boards Flashcards

1
Q

What are T1 bright substances in imaging?

A

Fat and hemorrhage

Fat saturation sequences are used to differentiate between them.

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2
Q

What is a lymphatic malformation characterized by?

A

Complex cystic solid structure

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3
Q

What condition is associated with nodules in the trachea and small cystic/solid nodules in lower lobes?

A

Tracheobronchial papillomatosis

Usually due to HPV, often acquired during birth.

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4
Q

What mutation is associated with a poor prognosis in midline glioma?

A

H3K27 mutation

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of a hyperechoic renal mass on ultrasound?

A

Angiomyolipoma or renal cell carcinoma

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6
Q

What does a progressively enhancing intrahepatic mass with central enhancement indicate?

A

May represent:
* Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (solitary mass with infiltrating margins and associated intrahepatic biliary ductal dilatation)
* Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (usually composed of multiple peripheral masses)
* Hepatocellular carcinoma (arterial enhancement, washout on delayed phases )

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7
Q

What is the imaging feature of pheochromocytoma?

A

Extremely high T2 signal adrenal lesion

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8
Q

How does myelolipoma appear on fat suppression images?

A

Hypointense

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9
Q

What are the key features of adenomyosis?

A

Uterine enlargement, irregular margins of endometrial myometrial interface, diffuse heterogeneity including microcyst formation

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10
Q

What is the most common extratesticular neoplasm?

A

Lipoma

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11
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the epididymis?

A

Adenomatoid tumor

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12
Q

What type of tumor has the best prognosis in osteosarcoma?

A

Parosteal osteosarcoma

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13
Q

Where does parosteal osteosarcoma typically occur?

A

On long bone metaphyseal surface

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14
Q

What is the most common subtype of liposarcoma?

A

Well differentiated liposarcoma

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15
Q

Where does chondroblastoma typically occur?

A

Epiphysis or apophysis of skeletally immature patient

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16
Q

What are the two types of femoroacetabular impingement?

A

CAM type and Pincer type

17
Q

What is another name for tenosynovial giant cell tumor?

A

Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)

18
Q

What is the earliest sign of impending articular surface collapse in avascular necrosis?

A

Crescent sign

19
Q

What does thymic rebound appear as on imaging?

A

Chevron pattern over mediastinum in post chemo patients

20
Q

What is the most common type of benign and malignant cardiac tumor?

A

Myxoma is benign, sarcoma/angiosarcoma is malignant

21
Q

What does CPT stand for in medical terminology?

A

Current Procedural Terminology

22
Q

What is SNOMED clinical terms used for?

A

Computer processable terms for clinical documentation and reporting

23
Q

What does ICD stand for?

A

International Classification of Diseases

24
Q

What does DRG stand for?

A

Diagnosis Related Group

25
What imaging feature is associated with neurocysticercosis?
Starry sky appearance
26
What is a characteristic of Sturge-Weber syndrome?
Focal parenchymal atrophy, usually unilateral peripheral and curvilinear/gyriform
27
What are the features of biliary atresia?
Jaundiced neonate/hyperbilirubinemia, abnormal gallbladder, echogenic triangular cord due to fibrosis ## Footnote Treatment involves kasai portoenterostomy and is associated with congenital anomalies like heterotaxy and malrotation.
28
What type of bone does Ewing sarcoma typically involve?
Flat or tubular bones, with permeative pattern
29
Which cranial nerve is superior most within the lateral dural wall of the cavernous sinus?
Oculomotor (CN3)
30
Which cranial nerve follows the oculomotor nerve in the cavernous sinus?
Trochlear (CN4)
31
Which cranial nerve represents the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve?
CN5
32
what is the gallbladder ghost triad seen in and what is it? how is it treated
Biliary atresia Less than 19 mm, irregular margins, discontinuous echogenic wall kasai portoenterostomy