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Boat Crew > Boat Crew Seamanship Manual > Flashcards

Boat Crew Seamanship Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Three basic boat crew positions on CG boats

A

Coxswain
Engineer
Crew member

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2
Q

Factors in determining crew size

A

Boat type
Operational need
Minimum crew size prescribed by higher authority

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3
Q

47’ MLB minimum crew size

A

4, a coxswain, an engineer, and two crew members

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4
Q

___ sets the minimum crew sizes for standard boats

A

The Commandant

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5
Q

___ set minimum crew size for non-standard boats assigned tho their units

A

Area and district commanders

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6
Q

Qualifications as a ___ is a prerequisite to qualification as a boat engineer or a coxswain

A

Boat crew member

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7
Q

An auxiliarist may not serve which position aboard a CG boat?

A

Coxswain

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8
Q

Crew member responsibilities (8)

A 
Helm
Lookout
Towing watches
Anchor watch
Rig towing and mooring lines
Act as the surface swimmer
Administer first aid
Operate DC equipment
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9
Q

Boat crew members must have this knowledge and performance skills

A
  • Marlinspike seamanship and line handling
  • Basic navigation and boat handling
  • Survival, safety, and DC equipment
  • Emergency and casualty control
  • Watchstanding and comms
  • First aid
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10
Q

AOR

A

Area of Responsibility

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11
Q

Boat engineers are responsible for ___

A

Propulsion and auxiliary machinery while underway

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12
Q

Engineers must have this knowledge and performance skills

A
  • Complete knowledge of general engineering specifications and functional performance characteristics
  • Performing pre-start, light off, and securing functions for propulsion machinery
  • Monitoring, detecting , and responding to machinery and electrical system casualties or failues
  • Operating auxiliary machinery and systems
  • Using onboard DC equipment to minimize damage from fire, grounding, or collision
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13
Q

Coxswains are in charge of the ___

A

Boat and crew

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14
Q

Coxswains are responsible in order of priority for ___

A
  • Safety and conduct of passengers and crew
  • Safe operation and navigation of the boat
  • Completion of the sortie or mission
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15
Q

Coxswains shall respond to ___

A
  • Hazards to life or property
  • Violations of laws or regulations
  • Discrepancies in AtoN
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16
Q

Lookouts must report to the coxswain everything ___

A

Seen, smelled, or heard as well as everything they think the see, smell, or hear

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17
Q

During a search, post ___ lookouts when able

A

Two

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18
Q

When ___ are in the area or the boat is within __ of shore, lookout duties should be kept to a minimum to allow for early detection and decrease the likelihood of strikes

A

Whales

3 NM

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19
Q

Standing a proper lookout watch means ___

A

Using all available equipment to improve chance of early detection

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20
Q

Lookouts must report what they see, smell, or hear with as much ___

A

Detail as possible

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21
Q

In lookout, object ___ is immediately important

A

Type

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22
Q

Lookouts make reports using ___

A

Relative bearings only

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23
Q

Bearings are always reported in __ digits

A

Three

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24
Q

Objects in the sky are located by their ___

A

Relative bearing and position angle

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25
Q

Position angle can never be more than __

A

90 degrees

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26
Q

Report distances in __

A

Yards

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27
Q

Required information in a lookout report

A

Object name or description
Bearing
Position angle
Range

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28
Q

The lookout’s method of eye search is called ___

A

Scanning

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29
Q

Scanning is a __ method of visually searching for objects

A

Step-by-step

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30
Q

Good scanning techniques will ensure that ____

A

Objects are not missed

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31
Q

Scanning also reduces ___

A

Eye fatigue

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32
Q

Two common scanning methods

A

Left to right and back again

Top to bottom and bottom to top

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33
Q

In scanning the eyes move in ___

A

Increments

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34
Q

Scanning creates ___ in the field of vision

A

Overlaps

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35
Q

When scanning, do not look directly at the __

A

Horizon

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36
Q

In severe fog, a second lookout should be stationed __

A

To cover the aft portion of the vessel

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37
Q

The eyes adjusting to the weak light and improving vision gradually is called ___

A

Dark adaptation

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38
Q

Before operating in dark conditions you should prepare for ___ prior

A

30 minutes

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39
Q

Lights must be ___ colored on boats for night vision

A

Red

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40
Q

The helmsman is responsible for ___

A

Safely steering the boat
Maintaining a course
Carrying out all helm commands given by the coxswain

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41
Q

The helmsman must maintain a given course within __ degrees

A

5

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42
Q

The primary duty of the towing watch is to ___

A

Keep the towline and the boat being towed under constant observation

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43
Q

The tow watch should report ___

A 
Yawing
List
In step
Towed boat taking on water
Deck hardware failure
Towline about to part
Towed boat overtaking boat
Positioning of the towed boat's crew
Slack tow line in the water
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44
Q

A tow watch should be maintained until the disabled boat is ___

A

Moored or until relieved

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45
Q

The anchor watch must ensure that ___

A

Anchor line does not chafe and that the anchor does not drag, as well as watching for other vessels in the area

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46
Q

When at anchor the position of the boat shall be confirmed at least every ___

A

15 minutes

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47
Q

Two methods to determine in the anchor is dragging

A

Check tension in anchor line

Check the boat’s position

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48
Q

Anchor compass bearing should be spread at least ___ apart

A

45 degrees

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49
Q

The swing circle radius is equal to __

A

The boat’s length plus the length of the anchor line

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50
Q

___ and ___ fatigues are among the greatest dangers during rough weather operations

A

Mental

Physical

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51
Q

The hazards of fatigue dramatically reduces the powers of ___

A

Observation, concentration, and judgement

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52
Q

These may cause fatigue

A 
Hot or cold weather
Eye strain
Maintaining balance
Stress
Noise
Sun
Lack of sleep
Boredom
Poor physical conditioning
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53
Q

The crew’s safety and welfare are the ___ primary responsibility

A

Coxswain’s

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54
Q

Primary symptoms of fatigue

A

Inability to focus or concentrate, narrowed attention span
Mental confusion or judgement error
Decreased coordination and sensory ability
Increased irritability
Decreased performance
Decreased concern for safety

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55
Q

Preventive measures for fatigue are ___

A 
Adequate rest
Appropriate dress
Rotate crew duties
Provide food and refreshments
Observe other crewmembers for fatigue
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56
Q

Environmental conditions that promote fatigue

A 
Motion sickness
Glare
Wind and rough seas
Rain or snow
Vibration
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57
Q

Sea sickness is caused by __

A

An imbalance between visual images and the portion of the middle ear that senses motion

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58
Q

Ways to avoid sea sickness

A 
Medication
Stay out of confined spaces
Stay in fresh air
Look at the horizon
Avoid smoking
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59
Q

Antimotion sickness medications may not be given __

A

Without medical supervision
Within 12 hours of alcohol consumption
To pregnant crewmembers

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60
Q

Colorless, odorless, lethal gas, also most common lethal gas encountered during boat operations

A

CO

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61
Q

Symptoms of lethal fume poisoning

A 
Throbbing temples
Dizziness
Ears ringing
Watering and itching eyes
Headache
Cherry-pink skin color
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62
Q

The first senses affected by poisonous gases are those that control a person’s ___

A

Judgement and decision-making ability

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63
Q

If CO or any other type of poisoning is suspected ___

A

Remove the victim to fresh air and get medical help immediately

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64
Q

If the victim is unconscious, do not try to ___

A

Assist them alone

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65
Q

Any continual noise at the same pitch can ___

A

Distract, lull, or aggravate to the point where it adversely affects temperament and the ability to perform properly

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66
Q

Use single hearing protection whenever noise levels exceed ___

A

85 dB

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67
Q

Use double hearing protection for noise levels over ___

A

104 dB

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68
Q

Ear protection is required when working in, or making rounds in, an ___

A

Enclosed engineering space

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69
Q

Time required to metabolize alcohol for two drinks ____

Three or more ___

A

8 hours

12 hours

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70
Q

Excessive loss of body heat may lead to ___

A

Hypothermia

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71
Q

The loss of internal body temperature

A

Hypothermia

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72
Q

Normal body temperature is ___

A

98.6 degrees F

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73
Q

Never give hypothermia victims anything by ___, especially ___

A

Mouth

Alcohol

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74
Q

Signs of hypothermia

A 
Pale
Cold skin
Dilated pupils
Poor coordination
Slurred speech
Incoherent thinking
Unconsciousness
Muscle rigidity
Weak pulse
Slow and labored breathing
Irregular heart beat
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75
Q

Who may waive the requirement to wear hypothermia protective clothing on a case-by-case basis?

A

CO or OIC

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76
Q

The development of ice crystals within body tissues

A

Frostbite

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77
Q

Frostbite is most likely to develop in air temperatures less than ___

A

20 degrees F

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78
Q

Factors that contribute to frostbite

A

Cold stressors
Restriction of blood-flow
Lack of appropriate protection
Skin exposure

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79
Q

A frostbite victim will complain of ___ in the affected area

A

Painful cold and numbness

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80
Q

What will develop with frostbite?

A

Waxy white or yellow-white, hard, cold, and insensitive areas

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81
Q

As the frostbite area begins to thaw, it will be ___

A

Extremely painful and swelling or blisters may appear

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82
Q

A patient being treated for frostbite should also be treated for ___

A

Hypothermia

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83
Q

___ is an essential factor to maintaining body temperature

A

Staying dry

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84
Q

Clothing worn next to the skin must ___

A

Carry or wick moisture away from the body

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85
Q

The first layer of clothing is the ___

A

Wicking layer

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86
Q

The second layer of clothing is the ___

A

Insulating layer

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87
Q

The third layer of clothing is the ___

A

Moisture barrier

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88
Q

The insulating effect of a fabric is related to ___

A

How much air it can trap

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89
Q

The outer layer should stop ___

A

Wind and water

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90
Q

Most heat loss occurs through the ___

A

Extremities, especially the head

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91
Q

Effects of the sun

A 
Sunburn
Dehydration
Heat rash
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
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92
Q

Appears as redness, swelling, or blistering of the skin

A

Sunburn

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93
Q

Other effects of overexposure to sun are ___

A

Fever, gastrointestinal symptoms, malaise, and pigment changes in the skin

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94
Q

Medical/scientific term for salts, specifically ions

A

Electrolyte

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95
Q

The body uses these to maintain voltage across cell membranes and to carry electrical impulses for moving the muscles

A

Electrolytes

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96
Q

The body loses electrolytes mostly through ___

A

Perspiration

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97
Q

When water and electrolytes are not replaced, the body experiences ___

A

Dehydration

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98
Q

Drinking ___ increases dehydration

A

Alcohol and caffeine

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99
Q

When the body loses __ of body weight in fluids the individual begins to feel nauseated

A

5%

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100
Q 
When \_\_ of body fluids are lost, symptoms increase in this order:
Dry mouth
Dizziness
Headache
Difficulty breathing
Tingling in arms and legs
Bluish skin
Indistinct speech
Inability to walk
Cramping legs and stomach
A

6 - 10%

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101
Q

Prevalent among those living and working in warm, humid climates or in hot spaces ashore or aboard boats, or in cool weather if a person overdresses

A

Heat rash

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102
Q

Heat rash is also called ___

A

Prickly heat

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103
Q

Heat rash is caused by ___

A

Breakdown of a body’s ability to perspire

Decreased evaporative cooling of the skin

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104
Q

Heat rash interferes with ___

A

Sleep

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105
Q

Symptoms of heat rash

A

Pink or red minute lesions
Skin irritation
Frequent, severe itching

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106
Q

If heat rash occurs ___

A

Remove to cool space, cool, wet towels should be applied to affected areas

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107
Q

Painful contractions caused by excessive salt and water depletion

A

Heat cramps

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108
Q

__ muscles are prone to heat cramps

A

Recently stressed

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109
Q

Symptoms of heat cramps

A

Legs drawn into fetal position and excessive sweating will occur. May grimace or cry out in pain

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110
Q

Treating heat cramps

A

Place in cool place, lie down, offer cool drinks, excessive ingestion of salt not allowed. Treat cramped muscles with heat packs or massage

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111
Q

Occurs when people exercise heavily or work in a warm, humid environment where boy fluids are lost through heavy sweating

A

Heat exhaustion

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112
Q

Sweat does not evaporate as it should, possibly because of high humidity or too many layers of clothing

A

Heat exhaustion

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113
Q

Symptoms of heat exhaustion

A

Person collapses and sweats profusely. Pale skin, pounding heart, nausea, headache, restlessness

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114
Q

Major medical emergency that results from the complete breakdown of the body’s sweating and heat regulatory mechanisms

A

Heat stroke

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115
Q

Heat stroke is also called ___

A

Sun stroke

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116
Q

Heat stroke is caused by ___

A

Operating in bright sun or working in a hot environment

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117
Q

Symptoms of heat stroke

A 
Red skin, hot and dry to touch
Body temp above 105 degrees F
Weak rapid pulse
Confusion, violence, delirium, unconsciousness, lack of coordination
Brain damage
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118
Q

Most serious of all heat disorders and is an immediate threat to life

A

Heat stroke

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119
Q

The result of overloaded heat balance mechanisms that are still functioning

A

Heat exhaustion

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120
Q

___ strikes the victim when the thermo-regulatory mechanisms are not functioning, and the main avenue of heat loss, evaporation of sweat is blocked

A

Heat stroke

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121
Q

Two preventive measure of heat illnesses

A

Water

Salt

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122
Q

Under conditions of profuse sweating, each person will require ___ or more of fluid intake per hour

A

One pint (.5 litres)

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123
Q

Water should be taken in ___

A

Small quantities at frequent intervals

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124
Q

The average diet provides ___ of salt daily

A

15 - 20 grams

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125
Q

Collection of people that uses the technical abilities of its members to achieve a common mission

A

Team

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126
Q

Team coordination skills (7)

A 
Leadership
Mission analysis
Adaptability and flexibility
Situation awareness
Decision-making
Communication
Assertiveness
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127
Q

Commands and external communication should be done using ___

A

Standard terminology

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128
Q

Ensure that all information given ___

A

Is acknowledged by the receiver

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129
Q

Four rules of risk management

A
  • Integrate risk management into mission planning and execution
  • Accept no unnecessary risks
  • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
  • Accept risks if benefits outweigh costs
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130
Q

Risk management is a ___ process

A

Repetitive and continuous process

131
Q

Risk management is most effective when it is ___

A

Proactive

132
Q

Understanding risk is highly dependent upon ___

A

Technical knowledge and expertise

133
Q

Seven steps of risk management

A
  • Define mission objectives and tasks
  • Identify possible hazards to the boat and crew
  • Risk is a function of severity, probability and exposure
  • Unnecessary risk has to be eliminated
  • Did the mission coordinator validate the risk assumed by the coxswain is worth the mission objective?
  • This decision implements the best option given the risks and gains, the crew is aware of the expected outcome
  • Did the action achieve the desired outcome? Are the risks changing?
134
Q

Anything that could go wrong with the equipment, the environment, or the team

A

Hazards

135
Q

Risk categories

A 
Planning
Event complexity
Asset selection
Communications and supervision
Environmental conditions
136
Q

Function of severity, probability, and exposure

A

Risk

137
Q

Describes the potential loss

A

Severity

138
Q

The likelihood that the consequences will happen

A

Probability

139
Q

The amount of time people or equipment will be exposed to the hazard

A

Exposure

140
Q

Levels of risk

A

High
Medium
Low

141
Q

Risks cannot be managed with constant control

A

High risk

142
Q

Risks are manageable with constant control

A

Medium risk

143
Q

Risks are manageable with control as required

A

Low risk

144
Q

Unnecessary risk has to be __

A

Eliminated

145
Q

Risks can be lowered by examining ___

A
  • Changes to the planned optempo
  • Command and control
  • Mission tasks
  • Timing of tasks
  • Boat requirements or crew qualifications
  • Number of assigned boats and/or crew
  • Required equipment and/or protective equipment
146
Q

___ are required before the boat gets underway

A

Informal crew briefings

147
Q

Help create a shared mental picture of what is expected to happen and strives to set rules for the mission

A

Briefings for the coxswain and crew

148
Q

The best opportunity to evaluate performance and recognize individual and team accomplishment

A

Debriefing

149
Q

The wearing of jewelry, including rings, wristwatches, necklaces or other items not consisting of organizational clothing, PPE, or other uniform articles by boat crew members engaged in ____ is prohibited

A

Hoisting, towing, or other deck evolutions where the potential for snagging exists

150
Q

The informal crew briefing shall be comprised of these topics

A

Mission objective
Duties and responsibilities
Positive climate for teamwork
Improvement goals

151
Q

The informal crew debriefing shall cover these topics

A 
Major events
Level of performance
Outcome of events
Evaluation of goals
Establishment of goals
152
Q

The CG authorizes crewmembers to render first aid, consistent with their training in their role as emergency assistants regardless of their ___

A

First aid qualifications

153
Q

Crewmembers providing first aid must do the following

A
  • Evaluate the scene
  • Consider whether or not the rescuers are trained and equipped to safely render assistance
  • Protect themselves from injury or infection
  • Keep calm
  • Act quickly
  • Call station or sector as appropriate to activate EMS if necessary
154
Q

When responding to an injury, if the scene is unsafe, it should not be entered until ___

A

The crew is fully prepared and protected against hazards such a exposed live electrical wires, toxic vapors, fire, blood, or body fluids

155
Q

This information is important in the initial assessment of injuries

A
  • Number of patients
  • General condition of patients
  • Mechanism of injury
  • Patients level of consciousness
  • Causes or symptoms of shock
156
Q

Those cases that need attention from a medical professional or the crew decides it is beyond their capability

A

Serious injury cases

157
Q

Human blood may contain ___

A

Bloodborne pathogens

158
Q

It is the responsibility of the ____ to safely transport the victim as rapidly as possible, while preventing further injury, shock, or unnecessary pain

A

The coxswain and crew

159
Q

Important rules to remember when transporting an injured person

A
  • Notify station to activate appropriate medical resources
  • Avoid moving the patient until that person is examined and all injuries protected
  • Immobilize head and neck if injury is suspected prior to movement
  • Seek assistance in moving the patient
  • Always explain the move procedure in advance to conscious patients
  • Movements should be careful, deliberate, and the minimum required
  • Almost all patients are transported lying down
160
Q

This may accompany injury and can reduce a victim’s ability to deal with and survive serious injuries

A

Shock

161
Q

Depressed physiological or mental state

A

Shock

162
Q

Events that can cause shock

A 
Trauma
Allergic reactions
Hypothermia
Drugs
Toxins
Heart attack
Illnesses
Emotional
163
Q

Symptoms of shock

A 
Restlessness
Fainting
Thirst
Nausea
Weakness
Anxiousness
Fright
Dizziness
164
Q

Signs of shock

A 
Weak rapid pulse
Shallow rapid irregular breathing
Cold clammy skin
Dilated pupils
Level of consciousness may be decieving
165
Q

Strong signs of shock

A 
Skin color
Eyes
Pulse
Respiration
Consciousness
166
Q

Initial treatment of shock

A

Limit patient’s activity, ideally lying down. Kept warm, if not already overheated. If there is not head injury or breathing trouble, place them on their back and elevate the legs about 8 to 10 inches

167
Q

Do not allow a shock victim to ___

A

Eat or drink

168
Q

Rapid, extreme allergic reaction

A

Anaphylactic shock

169
Q

Symptoms of anaphylactic shock

A
  • Itching skin, hives
  • Swelling of lips, tongue, feet, throat, and hands
  • Wheezing, shortness of breath, coughing
  • Nausea and vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea
  • Headache
  • Altered mental status
  • Loss of consciousnes
170
Q

Severe, sometimes life-threatening, allergic reaction that can occur within minutes of exposure to an offending substance

A

Anaphylactic shock

171
Q

Treatment of anaphylactic shock

A

Requires medication such as epinephrine

172
Q

Death can occur within ___ after respiratory failure

A

4 - 6 minutes

173
Q

Events that may cause people to stop breathing include ___

A 
Near drowning
Suffocation
Electrocution
Poison gas
Heart attack
Drug overdose
Choking
174
Q

General term that covers all measures taken to restore life of consciousness to an individual

A

Resuscitation

175
Q

Measures taken to restore life include ___

A

Artificial respiration
Cardiac compression
CPR

176
Q

Method used to restore normal blood-flow to the brain

A

Cardiac compression

177
Q

Uses both artificial respirations and chest compressions to revive a victim in respiratory and cardiac arrest

A

CPR

178
Q

Symptoms of heart attack

A
  • Severe, crushing type of pain under the breastbone, arms, neck, and jaw
  • Profuse sweating
  • Shortness of breath
  • Extreme anxiety
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Bluish discoloration of lips, fingernails, and skin
179
Q

Treatment for a heart attack

A
  • Keep victim quiet and at rest
  • Administer oxygen
  • Place the victim in the position of most comfort
  • Seek immediate medical assistance
  • Determine if victim is taking any medications
  • Reassure the patient that assistance is on the way
  • Transport as quickly and safely as possible
180
Q

Any bleeding or clotting affecting the blood vessels of the brain

A

Stroke

181
Q

Symptoms of a major stroke

A 
Unconsciousness
Shock
Confusion
Dizziness
Numbness/weakness on one side of body
Seizures
Impaired vision
182
Q

Symptoms of a minor stroke

A

Headache
Facial droop
Difficulty speaking, or limited usage of a limb

183
Q

Treatment of stroke

A
  • Activate EMS
  • Obtain medical assistance immediately
  • Treat as for shock
  • Assist with breathing if necessary
184
Q

CG level of assistance in scuba accidents

A

Arranging or providing transportation for victims and advising interested parties of the location for the nearest recompression facility

185
Q

While transporting scuba victims, treatment should be ___

A

Same as shock, but do not elevate the legs

186
Q

Two special problems usually seen in scuba diving accidents

A

Air emboli

The bends

187
Q

Air bubbles in a diver’s blood

A

Air emboli

188
Q

Air emboli is most often found in divers who ___

A

Hold their breath during ascent

189
Q

Decompression sickness

A

The bends

190
Q

Result of coming up too quickly from a deep, prolonged dive

A

The bends

191
Q

Symptoms and signs of decompression sickness

A 
Deep pain to the muscles and joints
Choking
Coughing
Labored breathing
Chest pains
Blotches on the skin
192
Q

Rapid ascent defeats the body’s ability to filter escaping gases through the lungs resulting in ___

A

Nitrogen gas bubbles in the blood stream

193
Q

The onset of the bends can take from ___

A

1 to 48 hours to appear

194
Q

Divers increase the risk of decompression sickness if they fly within __ after a dive

A

12 hours

195
Q

For scuba victims, place them on their ___ side with head down

A

Left

196
Q

Medical information needed to arrange correct response for a scuba incident

A 
Depth of diving activities
Number of dives that day
Overall medical condition
First occurrence of symptoms
Problems during dive
197
Q

Strip of woven material that holds a wound, dressing, or splint in place, helping to immobilize, support, and protect an injured part of the body

A

Bandage

198
Q

Used for injuries to the chest or abdomen

A

Binder

199
Q

Useful as a bandage for almost any part of the body

A

Gauze bandages

200
Q

Useful for small wounds that are clean

A

Band-Aids

201
Q

Useful as an emergency cover for an entire scalp, hand, foot, or other large area

A

Triangular bandages

202
Q

Two general principles for bandage application

A
  • Should be snug, but not so tight as to interfere with circulation either at the time or later if swelling occurs
  • A bandage is useless if tied too loose
203
Q

Escape of blood from arteries, veins, or even capillaries because of a break in their walls

A

Hemorrhage

204
Q

Types of bleeding

A

Arterial
Venous
Capillary

205
Q

Characterized by blood that is bright red and gushes forth in jets or spurts that are synchronized with the victim’s pulse

A

Arterial bleeding

206
Q

Characterized by blood that is dark red, and comes in a steady flow

A

Venous bleeding

207
Q

Characterized by blood that is bright red, and oozes from the wound

A

Capillary bleeding

208
Q

There are ___ of blood in the human body

A

10 pints

209
Q

The best method to control hemorrhaging is by ___

A

Applying direct pressure to the wound

210
Q

To reduce the flow of bleeding, the wound should be raised so that it is at a level higher than the ____

A

Heart

211
Q

If bleeding persists after applying direct pressure or if there is severe arterial bleeding, ___

A

Digital pressure can be applied at pressure points

212
Q

Areas in the body where a major artery flows over a bony prominence

A

Pressure point

213
Q

Always be extremely careful when applying direct pressure as it may ___

A

Cause damage to the limb due to inadequate blood flow

214
Q

Place a tourniquet __ above the wound

A

2 - 3 inches

215
Q

Broken or cracked bone

A

Fracture

216
Q

The bone has broke and an open wound is present

A

Compound (open) fracture

217
Q

No open wound is present, but the bone may be broken or cracked

A

Simple (closed) fracture

218
Q

Indications of a fracture

A

Pain, swelling, discoloration at injury site
Misalignment and/or disability of injured part
Victim’s indication

219
Q

Treatment of fracture

A

Immobilize with splint, don’t attempt to straighten

220
Q

Treatment of spinal injuries

A

Maintain alignment and immobilize the spine, do not splint

221
Q

Indication that a patient’s rib may have punctured a lung

A

Coughing up frothy bright red blood

222
Q

Causes of burns

A 
Thermal
Chemical
Sunburn
Electric shock
Radiation
223
Q

In general the ___ of the burn is more important than the __ of the burn

A

Size

Degree

224
Q

Burns are classified by ___

A

Depth or degree of skin damage

225
Q

General classifications of burns

A

First-degree
Second-degree
Third-degree

226
Q

Mildest form of burn

A

First-degree

227
Q

These burns involve only the outer layer of skin

A

First-degree

228
Q

Signs of first-degree burn

A

Redness, increased warmth, tenderness, and mild pain

229
Q

___ burns extend through the outer layers of the skin

A

Second-degree

230
Q

These burns involve the inner layers of the skin, but not enough to prevent rapid regeneration

A

Second-degree

231
Q

Signs of second-degree burns

A

Blisters, severe pain, redness, and warmth

232
Q

___ burns are those that penetrate the full thickness of the skin, destroying both the outer and inner layers

A

Third-degree

233
Q

Symptoms of third-degree burns

A

Severe pain may be absent, white lifeless color to black (charred)

234
Q

Burns of the respiratory tract may be diagnosed by __

A

Singed eyelashes, hoarseness, sore throat, or coughing of blood

235
Q 
In determining what percentage of a victim's body surface area has suffered some type of damage, these estimates should be used:
Chest \_\_
Back \_\_
Arm \_\_
Leg \_\_
Head \_\_
Genitals \_\_
A 
8%
8%
9%
18%
9%
1%
236
Q

Use only __ for flushing the eyes

A

Fresh tap water

237
Q

PFD

A

Personal Flotation Device

238
Q

General name for the various devices designed to keep a person afloat in water

A

PFD

239
Q

How many types of PFD?

A

5

240
Q

Type I PFD

A

Offshore life jacket

241
Q

One-piece, reversible PFD intended primarily for use by survivors, passengers on towed vessels, or prisoners aboard vessels

A

Type I

242
Q

Only wearable flotation device required to be reversible

A

Type I

243
Q

___ PFD is effective in all waters, especially open, rough, or remote waters where rescue may be delayed

A

Type I

244
Q

Type I PFD is designed to ___

A

Turn most unconscious wearers in the water from face-down to vertical or slightly backward

245
Q

Type II PFD

A

Near-shore buoyant vest

246
Q

Wearable device that will turn some unconscious wearers to a face-up position in the water

A

Type II PFD

247
Q

Type III PFD

A

Flotation aid

248
Q

Routinely worn aboard boats when freedom of movement is required and the risk of falling over the side is minimal

A

Type III PFD

249
Q

Type III PFD buoyancy

A

15.5 lbs

250
Q

Type IV PFD

A

CG approved device to be thrown to a PIW and is grasped by the user until rescued

251
Q

Type V PFD

A

Special-use devices

252
Q

All PFDs in service shall be outfitted with two accessories

A
  • Whistle

- Distress signal light

253
Q

PML

A

Personnel Marker Light

254
Q

The PML is what color?

A

Yellow-green

255
Q

The PML is visible for a distance of approximately ___ on a clear night, and lasts as long as ____

A

One mile

8 hours

256
Q

In temperatures below ___ the PML will last longer, but have a lesser brilliance

A

50 degrees F

257
Q

Four primary types of hypothermia protective clothing used in the CG

A

Anti-exposure coverall
Dry suit
Wet suit
Immersion suit

258
Q

Water temp at which anti-exposure suit is necessary

A

60 degrees F

259
Q

Air and water temp at which dry suit is necessary

A

Both at 50 degrees F

260
Q

Also known as a survival suit

A

Immersion suit

261
Q

Worn when abandoning ship

A

Immersion suit

262
Q

Worn over all PFDs except inflatables

A

Boat crew survival vest

263
Q

Contents of boat crew survival vest

A
  • Emergency signaling mirror
  • Signal whistle
  • Marine smoke and illumination signal
  • Distress signal light
  • Survival knife
  • Personal Locator Beacon
264
Q

Pocket-sized mirror with a sighting hole in the center and a lanyard attached

A

Emergency signaling mirror

265
Q

Used to attract the attention of passing aircraft, boats, or ground rescue teams by reflecting light at them

A

Emergency signaling mirror

266
Q

Range of the emergency signaling mirror

A

Great distances

267
Q

Instructions for using the mirror are ___

A

Printed on the backside

268
Q

Small, hand-held device that produces a loud sound when it is blown

A

Signal whistle

269
Q

Standard whistle construction

A

Plastic with no cork ball

270
Q

Signal whistle’s audible distance

A

1000 metres/1100 yards

271
Q

MK-124 MOD 0

A

Smoke and Illumination Signal

272
Q

Pyrotechnic smoke and illumination signal used day or night as a distress signal at sea or on land

A

MK-124 MOD 0

273
Q

One end of the MK-124 produces ___ as the day signal and the other end produces ___ as the night signal

A

Orange smoke

A red flare

274
Q

Weight of MK-124

A

8 oz

275
Q

The ends of the MK-124 burns for about ___

A

20 seconds

276
Q

The night end of the MK-124 has ___

A

Two raised bands around its circumference

277
Q

Hold the MK-124 ___

A

Downwind and overhead at a 45 degree angle

278
Q

If the MK-124 smoke signal end flames up ___

A

Briefly immerse it in water or hold it against a solid object

279
Q

MK-79 MOD 0

A

Illumination Signal Kit

280
Q

Pyrotechnic illumination signal kit that contains seven screw-in cartridge flares and one pencil-type projector

A

MK-79 MOD 0

281
Q

The MK-79 contains ___ flares

A

7

282
Q

MK-79 produce ___

A

A red star display at an altitude of 250-650 feet for a minimum time of 4.5 seconds. Luminous intensity of 12000 candle power

283
Q

Altitude of MK-79

A

250-650 feet

284
Q

Burn time of MK-79

A

4.5 seconds

285
Q

Luminous intensity of MK-79

A

12000 candle power

286
Q

If the MK-79 fails to fire after two attempts, wait ___ before unscrewing

A

30 seconds

287
Q

Lightweight, compact, battery-operated strobe light that emits a high intensity visual distress signal

A

Distress signal light

288
Q

One side of the distress signal light is equipped with ___

A

Hook tape

289
Q

The distress signal light emits ___

A

50 flashes per minute, with a luminous intensity of 100000 candle power

290
Q

The distress signal light will flash for ___ when operated continuously or ___ when operated intermittently

A

9 hours

18 hours

291
Q

On a clear night the distress signal light will have a minimum visual range of ___

A

5 miles

292
Q

Basic tool to free the crew member from entangling lines

A

Survival knife

293
Q

Thee survival knife should be of ___ design

A

Fixed blade made of corrosion-resistant material

294
Q

The primary distress signal

A

PLB

295
Q

PLB broadcasts on ___

A

406 MHz and 121.5 MHz

296
Q

406 MHz can provide a position accurate to within ___ within ___

A

Three NM

90 minutes

297
Q

121.5 MHz can provide a signal to ___

A

Help to home in on the individual in distress once on scene

298
Q

MK-127A1

A

Parachute Illumination Signal

299
Q

MK-127A1 produces ___

A

Parachute-suspended white star flare

300
Q

MK-127 burn time

A

36 seconds

301
Q

MK-127 altitude

A

650-700 feet

302
Q

When does the MK-127 ignite?

A

After climbing to altitude

303
Q

Luminous intensity of MK-127

A

125000 candle power

304
Q

MK-127 descent rate

A

10 - 15 feet per second

305
Q

What part of the MK-127 should be facing up?

A

The red band

306
Q

The MK-127 should be facing ____ when fired

A

90 degrees

307
Q

If a MK-127 misfires it cannot be approached for at least ___

A

30 minutes

308
Q

The six person raft is usually carried on CG boats greater than ___

A

30’

309
Q

Length of life raft painter line

A

50’

310
Q

Painter line weak link requires ___ to break

A

500 lbs of force

311
Q

Drop the raft on the ___ side of the boat

A

Leeward

312
Q

Line used on CG boats is classified in two different ways

A

Material used

Size

313
Q

Lines are categorized as ___

A

Natural fiber or synthetic fiber

314
Q

Line is measured by ___

A

Circumference

315
Q

Small stuff

A

Up to 1.5” in circumference

316
Q

Line

A

1.5” to 5” in circumference

317
Q

Hawser

A

Everything over 5” in circumference

318
Q

Lay of the line

A

Strands are twisted either to the right or the left

319
Q

The point where the static pulling force becomes such that any increase in engine load could lead to damage to the engine or the towing bitt

A

Bollard pull

320
Q

Used to tie a line back upon itself

A

Knot

321
Q

Used to secure two lines together

A

Bend

322
Q

Used to tie a line to a ring, rail or spar

A

Hitch

323
Q

Main body of the boat

A

Hull

324
Q

Three basic hull types

A

Displacement
Planing
Semi-displacement

Boat Crew (2 decks)

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