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Boards Flashcards

1
Q

Virchow’s Triad - 3 broad categories of factors that likely contribute to increased risk of thrombosis 

A

Hypercoagulability
Venus stasis
Endothelial injury or dysfunction 

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2
Q

This is a movement disorder caused by destruction of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra.

A

Parkinson’s disease 

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3
Q

Pill-rolling tremor, shuffling gait, difficulty initiating movement, postural instability, and a mask like faces (decreased facial movement) are all signs of what disease? 

A

Parkinson’s disease 

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4
Q

This test is used for checking for strabismus

A

Cover uncover test

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5
Q

This test is used to check for the red reflex

A

Bruckner’s test

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6
Q

This test is used to determine color perception

A

ISHIHARA’s

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7
Q

What test is used for early detection of vision and potentially identifies life-threatening abnormalities such as cataracts, retinoblastoma, and other ocular disease? 

A

Red reflex 

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8
Q

What test is used for early detection of vision and potentially identifies life-threatening abnormalities such as cataracts, retinoblastoma, and other ocular disease? 

A

Red reflex 

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9
Q

The Snellen chart measures?

A

Visual acuity

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10
Q

This chart is used in assessing color, blindness, and individuals?

A

Ishihara chart

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11
Q

What type of testing is used to measure an individuals entire scope of vision and is also used to detect optic nerve damage?

A

Visual field testing

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12
Q

Rust-colored sputum is associated with which type of infection?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae infection

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13
Q

Fever and cough productive of green sputum with a small amount of blood (or rust-colored sputum) are associated with?

A

Community Acquired Pneumonia

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14
Q

TSH >4.0 mU/L

A

Hypothyroidism

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15
Q

TSH <0.4 mU/L

A

Hyperthyroidism

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16
Q

PSA <4.0 ng/mL could mean

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia [BPH] or
prostate cancer

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17
Q

Ferritin <15 mcg/L

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

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18
Q

When an oral drug reaches the stomach, it goes to the small intestines, then to the portal circulation where it is metabolized by the liver. After the liver has metabolized the drug, it is released to the systemic circulation where it can reach the target organ(s) this is known as?

A

First-pass metabolism (first-pass effect)

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19
Q

Macrolides

A

azithromycin
clarithromycin or
erythromycin

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20
Q

Most common cancer in females?

A

Breast Cancer

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21
Q

Most common cancer in males?

A

Prostate Cancer

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22
Q

Cancer with the highest mortality rate in males and females?

A

Lung Cancer

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23
Q

Most common cause of death in adults overall?

A

Heart Disease

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24
Q

Most common cause of death in adolescents?

A

Motor Vehicle Crashes

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25
Q

Most common gynecological cancer?

A

Uterine/endometrial

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26
Q

A chronic bony growth located midline in the hard palate indicates?

A

torus palatinus

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27
Q

Breast bud and areola start to develop in what Tanner stage for girls?

A

Tanner Stage II

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28
Q

Nipples and areola become elevated from the breast (a secondary mound) in what Tanner stage for girls?

A

Tanner Stage IV

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29
Q

Testes and scrotum start to enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get darker/more rugae) in what Tanner stage for boys?

A

Tanner Stage II

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30
Q

Penis become wider and continues growing in length (testes are larger with darker scrotal skin and more rugae) in what Tanner stage for boys?

A

Tanner Stage IV

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31
Q

Clinical finding in Iron Deficiency Anemia can include?

A

Pica (eating/craving unusual substances)
Spoon-shaped nails (or koilonychia)

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32
Q

Maculopapular rash in a lace-like pattern, slapped cheeks?

A

Fifth Disease

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33
Q

Maculopapular rashes with papules, vesicles, and crusts:

A

varicella zoster
herpes simplex

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34
Q

Maculopapular rashes that are oval shaped with a herald patch:

A

Pityriasis Rosea

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35
Q

Vesicular rashes on an erythematous base:

A

herpes simplex
genital herpes

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36
Q

For which conditions are H2 antagonists commonly prescribed?

A

GERD, peptic ulcer disease, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and prevention of stress ulcers.

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37
Q

Why should cimetidine be used cautiously in patients taking multiple medications?

A

Cimetidine inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes, which can lead to drug interactions.

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38
Q

What side effect is particularly associated with cimetidine due to its antiandrogenic effects?

A

Gynecomastia or reversible impotence

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39
Q

What are some common side effects of H2 antagonists?

A

Headache, dizziness, diarrhea, constipation, and confusion (especially in the elderly).

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40
Q

In which patient populations should you monitor renal function when prescribing H2 antagonists?

A

Elderly patients and those with preexisting renal impairment.

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41
Q

Class: Penicillins
Generic Name: Amoxicillin

A

Brand Name: Amoxil
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
Uses: Treats bacterial infections (respiratory, urinary tract, skin infections)

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42
Q

Class: Cephalosporins
Generic Name: Cephalexin

A

Brand Name: Keflex
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
Uses: Treats bacterial infections (respiratory, urinary tract, skin infections)

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43
Q

Class: ACE Inhibitors
Generic Name: Lisinopril

A

Brand Name: Zestril, Prinivil
Mechanism of Action: Prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Uses: Manages hypertension, heart failure

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44
Q

Class: Beta-Blockers
Generic Name: Metoprolol

A

Brand Name: Lopressor, Toprol XL
Mechanism of Action: Reduces heart rate and cardiac output
Uses: Manages hypertension, angina, heart failure

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45
Q

Class: Biguanides
Generic Name: Metformin

A

Brand Name: Glucophage
Mechanism of Action: Decreases hepatic glucose production, improves insulin sensitivity
Uses: Manages Type 2 diabetes

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46
Q

Class: Sulfonylureas
Generic Name: Glipizide

A

Brand Name: Glucotrol
Mechanism of Action: Increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
Uses: Manages Type 2 diabetes

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47
Q

Class: NSAIDs
Generic Name: Ibuprofen

A

Brand Name: Advil, Motrin
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits COX enzymes, reduces prostaglandin synthesis
Uses: Pain relief, reduces inflammation and fever

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48
Q

Class: Opioids
Generic Name: Oxycodone

A

Brand Name: OxyContin, Percocet (when combined with acetaminophen)
Mechanism of Action: Binds to opioid receptors in the CNS, altering pain perception
Uses: Pain relief

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49
Q

Class: SSRIs
Generic Name: Fluoxetine

A

Brand Name: Prozac
Mechanism of Action: Increases serotonin levels by inhibiting its reuptake
Uses: Treats depression, anxiety disorders

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50
Q

Class: SNRIs
Generic Name: Venlafaxine

A

Brand Name: Effexor
Mechanism of Action: Blocks reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
Uses: Treats depression, anxiety disorders

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51
Q

Class: Vitamin K Antagonists
Generic Name: Warfarin

A

Brand Name: Coumadin
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
Uses: Prevents and treats blood clots

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52
Q

Class: Typical Antipsychotics
Generic Name: Haloperidol

A

Brand Name: Haldol
Mechanism of Action: Blocks dopamine D2 receptors, reducing psychotic symptoms
Uses: Treats schizophrenia, acute psychosis

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53
Q

Class: Sodium Channel Blockers
Generic Name: Phenytoin

A

Brand Name: Dilantin
Mechanism of Action: Stabilizes neuronal membranes, reduces excitability
Uses: Controls seizures in epilepsy

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54
Q

Class: Beta-2 Agonists
Generic Name: Albuterol

A

Brand Name: Ventolin, ProAir
Mechanism of Action: Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 receptors
Uses: Manages asthma, COPD

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55
Q

Class: Inhaled Corticosteroids
Generic Name: Fluticasone

A

Brand Name: Flovent
Mechanism of Action: Suppresses inflammation by inhibiting multiple inflammatory cytokines
Uses: Treats asthma

56
Q

Class: 5-HT3 Antagonists
Generic Name: Ondansetron

A

Brand Name: Zofran
Mechanism of Action: Blocks serotonin receptors in the vomiting center and GI tract
Uses: Prevents and treats nausea and vomiting

57
Q

Class: Statins
Generic Name: Atorvastatin

A

Brand Name: Lipitor
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, reducing cholesterol synthesis in the liver
Uses: Manages high cholesterol levels

58
Q

Class: Azoles
Generic Name: Fluconazole

A

Brand Name: Diflucan
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol, a critical component of fungal cell membranes
Uses: Treats fungal infections like candidiasis

59
Q

Class: Nucleoside Analogues
Generic Name: Acyclovir

A

Brand Name: Zovirax
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits viral DNA synthesis
Uses: Treats viral infections such as herpes simplex

60
Q

Class: PPIs
Generic Name: Omeprazole

A

Brand Name: Prilosec
Mechanism of Action: Inhibits hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme system, reducing stomach acid production
Uses: Treats GERD, peptic ulcer disease

61
Q

Class: First Generation Antihistamines
Generic Name: Diphenhydramine

A

Brand Name: Benadryl
Mechanism of Action: Blocks H1 receptors, reducing the effects of histamine
Uses: Treats allergic reactions, hay fever, hives

62
Q

Q: What is the first-line treatment for stage 1 hypertension without compelling indications?

A

A: Lifestyle modifications and, if needed, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium channel blockers.

63
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?

A

Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL, A1C ≥ 6.5%, or a 2-hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an OGTT, or a random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia.

64
Q

What does an elevated TSH and low T4 indicate?

A

Primary hypothyroidism

65
Q

What is the first-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy adult?

A

Amoxicillin or doxycycline. If atypical pathogens are suspected, a macrolide like azithromycin or doxycycline

66
Q

What is the INR target range for a patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation?

A

2.0-3.0

67
Q

What is the preferred long-term control medication for persistent asthma?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

68
Q

What GFR value defines stage 3 CKD?

A

GFR 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m²

69
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for a patient presenting with cough and shortness of breath?

A

Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), Pneumonia, COPD, Asthma, Pulmonary Embolism, Bronchitis.

70
Q

What should be considered in a patient with unexplained weight loss and persistent cough?

A

Lung Cancer, Tuberculosis, Pleural Effusion.

71
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for chest pain?

A

Myocardial Infarction, Angina, Pericarditis, Aortic Dissection, Pulmonary Embolism.

72
Q

What are possible causes of leg swelling and pain?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT), Chronic Venous Insufficiency, Heart Failure, Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD).

73
Q

What are common causes of epigastric pain and bloating?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gastritis, Pancreatitis.

74
Q

What should be considered in a patient with right lower quadrant pain?

A

Appendicitis, Diverticulitis, Crohn’s Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy.

75
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for sudden onset of a severe headache?

A

Migraine, Subarachnoid Hemorrhage, Meningitis, Stroke.

76
Q

What should be considered in a patient with unilateral weakness and facial drooping?

A

Stroke, Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), Bell’s Palsy, Multiple Sclerosis.

77
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance?

A

Hypothyroidism, Cushing’s Syndrome, Depression, Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).

78
Q

What should be considered in a patient with weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance?

A

Hyperthyroidism, Addison’s Disease, Diabetes Mellitus.

79
Q

What are common causes of joint pain and stiffness in the morning?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis, Osteoarthritis, Gout, Fibromyalgia

80
Q

What should be considered in a patient with localized bone pain and history of a recent fall?

A

Fracture, Osteoporosis, Bone Bruise.

81
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for dysuria and hematuria?

A

Urinary Tract Infection (UTI), Kidney Stones, Bladder Cancer, Prostatitis.

82
Q

What should be considered in a male patient with difficulty urinating?

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH), Prostatitis, Urethral Stricture.

83
Q

What are common causes of an itchy, red rash?

A

Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Urticaria (Hives), Psoriasis.

84
Q

What should be considered in a patient with a painful, vesicular rash along a dermatome?

A

Shingles (Herpes Zoster), Herpes Simplex Virus, Dermatitis Herpetiformis.

85
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a patient presenting with low mood, fatigue, and loss of interest?0

A

Major Depressive Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, Dysthymia, Hypothyroidism.

86
Q

What should be considered in a patient with excessive worry, restlessness, and difficulty sleeping?

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Panic Disorder, Hyperthyroidism, Substance Use Disorder.

87
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for fever, sore throat, and fatigue?

A

Influenza, Mononucleosis, COVID-19, Streptococcal Pharyngitis.

88
Q

What should be considered in a patient with a new rash, fever, and joint pain?

A

Lyme Disease, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), Rheumatic Fever, Viral Exanthems.

89
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for pelvic pain in a female patient?

A

Ectopic Pregnancy, Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), Endometriosis, Ovarian Cysts.

90
Q

What should be considered in a patient with amenorrhea and abdominal pain?

A

Pregnancy, Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), Menopause, Hypothyroidism.

91
Q

What infections can Klebsiella pneumoniae cause?

A

Pneumonia, UTIs, liver abscesses, bacteremia.

92
Q

What is the typical treatment for Salmonella infections?

A

Fluoroquinolones, ceftriaxone, or azithromycin

93
Q

What diseases are associated with Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Respiratory tract infections, meningitis, epiglottitis, otitis media.

94
Q

What condition is Helicobacter pylori associated with?

A

Gastritis, peptic ulcers, and gastric cancer.

95
Q

What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhea caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (IM) given in a single dose.

96
Q

What serious infections can Neisseria meningitidis cause?

A

Meningitis and meningococcemia.

97
Q

What infections are commonly caused by Escherichia coli (E. coli)?

A

uncomplicated cystitis, and also results in other extraintestinal illnesses, including pneumonia, bacteremia, and abdominal infections such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

98
Q

The family nurse practitioner asks a patient to perform rapid, alternating movements of the hands to evaluate?

A

Cerebellar functioning

99
Q

After determining that a 2 1/2 year old patient has a lead level of 16 mcg/dl the family nurse practitioner?
A. advises the parents to avoid giving the patient bottles of whole milk
B. consults with a physical therapist for muscle strengthening
C. orders an increase of iron supplements to 6 mg.kg per day divided into 2 doses
D. repeats the blood test within one week to one month

A

Repeats the blood test within one week to one month.

100
Q

A 38 year old patient who is Vietnamese tells the family nurse practitioner that their parent died in their 40s from liver cancer. The NP assess that the patient is at risk for?
A. hepatitis B
B. malaria
C. tularemia
D. tyrosinemia

A

Hepatitis B

101
Q

A 40-year-old patient has a generalized non-periodic skin eruption with intermittent exacerbations over the past 10 years. Currently a well circumscribed erythematous plaque appears over the patient’s left gluteal fold area. The lesion is covered with scales and has some fissuring. The family nurse practitioner makes a diagnosis of.
A. atopic dermatitis
B. Ichthyosis
C. psoriasis
D. tinea corporis

A

Psoriasis

102
Q

A difficult aspect of determining occupational exposure to a disease is the:
A. Confidentiality of the information within company records.
B. An accuracy of occupational disease reporting.
C. Long latency period between exposure and disease development.
D. Reliance on work, memories.

A

Long latency period between exposure and disease development.

103
Q

A patient who had a total gastrectomy one year ago, reports a sore mouth and digestion and tingling in the lower extremities. Which test does the nurse practitioner order?
A. Blood urea nitrogen level.
B. Complete blood count.
C. Liver function study.
D. Thyroid function study.

A

Complete blood count

104
Q

A 42-year-old patient with epistaxis dilated pupils, tachycardia, and mild euphoria show symptoms associated with the use of:
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Cocaine
C. Morphine sulfate (MS Contin)
D. Oxycodone hydrochloride (OxyContin)

A

Cocaine

105
Q

During cardiac auscultation, a soft first heart sound with a holosystolic apical murmur that radiates to the left axilla suggest
A. Aortic stenosis.
B. Mitral regurgitation.
C. Mitral stenosis.
D. Mitral valve prolapse.

A

Mitral regurgitation

106
Q

A patient who sustained a myocardial infection comes to the clinic for a refill of atorvastatin calcium (Lipitor). The family nurse practitioner recognizes that the medication is prescribed for.
A. Cancer prevention.
B. Primary prevention.
C. Secondary prevention.
D. Tertiary prevention.

A

Tertiary prevention

107
Q

A 10 month old patient has a strawberry hemangioma 2 cm in diameter on the left buttock. When speaking to the patient’s parents, the family nurse practitioner.
A. Advises that the lesions should spontaneously resolve.
B. Ask about any history of gestational diabetes.
C. Investigates any family history of skin disorders.
D. Refers the patient to dermatologist.

A

Advises that the lesion should spontaneously resolve

108
Q

Clinical practice guidelines are designed to
A. Increase variations and clinical care.
B. Mandate practice decisions.
C. Protect nurses from legal liability.
D. Serve as a handbook for best practice.

A

Serve as a handbook for best practice

109
Q

The family nurse practitioner participates in a hospital based quality improvement project. The nurse practitioner reviews for health records per month documented by a nurse practitioner. Colleague to ensure diabetes protocols are met. This process is a.
A. Core competency.
B. Force field analysis.
C. Peer review.
D. Risk analysis.

A

Peer review

110
Q

Which drug is associated with increased lipoprotein levels?
A. Furosemide (Lasix).
B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide).
C. Spironolactone (Aldactone).
D. Triamterene (Dyrenium).

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide).

111
Q

A 55 year old patient who is Chinese has a follow up appointment after cardiac bypass surgery. The patient brings their father with them into the examination room. How does the family nurse practitioner provide culturally sensitive care?
A. Asks the patient’s father first if he has any questions regarding their child’s care.
B. Asks the patient’s father to leave the room due to confidentiality issues.
C. Performs examination without speaking to the patient’s father.
D. Provides the patient’s father and informational packet to read while performing the examination.

A

Asks the patient father if he has any questions regarding their child’s care.

112
Q

The family nurse practitioner observes an increase in chlamydia diagnoses in a small rural community and suspects patients are not notifying their partners of their diagnosis, and thereby delaying treatment. The nurse practitioner decides to conduct a small research study. Which type of hypothesis does the nurse practitioner apply?
A. Complex hypothesis.
B. Deductive hypothesis.
C. Inductive hypothesis.
D. Nondirectional hypothesis.

A

Inductive hypothesis

113
Q

Treatment of viral conjunctivitis includes the use of
A. Antihistamine and decongestant drops.
B. Cold compresses.
C. Hot compresses.
D. Steroid eyedrop drops.

A

Cold compresses

114
Q

What is the main reason for administering a progestational medication to perimenopausal women who use estrogen?
A. Decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.
B. Prevent hot flashes.
C. Prevent osteoporosis.
D. Promote growth of the uterine lining.

A

Decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia

115
Q

The family nurse practitioner exhibits professional leadership by
A. Adding clinical protocol to the nurse practitioners, scope of practice.
B. Comparing the workplace rules of the registered nurse and the nurse practitioner.
C. Creating a task force to dress scope of practice concerns.
D. Lobbying to eliminate continuing education requirements.

A

Creating a task force to scope of practice concerns

116
Q

To comply with the regulations for third-party payer reimbursement and documentation, the family nurse practitioner Nurse correlates
A. Valuation and management codes with history, examination and medical decision-making.
B. Health outcomes with physical examination findings, and plans of care.
C. Medication orders, and treatment plans with electronic billing.
D. Patient with informed consent

A

Evaluation and management codes with history, examination and medical decision-making

117
Q

A 45-year-old patient who is a professional singer reports progressive hoarseness for the last four weeks. The hoarseness began after a three hour performance. The patient does not smoke and reports no weight loss upper respiratory infection, dysphasia, or shortness of breath. The nurse practitioner manages this patient patient by.
A. Ordering a CT scan of the head.
B. Ordering an immediate lateral neck x-ray.
C. Prescribing systemic antibiotics and cool mist inhalations.
D. Requesting a referral for evaluation of the larynx.

A

Requesting a referral for evaluation of the larynx

118
Q

The family nurse practitioner advises a nursing mother who has postpartum mastitis to take antibiotics as prescribed and
A. Continue to nurse with both breast.
B. Pump the unaffected breast with a lactation pump.
C. Take cool showers.
D. temporarily switch to formula.

A

Continue to nurse with both breast

119
Q

Which health promotion strategy is most appropriate for adolescent patients who are obese?
A. Individual based behavior modification.
B. Motivational interviewing.
C. Parental regulation of meals.
D. Presentation of video case studies.

A

Motivational interviewing

120
Q

During a physical examination, the integrity of the facial nerve can be assessed by having the patient
A. Clench their teeth.
B. Extrude their tongue.
C. Produce a big yawn.
D. Puff out both cheeks.

A

Puff out both cheeks

121
Q

A nine-year-old patient sustained a minor laceration while playing the patient’s immunization record shows that the patient received a primary series of the pediatric Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, a primary series of oral polio virus vaccine, and a DTaP booster at age 5 just before entering school. According to the current immunization recommendations, the family nurse practitioner gives the patient.
A. A booster of diphtheria and tetanus toxoids.
B. A DTaP booster.
C. A tetanus toxoid injection.
D. No injection at this time.

A

No injection at this time

122
Q

A nine-year-old patient sustained a minor laceration while playing the patient’s immunization record shows that the patient received a primary series of the pediatric Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, a primary series of oral polio virus vaccine, and a DTaP booster at age 5 just before entering school. According to the current immunization recommendations, the family nurse practitioner gives the patient.
A. A booster of diphtheria and tetanus toxoids.
B. A DTaP booster.
C. A tetanus toxoid injection.
D. No injection at this time.

A

No injection at this time

123
Q

An older adult patient is diagnosed with HIV infection and receives a prescription for zidovudine (Retrovir). Which diagnostic test helps assess the side effects of this medication?
A. Complete blood count.
B. Hemoglobin A1C.
C. Immunodeficiency panel.
D. Serum glucose.

A

Complete blood count

124
Q

Interventions at the stage of susceptibility are directed at preventing disease from occurring. This includes education, exercise, nutrition, water, Floracion, immunizations, food, handling regulations, and pollution control.

A

Primary prevention

125
Q

Interventions at the sub, clinical stage are directed at early detection of the illness or problem to reduce the progress and severity of the disease. This includes genetic testing in newborns, lead screening, vision, and hearing screening, smoking, cessation programs, cholesterol screening, mammography, and testicular self examination.

A

Secondary prevention

126
Q

Interventions at the clinical stage of disease are directed at treatment and rehabilitation of the illness to prevent or minimize progression of disease or suquelae, such as disability. This includes use of inhaled steroids in the management of asthma, penicillin, prophylaxis, and patients with sickle cell anemia, and vitamin therapy and pregnancy to name a few.

A

Tertiary prevention

127
Q

Ranked the following cancers, according to mortality rate highest to lowest in adults, all ages and all genders.
A. Colorectal cancer.
B. Prostate cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Breast cancer.

A
  1. Lung cancer
  2. Breast cancer.
  3. Prostate cancer.
  4. Colorectal cancer.
128
Q

Rank the following cancers according to mortality rate highest to lowest in adults, all ages and genders.

Colorectal cancer
Lung cancer
Breast cancer
Pancreatic cancer

A
  1. Lung cancer.
  2. Colorectal cancer.
  3. Pancreatic cancer.
  4. Breast cancer.
129
Q

The acronym TORCH stands for?

A

Toxoplasma gondii
other infections
Rubella
cytomegalovirus
Herpes

130
Q

Medication used to treat PCOS in general include

A

Low-dose oral contraceptives to suppress ovaries
Spironolactone to decrease and control hirsutism
Provera tablets for 7 to 10 days every two months to induce menses
Metformin to regulate glucose and to induce ovulation if the patient desires pregnancy

131
Q

What is the first line agent for pharmacotherapy therapy of postpartum mood disorders in breast-feeding mothers?

A

Sertraline (SSRI)

132
Q

What are the common pathogens that cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumonia
Legionella pneumophila
Also viruses like RSV, influenza, parainfluenza, and adenovirus

133
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired? Bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

134
Q

What factors are needed to measure peek expiratory flow PEF?

A

HAG
Height
Age
Gender

135
Q

Which of the following pathogenic bacteria are commonly found in the lungs of older children and adults with cystic fibrosis?

A. Streptococcus pneumonia.
B. Chlamydia pneumonia.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

136
Q

What is the recommended treatment for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x 1 dose

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