Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

IDW > Board > Flashcards

Board Flashcards

1
Q

Solar Cycle

A

11 year cycle which has a 4 year rise and 7 year decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Van Allen Radiation Belts

A

2 concentric, donut shaped regions of stable, trapped charged particles that exist because the geomagnetic field near the earth is strong and field lines are closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Atmospheric Drag

A

Affects low orbiting objects, less than 1000 km. Energy deposited in the earth’s upper atmosphere by charged particle bombardment heats the atmosphere, causing it to expand outward over a period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Geosynchronous Orbit

A

Satellite with an average altitude of approximately 19,300 nautical miles. Satellite rotates once around earth in as long as it takes for earth to rotate around once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FSM

A

Fleet SIPR Messaging System. Point to point connection between ship and NOC. Faster, more reliable record message traffic delivery to ships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MUA

A

Master Update Authority. NCTAMS PAC. The single point for directory updates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is RI

A

Routing Indicators. GENSER RI’s, Begin with the letter R and are seven characters in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is OSRI

A

Originating Station Routing Indicator. Ships derive by using the first 4 letters of the routing indicator of the Fleet NARC assigned to the servicing NCTAMS/NCTS system to which they will transmit, suffixed by FRI assigned to the fleet/mobile unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is NARC

A

*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FRI

A

Fleet Routing Indicator. Three letter designator assigned to the fleet/mobile unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FL 1

A

Start of Message and Sequence Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FL 2

A

Routing Indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FL 4

A

Security Label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FL 5

A

DTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FL 6

A

Originator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FL 7

A

Action Address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FL 8

A

Info Address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FL 9

A

Exempt Address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FL 11

A

Break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

FL 12

A

Text

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FL 13

A

Break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FL 14

A

Confirmation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FL 15

A

End of message validation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ZBZ

A

Corrupt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ZUJ

A

Stand by

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ZEV

A

Acknowledged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ZUG

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ZUE

A

Affirmative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ZES

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the unique four letter designators that identify broadcasts

A

PMUL - NCTAMS PAC
LMUL - NCTAMS LANT
IMUL - NCTAMS PAC (ALTERNATE)
-First letter identifies naval communication area and second letter identify single or multiple channel broadcast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BCA

A

Broadcast Control Authority. Central hub where all message traffic sent to or received by submarines and shore stations gets disseminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BKS

A

Broadcast Keying Stations. Introduces message or facsimile traffic into the Fleet Broadcast Network by generating a key stream of broadcast-bound information to the BCS for specific channel allocation before being forwarded to the BRS for broadcast transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

BCS

A

Provides all the technical aspects of affecting a Fleet Broadcast, which include assembling key streams received from the various broadcast keying stations into specific broadcast channels and delivering a composite key stream to the Broadcast Radiating Station for transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ORM

A

Operation Risk Management. Decision making tool used to minimize risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ORM Steps

A 
Identifying Hazards
Assessing Hazards
Making Risk Decisions
Implementing Controls
Supervising
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Instruction that governs safety and mishap reporting

A

OPNAVINST 5102.D

Navy & Marine Corp Mishap & Safety Investigation, Reporting, & Record keeping manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hazard severity and the 4 categories

A

Assessment of the expected consequence, defined by degree of injury or occupational illness that could occur

  • Category I - may cause death or loss of asset or grave damage
  • Category II - severe injury, or property damage
  • Category III - minor injury or property damage
  • Category IV - minimal threat to personnel safety or property
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mishap Probability and subcategories

A

Assessment of the likelihood that given exposure to a hazard an accident will result

  • Sub-Category A - Like to occur immediately
  • Sub-Category B - Probably will occur in time
  • Sub-Category C - May occur in time
  • Sub-Category D - Unlikely to occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RAC

A

Risk Assessment Code. Structured process to identify and assess hazards

  • Critical Risk
  • Serious Risk
  • Moderate Risk
  • Minor Risk
  • Negligible Risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long do SITREPs have to be kept

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 objectives of first aid

A

Save lives, prevent further injury, prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Methods of controlling bleeding

A

Direct pressure, pressure point, tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Methods of clearing an obstructed airway

A
  • Standing abdominal thrust
  • Reclining abdominal thrust
  • Standing chest thrust
  • Reclining abdominal thrust
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HERO

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HERP

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HERF

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Types of PPE

A

Respirators, Hand protection, Foot protection, Eye protection, Face protection, Skin/Body protection, Hearing protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Naval Doctrine

A

WIPLOC

  • Naval Warfare
  • Naval Intelligence
  • Naval Planning
  • Naval Logistics
  • Naval Operations
  • Naval Command and Control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Seven Principles of Naval Logistics

A 
FEARSSS
Responsiveness
Simplicity
Flexibility
Economy
Attainability
Sustainability
Survivability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

First navy ship named after an enlisted man

A

Osmond Ingram
DD 255
First enlisted man killed in WWI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Navy Birthday

A

13 October 1775

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Three classes of naval vessels that existed an inception of the navy

A

Ship of the line
Frigates
Sloops of war

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hand Salute origin

A

The hand salute was done because most palms were dirty from handling lines. It was hands down as it was it was considered insulting to present a dirty palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Battle Coral Sea

A

Aircraft passed each other in the clouds in the worlds first carrier versus carrier battle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Voyage of the Great White Fleet

A

Left Hampton Roads, Virginia, for a round the world cruise to show the flag and demonstrate the strength of the U.S. Navy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Battle of Normandy

A

Largest amphibious operation in history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Midway

A

Turning point of the Pacific war

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Guadalcanal

A

After three days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and US Marines were able to secure the island of guadalcanal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Battle of Leyte Gulf

A

Final blow to the Japanese navy on October 23, 1944

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mercury 3

A

Alan B Shepard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gemini 3

A

John W Young

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Apollo 11

A

Neil Armstrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Apollo 17

A

Eugene Cernan and Ronald Evens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

STS-1

A

All navy crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

On-the-roof-gang

A

A total of 176 enlisted radio operators were specially trained at a unique school located on the roof of the old Navy Dept building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Purple code

A

Japanese Cipher Machine. Code named purple because of the binders used by Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

USS Liberty

A

Mistakenly attacked by Israeli forces in “six day war”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

USS Pueblo

A

While off Wonsan,North Korea, Pueblo was attacked by local forces and seized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Landing at Inchon

A

Secured by Marines in less than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Hainan Island EP-3 Incident

A

A mid-air collision between a USN EP-3 ARIES II signals surveillance aircraft and a People’s Liberation Army Navy J-Bll interceptor fighter jet resulted in an international dispute between the US and China

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

USS Stark

A

Two Iraqi missiles struck the Side. 37 sailors were killed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies

A

Readiness, Flexibility, Self sustainability, Mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Levels of war

A

Tactical, operational, strategic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

National Security Act of 1947

A

Created the CIA. Serves as the primary civilian intelligence gathering organization in the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

RADM Hopper

A

Worked on the Mark I and Mark II electromechanical computing machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

First computer

A

ABC was the first computer in 1937

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

John Walker

A

Convicted of selling classified information to the Soviets. Reason we have TPI today

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Oldest Intelligence Organization

A

General Order 292 established the Office of Intelligence in the Bureau of Navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When was ONI established and by who

A

Established in 1880s by LT Mason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

First CIO/DNI

A

Chief Information Officer/Director of National Intelligence.

John Negroponte on April 21, 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Two departments combined to form ONI

A

Department Library and Office of Intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

OPCON and ADCON

A

Operational Control - commander in charge of the overall operation of forces
Administrative Control - Commander in charge of the individual unit’s administrative needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

FLTCOM

A

Fleet Commander. Overall responsible for the operations in the Fleet in their AOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

TYCOM

A

Type Commander. Responsible for the operation of their specific platform, such as surface, air, sub, expeditionary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

PACOM

A

Pacific Command. Camp Smith, HI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

EUCOM

A

European Command. Stuttgart, Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

JFCOM

A

Joint Forces Command. Norfolk and Suffolk, VA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

SOUTHCOM

A

Southern Command. Miami, FL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

CENTCOM

A

Central Command. Tampa, FL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

NORTHCOM

A

Northern Command, Paterson AFB, CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

SOCOM

A

Special Operations Command. MacDill AFB, FL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

TRANSCOM

A

Transportation Command. Scott AFB, IL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

STRATCOM

A

Strategic Command. Offutt AFB, NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

AFRICOM

A

Africa Command. Stuttgart, Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

CYBERCOM

A

Created in 2009. Naval Network Warfare Command was recognized to fill the role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

2nd Fleet

A

Atlantic Ocean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

3rd Fleet

A

Pacific Ocean, East Pac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

4th Fleet

A

Africa and South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

5th Fleet

A

Central Command AOR waters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

6th Fleet

A

Med, North Atlantic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

7th Fleet

A

Western Pacific and Indian Oceans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

10th Fleet

A

Cyber Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

TF

A

Task Force. A temporary grouping of units, under one commander formed for the purpose of carrying out a specific operation or mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

TG

A

Task Group. A component of a naval task force organized by the commander of a task force or higher authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

TU

A

Task Unit. A component of a naval task group organized by the commander of a task group or higher authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

TE

A

Task Element. A component of a naval task unit organized by the commander of a task unit or higher authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

AG

A

Aerographer’s Mates. Navy’s meteorological and oceanographic experts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

CTI

A

Linguists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

CTM

A

Maintenance technicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

CTN

A

Monitor, identify, collect and analyze information, provide data for digital network products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

CTR

A

Crypto Technicians Collections
Operate state of the art computer systems to conduct information operations, and collect analyze and exploit signals of interest to report worldwide threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

CTT

A

Electronic Intelligence

Operate electronic sensors and computer systems to collect, analyze, and disseminate Electronic Intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

IS

A

Intelligence Specialists. Analyze intelligence data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

IT

A

Perform core and specialty functions of Communications Operations, message processing, network administration and security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

DISA

A

Defense Information Systems Agency. Engineers and provides command and control capabilities and enterprise infrastructure to assure a global net-centric enterprise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

NCDOC

A

Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command.

Over see entire navy network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

NSA

A

National Security Agency. Provide for the signals intelligence mission of the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Secretary of the Navy

A

Ray Mabus #75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Commander in Chief

A

President Obama #44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Secretary of Defense

A

Mr. Hagel. #24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

CNO

A

ADM Greenert #30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

MCPON

A

MC Stevens #13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

ODCR

A

Officer Distribution Control Report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Command Master Chief

A

Total enlisted must be 250 or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

AMD

A

Activity Manpower Document

-Total force manpower requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Evaluation report

A

Enlisted E-1 to E-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Fitness report

A

All officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Page 2

A

Dependant Infor, SGLI, emergency information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Page 4

A

Qualifications, education, training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Page 13

A

Administrative remarks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

OPREP-3 PINACLE

A

Used to notify the National Command Authority. Events that could result in local, national, or international public reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

OPREP-3 NAVY BLUE

A

Used to provide the CNO and other appropriate commands with information concerning incidents of military, political or press interest which are of high Navy, vice national interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

OPREP-3 NAVY BLUE UNIT SITREP

A

Used to provide higher authority or other potentially interested senior with notification of an incident not meeting oprep-3 special interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

SGLI

A

Servicemans Group Life Insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Officer accession programs for enlisted personnel

A

STA-21, LDO/CWO, MECP, OCS, Flying Warrant Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Purpose of 3M/PMS System

A

Maintenance and Material Management/Planned Maintenance System. Provides efficient and uniform methods of conducting and recording preventative and corrective maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

DPAS

A

Defense Property Accounting System. Used to track physical accountability of personal property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

DLR Program

A

Depot Level Repairable. Repairable items for which the condemnation should be made at the depot level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

NRFI DLR

A

Not Ready For Issue Depot Level Repairable

  • Turn-in - requires turn-in to a repair facility
  • RIP- Remain in Place, repairable components that cannot be removed until receipt of a replacement item
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

MAM

A

Maintenance Assistance Module.

-Parts used for isolating faults within an avionics system or test set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

NSN

A

National Stock Number. Has 13 digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

APL

A

Allowance Parts List.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

AEL

A

Allowance Equipage List.

-Durable items that are not consumed in use and are essential to the ships mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

NC

A

Not Carried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

NIS

A

Not In Stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

DD Form 200

A

Survey Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

CHRIMP

A

Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization and Inventory Management Program.
-Serves as a fundamental element of the Navy’s lifecycle control and management of hazardous material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

DRMS

A

Defense Reutilization Marketing Service.

-Provides services in the reuse, transfer, donation, sale or disposal of excess property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

ServMart

A

A self service store operated by an ashore supply activity. It provides a ready supply of relativity low cost items frequently required by customers in the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

OPTAR

A

Operating Target. The estimate of the amount of money that will be required by an operating unit to perform assigned tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Red Cross

A

Immediate Precedence may be assigned. Also called an AMCROSS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

ADNS

A

Automated Digital Networking System.
-Primary function is to connect Navy shipboard networks to other ship and shore networks for transfering IP data of various classification levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

CUDIXS

A

UHF SatCom

  • Up to 60 subscribers
  • Narrative message traffic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

INMARSAT

A

-Used as a last means
-International Maritime Satellite
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

GINGERBREAD

A

Intruder on the line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

EEFI

A

Essential Elements of Friendly Information.
-IIdentify specific items of information which if acquired by an adversary would degrade the security of military operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

BEADWINDOW

A

Real-time procedure which brings to the immediate attention of circuit operators that EEFI disclosure has or may have occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

River City

A
  • Used to secure all communications off the ship.
  • 4 different levels
  • Level 1 is the most restrictive and level 4 is the least restrictive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Routine

A

R

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Priority

A

P

3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Immediate

A

O

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Flash

A

Z

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

CRITIC

A

W

3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

OPTASK COMMS

A

The means by which the Navy and Allied navies distribute afloat communications plans.
-Used to build your com plan

165
Q

COMSPOT

A

Submitted by all ships and shore facilities any time communication outages or degradations are encountered

166
Q

CASREP

A

Submitted once troubleshooting has exceeded 48 hours

167
Q

OTAT

A

Over the Air Transfer.

168
Q

OTAR

A

Over The Air Rekey

169
Q

TEMPEST

A

Code name given to the investigation, study, and control of compromising emanation from telecommunications and automated information systems

170
Q

Purpose of EMCON

A

Emissions Control is the control of all electromagnetic and acoustic radiations, including communications, radar, EW, and sonar

171
Q

ASW

A

Anti Submarine Warfare

172
Q

SUW

A

Anti Surface Warfare

173
Q

IW

A

Information Warfare

174
Q

AW

A

Air Warfare

175
Q

STW

A

Strike Warfare

176
Q

NSW

A

Special Warfare

177
Q

Blue Team

A

Defend/Analyze/Training

178
Q

Red Team

179
Q

JDISS

A

Joint Deployable Intelligence Support System
-Provides a family of hardware and software capabilities that allow connectivity and interoperability with intelligence systems supporting forces

180
Q

Frequency Spectrum

A 
E
V
V
L
M
High 3mhz - 30mhz
Very high 30mhz - 300mhz
Ultra high 300mhz - 3ghz
Super high 3ghz - 30ghz
Extremly High 30ghz -300ghz
181
Q

FCC-100

A

Multiplexer
-Used for SHF, voice, pots
128k channels

182
Q

Aggregate

A

Combined signals/frequencies

183
Q

Frequency

A

Number of cycles per unit of time, expressed in hertz

184
Q

Wavelength

A

Distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave

185
Q

Ducting

A

Trapping of an RF wave between two layers of the earth atmosphere or between atmospheric layer and earth

186
Q

Refraction

A

Occurs when the wave travels through two different mediums and bends toward or away from the normal

187
Q

Multiplexing

A

Simultaneous transmission of a number of intelligible signals in either or both directions using only one RF carrier
-Two methods: Time-Division and Frequency-Division

188
Q

Modulation/Demodulation

A

The ability to impress intelligence upon a transmission medium, such as a radio wave

189
Q

Bandwidth

A

Frequency range occupied by a modulated carrier wave

190
Q

Keying

A

Carrier is shifted between two differing frequencies by opening and closing a key

191
Q

Radio Waves

A

Form of radiant energy that can neither be seen nor felt or an electromagnetic wave generated by a transmitter

  • Ground wave
  • Sky wave
  • Space wave
192
Q

Azimuth Angle

A

Angular measurement in the horizontal plane in a clockwise direction

193
Q

Elevation Angle

A

Angle between the horizontal plane and the line of sight

194
Q

AM

A

Amplitude modulation - refers to any method of varying the amplitude of an electromagnetic carrier frequency in accordance with the intelligence to be transmitted by the carrier frequency

195
Q

FM

A

Frequency Modulation - the instantaneous frequency of the radio frequency wave is varied in accordance with the modulating signal

196
Q

Air Search

A

300 miles in 360 degree circle

197
Q

Operational Electronic Intelligence

A

Concerned with operationally relevant information such as location, movement, employment, tactics, and activity of foreign non-communications emitters and the associated weapons systems

198
Q

Technical Electronic Intelligence

A

Concerned with the technical aspects of foreign non-communications emitters such as signal characteristics, modes, functions, associations, capabilities, limitations, vulnerabilities, and technology levels.

199
Q

Half Duplex

A

One way flow of information at one time, but can go either way, just not at the same time

200
Q

Full Duplex

A

Simultaneous communications in both directions

201
Q

Simplex

A

Communications in only one direction

202
Q

NCDOC

A

Navy Computer Defense Operations Command.
-Coordinate monitor and oversee the defense of Navy computer networks and systems and to be responsible for accomplishing computer network defense missions as assigned by Navy Cyber Forces Command

203
Q

GNOC

A

Global Network Operations Center

-Watch center for NETWARCOM. Direct operations and security of the Navy’s portion of the Global Information Grid.

204
Q

Purpose of FLTNOC

A

Provide a number of critical IP services to the Fleet.

205
Q

UARNOC

A

Hampton Roads, VA

206
Q

PRNOC

A

Waiahaiwa, HI

207
Q

ECRNOC

A

Naples, Italy

208
Q

IORNOC

A

Manama, Bahrain

209
Q

Purpose of CAS

A

Collaboration at Sea
-Set of tools that allow replication of information. Allows users to share knowledge and information around the world using minimum bandwidth for sound decision making

210
Q

JCA

A

Joint Service Imagery Processing
-Client server based architecture with web like browsing features and capabilities for fleet imagery subscribers that is scalable up to 8mbps

211
Q

HSGR

A

High Speed Global Ring

  • OC3 or OC12
  • Terrestrial connectivity between shore communications stations
212
Q

EHF FOT

A

EHF Follow On Terminal

  • 512k to T1 speed
  • Provides IP Services
213
Q

LDR

A

Low Data Rate, No voice

214
Q

MDR

A

Medium Data Rate

215
Q

EHF TIP

A

EHF TDMA Interface Processor

  • Provides ethernet connection between ADNS and MDR terminal
  • Includes phone services
216
Q

CWSP

A

Commercial Wideband Satellite Program

-Provides world wide full duplex data rates to the fleet using a family of COTS/NDI satcom terminals and services

217
Q

DSCS

A

Defense Satellite Communication System

  • Military satellite constellation place in geosynchronous orbit to provide high-volume, secure voice and data communications
  • Also provides SHF
  • Anti-jam
218
Q

DS-0

219
Q

T-1

220
Q

E-1

A

2.048 mbps

221
Q

OC-3

A

155.52 mbs

222
Q

Purpose of Iridium

A

Provide satellite phone services to mobile units down on all other means of connectivity

223
Q

ANWSC-3 v6

A

LOS UHF transceiver

  • 225 to 400 mhz
  • used for voice, data, and teletype
224
Q

AN/WSC-3 v11

A

Havequick Transceiver

  • 225 to 400 mhz
  • Frequency Hopping
  • Anti-jamming
225
Q

AN/USC 61C / DMR

A

Digital Modular Radio

  • Software defined radio
  • Frequencies ranging from 2 mhz to 2 ghz
  • HF, VHF, UHF, and SATCOM
226
Q

DAMA

A

Demand Assigned Multiple Access
-Access scheme in which a SATCOM channel is assigned for multiple access through the DAMA control system in accordance with demand

227
Q

DAMA operation modes

A

AC- Automatic Control, allows communications slots within the waveform to by dynamically assigned to terminals requiring access to the slots
DC - Distributed Control, a terminal’s access to a communications slot is pre-assigned

228
Q

APTS

A

Afloat Personal Telecommunications Systems

-“Sailor Phones”

229
Q

KAM/SAM

A

Maintenance Manuals

  • 3 classes, depot, full, and limited
  • depot and full are only issued to crypto repair facilities
  • limited are available to limited maintenance technicians
230
Q

KAO

A

equipment operating instructions and is provided during the initial issue of the equipment

231
Q

LMM

A

unclassified manuals replacing limited maintenance KAMs

232
Q

Contractor Account

A

Account begins with “87”

  • governed by OPNAVISNT 2221.5C
  • repair and return transfers have a maximum of 90 days
  • all other transfers have a maximum duration of 1 year
233
Q

Local CRF or maintenance facility transfers

A

transfers less than 180 days do not require NCMS approval. Use a hand receipt

234
Q

CRF locations

A

San Diego, Norfolk, and Japan

235
Q

Loans to contractors governed by what

A

OPNAVY 2221.5C

236
Q

Authorized shipping methods for KOK

A

DCS, Defense Courier Service

237
Q

Authorized shipping methods for CCI

A 
DCS
FedEx
Registered Mail
Hand Carry
AMC
238
Q

Mission of A&A teams

A

conduct periodic training visits, training to all DON account personnel,

239
Q

Publications that detail inspections and periodic visit requirements

A

EKMS 1B Art 320-330

EKMS 3C Chapter 2

240
Q

KP operating guide

241
Q

Primary Function of Key Manager

A

Manage assigned key, aid short title profiles, maintain their attributes and distribution requirements and coordinate ordering/generation of electronic key

242
Q

Responsibility of a Controlling Authority

A

Responsible for directing the creation, distribution, and maintenance of the key from “birth to death”

243
Q

What is required for reissue of electronic key after kp failure

A

Manual destruction report must be submitted to NCMS and processed

244
Q

KP rekey

245
Q

KG Rules

A

USKAD BU71260

Used to produce locally generated key

246
Q

KP changeover

247
Q

Types of incidents

A

Physical, Cryptographic, Personnel

248
Q

Non-reportable PDS

A
  • missing signatures
  • material not listed on account inventory
  • late destruction
  • failing to perform kp rekey
249
Q

Reportable PDS

A
  • Premature use of keying material
  • Inadvertent destruction
  • Chainging password parameters on LMD
250
Q

NCMS COMSEC publications

A

EKMS 1B
EKMS 2
EKMS 3C
EKMS 5

251
Q

How do you transfer and receive COMSEC from another service

A

CNO can authorize

-must have justification

252
Q

MRC

A

Master Reference Catalog

  • Located on Tier 1 and NSA SIPR site
  • Lists all equipment and key information by short title
253
Q

Where are the retention periods for EKMS documentation located

A

EKMS 1B Annex T

254
Q

What types of SF-153s require 3 signatures

A

Destruction, Relief of accountability, possession reports, inventories, and conversions

255
Q

SF 700

A

Security Container Information

256
Q

SF 701

A

Activity Security Checklist

257
Q

SF 702

A

Security Container Check Sheet

258
Q

SF 703

A

TS Cover Sheet

259
Q

SF 704

A

S cover sheet

260
Q

COR

A

Central Office of Records

261
Q

IT

A

In Transit

262
Q

PI

A

Pending Investigation

263
Q

IS

264
Q

RL

A

Relief of accountability

265
Q

CAD

A

Common Account Data

  • RA controlled fields can be changed by RA’s
  • Account managers can change other information
266
Q

Tier O account

A

begins with “88”

267
Q

Type “0”

A

Semi Annual or IRST

268
Q

ALC 1

A

Physical material continuously accountable to the COR by register or serial number

269
Q

ALC 2

A

Physical Material continuously accountable to the COR by quantity

270
Q

ALC 4

A

Physical material locally accountable by quantity

271
Q

ALC 6

A

Electronic material continuously accountable to the COR by register

272
Q

ALC 7

A

Electronic material locally accountable by quantity

273
Q

Transaction Type 1

A

Destruction Report

274
Q

Transaction Type 9

A

Possession Report

275
Q

Transaction Type 11

A

Relief from Accountability Report

276
Q

Transaction Type 13

A

Transfer Report Initiating

277
Q

Transaction Type 14

A

Transfer Report Receipt All

278
Q

Transaction Type 15

A

Transfer Report Receipt Exception

279
Q

Transaction Type 16

A

Transfer Report Receipt Individual

280
Q

Transaction Type 17

A

Inventory Reconciliation Status

281
Q

Transaction Type 18

A

Request Inventory

282
Q

Transaction Type 1-99

A

Pending Investigation

283
Q

Host/Client

A

User workstation

284
Q

Application Server

A

Hosts an application for users to use

285
Q

Hub

A

Dumb switch

286
Q

Switch

A

Forwards information based on MAC address. OSI layer 2

287
Q

Router

A

forwards packets between networks

OSI layer 3

288
Q

WAP

A

Wireless Application Protocol.

-Mobile devices such as phones and PDA

289
Q

Proxy Server

A

Secondary way to get to another location. Acts as an intermediary

290
Q

Firewall

A

Helps to eliminate undesired access

291
Q

Backup

A

Stores copy of data

-Full, Differential, Incremental, Partial

292
Q

Repeater

A

Receives a signal and cleans it and regenerates it to so it can be sent to its destination

293
Q

Bus Topology

A

All are connected to a single cable backbone

294
Q

Star

A

Central hub

295
Q

Ring

296
Q

Mesh

A

all nodes are connected to one another

297
Q

LAN

A

Local Area Network.

298
Q

WAN

A

Wide Area Network

299
Q

MAN

A

Metropolitan Area Network

300
Q

GAN

A

Global Area Network

301
Q

OSI Model

A 
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical
302
Q

TCP/IP Model

A 
"A TIN"
Application 
Transport
Internet
Network Access
303
Q

Difference between IPv4 and IPv6

A

4 has 32 bits and 6 has 128 bits

304
Q

NIPRNET

A

Unclassified but sensitive Internet Protocol Router Network

305
Q

SIPRNET

A

Secret IP Router Network

306
Q

JWICS

A

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System

307
Q

DoDN

308
Q

DISN

A

Defense Information System Network

309
Q

NMCI

A

Navy Marine Corp Intranet

310
Q

ONENET

A

Overseas Network

311
Q

IT21

A

Shipboard network, such as OneNet or NMCI

-Being replaced by CAINES

312
Q

Machine Language

313
Q

Assembly Language

A

Scripting

C

314
Q

High-Level Language

315
Q

Virus

A

Malicious code that attaches to files

316
Q

Worm

A

Self replicating

317
Q

Trojan

A

Looks as if the program works correctly, but has malware attached

318
Q

Phishing

A

Criminally fraudulent

319
Q

Network Enumeration

A

Lists all equipment and ports and connections

-Whats up Gold

320
Q

Buffer Overflow

A

Program writes data beyond the buffer space allocated in memory

321
Q

SQL Injection

A

Convinces the application to run SQL code that was not intended

322
Q

PKI

A

Is something you have and something you know

323
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name System

The name resolution system that translates alphabetic domain names into numeric ip addresses

324
Q

OPSEC

A

Operational Security

325
Q

OPSEC Steps

A

5 steps

  1. Identify critical information
  2. Threat assessment
  3. Vulnerability analysis
  4. Risk assessment
  5. Measures/Countermeasures
326
Q

WRA

A

Web Risk Assessment.

Self assessments to determine whether potential critical information is on a commands web site

327
Q

Critical Information

A

Information about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations an adversary seeks

328
Q

NMOC

A

Naval Meteorology and Oceanography Command

329
Q

GOES

A

Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite

-Weather forecasting

330
Q

POES

A

Polar Operational Environmental Satellite

-14.1 times around the earth a day

331
Q

DMSP

A

Defense Meteorological Satellite Program

332
Q

TRMM

A

Tropical Rainfall Measuring Mission

333
Q

Ambient air

A

outdoor air in which humans and other organisms live and breathe

334
Q

Tropical Depression

A

Winds 33 knots of less

335
Q

Tropical Storm

A

winds 34-63 knots

336
Q

Hurricane/typhoon

A

winds greater than 63 knots

337
Q

Ocean Eddies

A

Independent circulations or rings of cold or warm water

  • Cold eddies are counter clockwise
  • Warm eddies are clockwise rotation
338
Q

Small Craft Advisory

A

Winds of 18-33 knots

339
Q

Gale

A

Winds of 34-47 knots

340
Q

Storm

A

Winds of 48 knots or greater

341
Q

Local wind advisory

A

18-33 knots or gusts 25 knots or greater

342
Q

Cyclone COR 5

A

Destructive winds in 96 hours

343
Q

Cyclone COR 4

A

Destructive winds in 72 hours

344
Q

Cyclone COR 3

A

Destructive winds in 48 hours

345
Q

Cyclone COR 2

A

Destructive winds in 24 hours

346
Q

Cyclone COR 1

A

Destructive winds in 12 hours

347
Q

Premise Router

A

Perimeter router

348
Q

OSSR

A

Outer Security Screening Router

349
Q

ISSR

A

Inner Security Screening Router

350
Q

VSCAN

A

Virus scanner scans inbound and outbound email and attachments for viruses

351
Q

DNSMail Server

A

SMTP store and forwarding services

352
Q

Fleet Router

A

Router at NCTAMS of NCTS in your AOR

353
Q

IT21 Tier 1

A

24/7 help desk watch station

354
Q

IT21 Tier 2

A

System Administrators

355
Q

IT21 Tier 3

A

Fleet Systems Engineering Team

356
Q

IT21 Tier 4

357
Q

Port 20

358
Q

Port 21

359
Q

Port 22

360
Q

Port 23

361
Q

Port 25

362
Q

Port 53

363
Q

Port 80

364
Q

Port 110

365
Q

Port 443

366
Q

IEEE

A

Organization that develops new communication and network standards
-RFC - Request For Comment

367
Q

Routing

A

Process of selecting paths in a network along which to send network traffic

368
Q

CANES

A

Consolidated Afloat Networks and Enterprise Services

-Replacing IT21

369
Q

Spillage

A

Data placed on on information system low than the classification of the data

370
Q

Procedures for correcting spillage

A

Contact and report to security manager and IAM

371
Q

SAAR-N

A

System Authorization Access Request - Navy

372
Q

CTR

A

Contract Technical Representative

-Shelia Mehr

373
Q

NREMS

A

Navy Regional Enterprise Messaging System

374
Q

Strong Password requirements

A

14 characters, 2 upper, 2 lower, 2 number, and 2 special characters

375
Q

Certification

A

Process you have to go through to be accrediated

376
Q

Accrediation

A

Good for 3 years

-NCDOC can shutdown if command fails

377
Q

SSAA

A

System Security Authorization Agreement

-Agreement between two networks to keep both of their standards at the same level

378
Q

ATO

A

Authorization To Operate

-Good for 3 years

379
Q

IATO

A

Interim Authorization to Operate

-Good for 6 months

380
Q

Five attributes of IA

A
  1. Confidentiality - keeping secret as secret and TS as TS
  2. Integrity - Ensuring that nothing was changed, use Encryption
  3. Availability - Making resures available
  4. Non-repudiation - Proves sender really sent the email, uses PKI
  5. Authentication - established validity of an originator, such as a pin
381
Q

9 categories of computer incidents

A
  1. Root level intrusion
  2. User level intrusion
  3. Denial of service
  4. Malicious logic
  5. Reconaissance
  6. Non-compliance activity
  7. explain anomoly
  8. unsuccessful activety
  9. Investigating
382
Q

IAVA

A

Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert

  • Sent out by NCDOC
  • Changes must be completed immediately
383
Q

IAVB

A

Information Assurance Vulnerability Bulletin

-Medium Risk

384
Q

CTO

A

Computer Tasking Order

-Immediate order by regional commander

385
Q

Vulnerability and threat

A

Vulnerability is a weakness in the system, while a threat tries to exploit the vulnerability

386
Q

Responsibilities of an IAM

A

the 5 attributes of IA on our network

387
Q

JFTOC

A

Joint Fleet Telecommunication Operations Center.

-NCTAMS has a 24/7 watch officer

388
Q

TIP

A

TDMA Interface Processor

-Time Division Multiple Access

389
Q

SAR-GAR

A

Satellite Access Request-Gateway Access Request

390
Q

GCIB

A

Global Communications Information Bulletin

-GCIB 7

391
Q

ASI

A

Authorized Service Interruption

392
Q

AESOP

A

Afloat Electromagnetic Spectrum Operation Program

-Frequency planning for radar and weapon systems as well as the process of generating communication plans

393
Q

CCS

A

Command and Control Ship

-CCS is in charge of establishing TIP for all ships in that battle group

394
Q

5 Steps of Intelligence

A
  1. Planning and Direction
  2. Collection
  3. Processing
  4. Production
  5. Dissemination
395
Q

Categories of Intelligence

A

Strategic, Operational, Tactical

396
Q

HUMINT

A

Human Intelligence

-gathering information from human sources

397
Q

OSINT

A

Open Source Intelligence

-News media

398
Q

MASINT

A

Measurement and Signature Intelligence

-Radar signatures

399
Q

SIGINT

A

Signals Intelligence

-intercepted signals

400
Q

COMINT

A

Communications Intelligence

-messages or voice information

401
Q

FISINT

A

Foreign Instrumentation Signals Intelligence

-

402
Q

ELINT

A

Electronic Intelligence

-gathering intelligence by electronic sensors

403
Q

IRINT

A

Infrared Intelligence

-

404
Q

ACINT

A

Acoustic Intelligence

-acousting phenomena

405
Q

Mission of NCMS

A

Manages Communications Security Material for the DON. PKI. Training Team

406
Q

Specific NCMS functions

A
  • Publishes COMSEC policy

- CMIO. Comsec Material Issuing Office

407
Q

CMIO

A

Comsec Material Issuing Office

-receives, stores, and ships ekms material

408
Q

CMCS

A

Comsec Material Control System
-comsec material is that material used to protect us government transmissions, communications and the processing of classified or sensitive unclassified information

IDW (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions