducts → different types depending on where lymph fluid is drained from
  • each duct empties lymph into venous circulation at junction of internal jugular vein (innominate) + subclavian vein (clavicle)
72
Q

Describe lymph transport and why it is slow.

A
  • no pump so low pressure + slow-moving
  • same mechanisms as veins:
    • milking action of muscles
    • breathing-induced pressure changes in the thorax
    • valves
    • rhythmic contractions of SM in trunks + ducts
73
Q

What is lymphoid tissue and in which 2 ways can it be packaged?

A
  • immune tissue: loose CT (reticular - contained within all large organs except thymus)
  • packaged as:
    1) diffuse - contained within most body organs especially mucous membranes and lymphoid organs
    2) follicles/nodules - solid, tightly packed bodies with germinal centres found within organs
74
Q

What is a lymph node the only lymphoid tissue to do?

A

filter lymph (which enters many afferent lymphatic vessels on convex side via hilus)

75
Q

What are the three main lymphatic organs and their structures?

(Hint - STT)

A
  • spleen – largest, organ, soft, blood-rich and fist-sized
  • thymus – bilobular/cauliflower-shaped with flowerets (thymic lobules) which have outer and inner cortex
  • tonsils – partially encapsulated as swelling in mucousa and exterior covered by sq. epithelium invaginated deep into tonsil → are 4 types → palatine, lingual, pharyngeal/adenoid and tubal
76
Q

What are the main aggregates of lymphoid nodules and what are their functions?

(Hint - aggregates are PA and functions are: kill micros, immune memory and digetsive/resp protection)

A
  • Peyer’s patches (in wall of ileum)
  • appendix: cluster of nodules
  • functions:
    1) destroy (gut) bacteria
    2) generate memory lymphocytes
    3) Mucosa-Associated Lymphatic Tissue (MALT) – respiratory + digestive tract protection
77
Q

What do the following structures of the urinary system do:

a) ureter
b) urinary bladder
c) urethra

A

a) transports urine towards the urinary bladder
b) temporarily stores urine prior to elimination
c) conducts urine to exterior and also semen (in males)

78
Q

Name the structures (top to bottom) of the urinary tract.

A

urinary tract: ureters (paired tubes) → urinary bladder (muscular sac) → urethra (exit tube) (used for urination)

79
Q

What is micturition?

A

process of eliminating (voiding) urine through urethra and out of the body (urination)

80
Q

What are the three functional roles of the urinary system?

A
  1. excretion (removal of waste from body fluids via kidney nephrons)
  2. elimination (storage and discharge of urine)
  3. homeostatic regulation (blood plasma volume, pH, plasma ion conc.s, conservation of nutrients and elimination of toxins)
81
Q

Where the renal hilum located in the kidneys and what were its point of entry and point of exit?

A

(for exit and entry)

  • located on the medial surface
  • point of entry → renal artery and renal nerves
  • point of exit → renal vein and ureter
82
Q

Describe the renal cortex, renal medulla and renal papillae.

A

• renal cortex
- granular superficial region
- extends into medulla as renal columns
• renal medulla
- sub-cortex (below cortex)
- composed of 6-18 triangular renal pyramids (site of kidney function) which are separated by renal columns
• renal papillae
- located at the base of renal pyramids
- openings into minor calyx that channel urine towards renal pelvis

83
Q

What are the two types of nephron in the kidney?

A
  • cortical (only just penetrates medulla)

- juxtamedullary (reaching deep into medulla)

84
Q

What does a renal corpuscle consist of?

A
  • glomerular (bowman’s) capsule

- a cup-shaped chamber around a network of capillaries (glomerulus)

85
Q

What is the renal tubule and which epithelium does it contain?

A
  • long, tubular passage
  • begins at renal corpuscle
  • epithelium varies according to function
86
Q

What is the functional histology of the inner and outer layer of the renal corpuscle?

A
  • inner layer: specialised podocytes (cells with processes that adhere to basal lamina over fenestrated capillary endothelium)
  • outer layer: simple squamous epithelium
87
Q

Describe renal blood flow .

A

red = oxygenated, blue = deoxygenated
- arterial flow into kidney and venous flow out of kidney follow similar paths
(see document for diagram)

88
Q

Describe the:

a) nephron loop/loop of Henle
b) PCT
c) DCT

A

a) nephron loop
- descending limb (squamous) passes into the medulla
- ascending limb (cuboidal) re-enters cortex + transitions into distal convoluted tubule
b) PCT
- first segment of renal tubule
- contains simple cuboidal cells with microvilli on the luminal surface
c) DCT
- empties urine into common collecting duct, leading to papillary duct = renal papillae at tip of the pyramid

89
Q

What is the incidence of horseshoe kidney and its symptoms?

A
  • 1/600 births

- asymptomatic and discovered on imaging

90
Q

Describe the epithelial variation of the renal tubule

A
  • PCT → simple cuboidal with prominent brush borders of microvilli
  • nephron loop:
    • descending limb: simple squamous epithelia
    • thick ascending limb → simple cuboidal to low columnar epithelia
  • most of DCT → simple cuboidal epithelia
  • last part of DCT and all of collecting duct → simple cuboidal epithelia consisting of principle cells and intercalated discs
91
Q

How do ureters work?

A
  • ureters enter urinary bladder at oblique angle → prevent backflow of urine
  • increased pressure in bladder compresses distal ends of ureters shut
  • ureters → actively propel urine into the bladder via peristalsis
  • involuntary wave-like movement → push contents of canal forward (SM stretch)
92
Q

What are the 3 layers of a ureter?

Hint - MIE

A
  • internal → mucosa with a transitional epithelium (urothelium)
  • medial → muscularis layer
  • external → fibrous CT adventitia
93
Q

Why is the internal urothelium of the ureters significant?

A
  • impermeable to salt water

- has three layers → superficial, intermediate and basal

94
Q

What is the bladder and what are its 3 layers?

A
  • retro-peritoneal SM ‘sac’ – which rests on pelvic floor and stores urine
  • as urine accumulates, bladder expands w/o a significant rise in internal pressure
  • 3 layers → transitional epithelium layer (urothelium), muscle (detrusor) layer and adventitia
95
Q

What is the trigone of the bladder?

A
  • triangular area outlined by openings for ureters + urethra

NB: infections tend to persist in this region

96
Q

What is the urethra are its 2 parts?

A
  • muscular tube which drains urine from bladder conveying it out of body
  • internal urethral sphincter: located at bladder-urethra junction + involuntary control
  • external urethral sphincter: passes through urogenital diagram controlled by levator ani muscle for voluntary control
97
Q

What is a UTI, why is it more common in females and what can it lead to?

A
  • infection of urinary tract, usually by E. Coli
  • may lead to → urethritis, cystitis (bladder inflammation) or infection of kidneys (pyelonephritis)
  • more common in females due to shorter urethra (4 vs 20cm)

IMS (11 decks)

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