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PEDIA 2 BM1 QUIZZES + BM2 > BM1 QUIZZES > Flashcards

BM1 QUIZZES Flashcards

1
Q

One of the following conditions is associated with decrease in amniotic fluid volume
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Intrauterine growth restriction
D. Tracheoesophagealfistula

A

C. Intrauterine growth restriction

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2
Q

Premature rupture of membranes will most likely result to:
a. Sepsis
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Respiratory distress syndrome
d. Intrauterine growth restriction

A

a. Sepsis

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3
Q

Of the following, this condition is associated with polyhydramnios:

a. Urethral atresia
b. Amniotic fluid leak
c. Prune Belly Syndrome
d. Diaphragmatic Hernia

A

d. Diaphragmatic Hernia

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4
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

a. Intrauterine growth restriction results in small for gestational age and small for SGA are due to intrauterine growth restriction.
b. Mortality in a high-risk infant depends on the Apgar Score and Ballard’s Scoring
c. For any given gestational age, the
higher the birth weight, the lower
risk of death.
d. For any given birth weight, the longer the gestational age, the greater likelihood of death.

A

c. For any given gestational age, the
higher the birth weight, the lower
risk of death.

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5
Q

One of the following is a correct pair:

a. Very low birth weight: < 1000 grams
b. Low birth weight: < 2000 grams
c. Extremely preterm: < 28 weeks
d. Moderate preterm: 30 – 36 weeks

A

c. Extremely preterm: < 28 weeks

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6
Q

This is the most common problem affecting premature babies:

a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Respiratory distress

A

d. Respiratory distress

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7
Q

One of the following is NOT a complication of large for gestational age babies:
a. Birth asphyxia
b. Cephalohematoma
c. Subgaleal hemorrhage
d. Intraventricular hemorrhage

A

d. Intraventricular hemorrhage

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8
Q

The first manifestation of seizures in neonates:

a. Absence of respiration
b. Abnormal eye movement
c. Flexion of upper extremities
d. Tongue thrusting

A

a. Absence of respiration

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9
Q

Jitteriness can be found in the following newborn conditions, EXCEPT:

a. Polycythemia
b. Mothers given Nalbuphine
c. Infants of Diabetic mothers
d. Birth Asphyxia
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

A

f. None of the above

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10
Q

True of Direct bilirubin, EXCEPT:

a. Water soluble
b. Increased levels are ALWAYS
pathologic
c. Does not cross blood brain barrier
d. Predominantly bound to albumin
e. Elevated if > 1mg/dl for total bilirubin
levels < 5mg/dl

A

d. Predominantly bound to albumin

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11
Q

In neonates with jaundice, the following laboratory parameters are need, EXCEPT:

a. Blood typing
b. Direct Coomb’s Test
c. Complete Blood Count
d. Serum globulin

A

d. Serum globulin

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12
Q

This is a common complication of infants with diabetic mothers.’

a. Shoulder dystocia
b. Cardiomegaly
c. Jaundice
d. Polycythemia

A

a. Shoulder dystocia

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13
Q

The following is/are TRUE of caput succedaneum:

a. Edematous swelling of the scalp
b. Extends across the midline
c. Resolves spontaneously
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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14
Q

Fetal hypoxia after birth can be due to the following:

a. Severe anemia
b. Failure to breath due in utero CNS
injury
c. Severe congenital heart disease or
pulmonary disease
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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15
Q

The following is/are TRUE of apnea of prematurity:

a. Cessation of breathing for >/= 20 secs
b. Cessation of breathing for any duration of cyanosis
c. Treatment includes gentle tactile
stimulation, supplemental oxygen,
methylxanthines
d. A and C only

A

d. A and C only

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16
Q

The following are features/characteristics of infant of diabetic mothers, EXCEPT:

a. Large and plump with puffy, plethoric facies
b. Can be with normal or low birth weight
c. High-risk of birth trauma
d. Poor Apgar Score

A

b. Can be with normal or low birth weight

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17
Q

The following metabolic disorders can be seen in infant of diabetic mothers:

a. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia,
hypomagnesemia
b. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia
c. Hypoglycemia, hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia
d. None of the above

A

a. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia

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18
Q

The following are true in infant of diabetic mothers, EXCEPT:

a. High incidence of respiratory distress syndrome
b. Cardiomegaly but no heart failure
c. Can have anencephaly, hypoplastic
left heart, and hydronephrosis
d. Can be jittery, tremulous and hyperexcitable or hypotonic, lethargic
and poor sucking

A

b. Cardiomegaly but no heart failure

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19
Q

TRUE of infants with diaphragmatic hernia, EXCEPT:

a. Respiratory distress is a cardinal sign
b. can be stable up to 48 hours
c. Scaphoid abdomen with increased chest wall diameter
d. Bowel sounds can be heard in the chest with normal breath sounds

A

d. Bowel sounds can be heard in the chest with normal breath sounds

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20
Q

One of the following is a low-risk factor for developing meconium aspiration syndrome in a newborn?

a. Preeclampsia
b. Prematurity
c. Oligohydramnios
d. Maternal Infection

A

b. Prematurity

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21
Q

Bilirubin encephalopathy is a neurologic syndrome resulting from the deposition of this substance in the brain.

a. Biliverdin
b. Urobilinoids
c. Direct Bilirubin
d. Indirect Bilirubin

A

d. Indirect Bilirubin

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22
Q

One of the following is a common neonatal respiratory problem associated with premature infants

a. Apnea
b. Pneumonia
c. Intraventricular Hemorrhage
d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

a. Apnea

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23
Q

One of the following are increased in large for gestation age.

a. Cephalhematoma
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Cardiac problem

A

a. Cephalhematoma

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24
Q

Vomiting in the neonatal period is usually due to:

a. Overfeeding
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Milk allergy
d. Inborn errors of metabolism

A

a. Overfeeding

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25
Q

Regarding intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) of prematurity, the following are true, EXCEPT:

a. It usually develops spontaneously
b. MRI is the preferred imaging
technique for screening IVH
c. Prophylactic administration of low- dose indomethacin reduces the incidence of severe IVH
d. It may rarely manifest at birth

A

b. MRI is the preferred imaging technique for screening IVH

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26
Q

**

The following are TRUE regarding apnea, EXCEPT:

a. Apnea is a common problem in preterm infants.
b. in term infant, apnea is always worrisome
c. Obstructive apnea is characterized by nascence of airflow but persistent chest wall motion.
d. Serious apnea is defined as cessation of breathing for long than 20 sec
e. Bradycardia follows the apnea by 1 – 2 secs in more than 95% of cases and is most often nodal.

A

e. Bradycardia follows the apnea by 1 – 2 secs in more than 95% of cases and is most often nodal.

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27
Q

Administration of arterial corticosteroids to women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation significantly reduces the following, EXCEPT:

a. Incidence and mortality of RDS
b. Postnatal growth
c. The overall neonatal mortality
d. Need for and duration of ventilatory support
e. Incidence of severe intraventricular
hemorrhage

A

b. Postnatal growth

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28
Q

The basic defect requiring treatment in RDS is:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Circulatory insufficiency
c. Hypothermia
d.Inadequate pulmonary exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide
e. Electrolyte disturbance

A

d.Inadequate pulmonary exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

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29
Q

Contributary factors for the development of broncho-pulmonary dysplasia (BPD) include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Immaturity
b. Dehydration during the 1st day of life
c. Chorioamnionitis
d. Symptomatic PDA
e. Malnutrition

A

b. Dehydration during the 1st day of life

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30
Q

One of the following is FALSE in the chest radiograph of transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)

a. Prominent pulmonary vascular
markings
b. Fluid in the intralobar fissures
c. Overaeration
d. Flat diaphragms
e. Diffuse reticulogranular pattern

A

e. Diffuse reticulogranular pattern

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31
Q

The following are TRUE regarding meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS), EXCEPT:

a. (MAS) develops in 5% of meconium-stained infants.
b. 30% require mechanical ventilation
c. Mortality rate is 3 – 5 %
d. Overdistention of the chest may be
prominent
e. Usually occurs in preterm or near-
term infants

A

e. Usually occurs in preterm or near-
term infants

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32
Q

The following are predisposing factors for persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn, EXCEPT:

a. Anemia
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Early-onset sepsis
d. Hypoglycemia
e. Birth asphyxia

A

a. Anemia

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33
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia can be diagnosed on prenatal Ultrasonography (between ____ weeks of gestation) in > 50% of cases. Findings on the ultrasonography may include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Chest mass
b. Mediastinal shift
c. Gastric bubble
d. Oligohydramnios
e. A liver in the thoracic cavity

A

d. Oligohydramnios

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34
Q

A poor prognostic sign of diaphragmatic hernia (CDH).
a. Grunting
b. Use of accessory muscles
c. Early respiratory distress, within 6 hours of life
d. Cyanosis
e. Scaphoid abdome

A

c. Early respiratory distress, within 6 hours of life

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35
Q

When screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), the best time to perform an ultrasound is

a. First day of life
b. Second day of life
c. Third day of life
d. Fourth day of life
e. Fifth day of life

A

d. Fourth day of life

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36
Q

KC was delivered via cesarean section with good cry. Amniotic fluid is clear. Maternal history is unremarkable. 1 hour after, she was examined tachypneic with retractions but chest sounds are clear. The following are true of KC’s conditions:

a. Self-limiting
b. Due to delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid.
c. Treatment is supportive
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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37
Q

37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.

A

● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain

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38
Q

MATCHING TYPE

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE

Jaundice lasting for a few days -

A

A

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39
Q

MATCHING TYPE

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE

Onset after 1 week of life

A

B

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40
Q

MATCHING TYPE

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE

Jaundice resulting from insufficient milk intake

A

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE

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41
Q

MATCHING TYPE

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE

Presence of glucuronidase in some milk

A

B

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42
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Frequent breastfeeding is needed -

A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE

A

A

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43
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Visible on the 2nd day

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH

A

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE

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44
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Direct bilirubin of < 2mg/dl

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH

A

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE

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45
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Persists beyond 10 days

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH

A

B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE

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46
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Total bilirubin peaks at 12 mg/dl

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH

A

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE

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47
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Present on the 18th hour of life

A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH

A

B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE

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48
Q

37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.

A

● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain

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49
Q

37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.

A

● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain

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50
Q

37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.

A

● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain

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51
Q

The following are TRUE about Maternal antibody and neonatal Varicella EXCEPT
a. Transfer of maternal antibodies takes place around 1 week before delivery
b. The high risk for mild neonatal varicella occurs 2-3 days after delivery
c. If the mother has varicella infection near delivery, there is an increased chance of the neonate developing severe symptoms of chickenpox after birth
d. The newborn antibody response against Varicella occurs 2-3 days after birth

A

b. The high risk for mild neonatal varicella occurs 2-3 days after delivery

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52
Q

A 2 year old female developed low grade fever with painful ulcers in the mouth with rashes on his palms and dorsum, otherwise known as the “Hand-Foot- Mouth Disease” What is the most likely cause of the infection?

a. Enterovirus 71
b. Coxsackievirus A16
c. Herpes Simplex Type 1
d. Herpesvirus Type 6

A

b. Coxsackievirus A16

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53
Q

The following are TRUE of Chlamydia trachomatis infection/EXCEPT:

a. Co-infection with Neisseria Gonorrhea b. Culture of the eye discharge is the gold
standard diagnostic procedure
c. Patient will develop pneumonia within 1 week after birth
d. Macrolides are the drug of choice

A

c. Patient will develop pneumonia within 1 week after birth

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54
Q

This is the MOST important risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in preterm infants:

a. Breastfeeding
b. Cesarean section delivery
c. Age of gestation and birth weight
d. Exposure to glucocorticoids in the 1st week of life

A

c. Age of gestation and birth weight

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55
Q

All the following are true, regarding pathology of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) EXCEPT

a. Prematurity is the greatest factor
b. In most cases, a pathogen is identified
c. NEC in term infants is always a “secondary” disease
d. NEC is less common in infants fed with human milk

A

c. NEC in term infants is always a “secondary” disease

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56
Q

This is an ABSOLUTE indication for surgery in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC):
a. A palpable mass
b. Abdominal wall erythema
c. Failure of medical management
d. Evidence of abdominal perforation on abdominal radiograph

A

d. Evidence of abdominal perforation on abdominal radiograph

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57
Q

The following are the common routes of transmission for neonatal sepsis EXCEPT:

a. Transplacental.
b. Transvaginal
c. Respiratory
d. Hematogenous

A

c. Respiratory

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58
Q

This is the most important feature common to both early and late onset sepsis.

a. Fever
b. Maternal risk factors
c. Gestational age
d. Localized in manifestation

A

c. Gestational age

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59
Q

Transplacental transmission of Toxoplasmosis infection is greatest during:

a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. intrapartum

A

c. 3rd trimester

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60
Q

All of the following are accepted interventions of Necrotizing enterocolitis(NEC) EXCEPT

a. Surgery
b. Hydration
c. Umbilical catheterization
d. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

c. Umbilical catheterization

61
Q

The following neonatal infections involve the central nervous system except:

a. Chlamydia infection
b. Toxoplasmosis infection
c. Cytomegalovirus infection
d. Neisseria gonorrhea infection

A

a. Chlamydia infection

62
Q

Cytomegalovirus infection causes fetal abnormality during:

a. 2 mos AOG
b. 5 mos AOG
c. 8 mos AOG
d. At birth

A

a. 2 mos AOG

63
Q

The following statements are true of Cytomegalovirus infection EXCEPT:
a. Majority of cases are asymptomatic
b. It is the leading cause of deafness
c. urine culture recommended at 1 month old
d. On cranial ultrasound, periventricular calcifications are se

A

c. urine culture recommended at 1 month old
< 3 weeks

64
Q

**

For a 4 months old with high grade fever, the most common etiology would be

a. Viruses
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Neisseria meningitidis

A

a. Viruses

65
Q

The following are examples of classic fever of unknown origin EXCEPT:

a. Cancer
b. Hyperthermia
c. Drug fever
d. Inflammatory responses

A

c. Drug fever

66
Q

Empiric treatment with early onset sepsis include

a. Ampicillin + gentamycin/Ceftriaxone
b. Vancomycin + amikacin/Ceftazidime
c. Ampicillin + Amikacin/Cefuroxime
d. Vancomycin + gentamycin/Ceftriaxone

A

a. Ampicillin + gentamycin/Ceftriaxone

67
Q

If mother received Cefazolin IV because of rupture of bag of water for 16 hours and delivered a term neonate, what will be your initial management?

a. Antibiotic therapy
b. Observe for 2 days
c. Request for a limited diagnostic work-up
d. Request for a full diagnostic work-up

A

b. Observe for 2 days

68
Q

Prophylactic management against Group B Streptococcus to the mother includes the following antibiotics EXCEPT:

a. Beta lactams
b. Penicillins
c. 1st generation Cephalosporins
d. 3rd generation Cephalosporins

A

d. 3rd generation Cephalosporins

69
Q

Patients with ophthalmia neonatorum will most likely respond to:

a. Ceftriaxone/cefotaxime one dose
b. Ceftriaxone/cefotaxime for 7 days
c. Ceftriaxone/cefotaxime for 14 days
d. Isolation and erythromycin eye ointment

A

a. Ceftriaxone/cefotaxime one dose

70
Q

In the Modified Bell Staging for NEC, those neonates with hypothermia, apnea, with mild metabolic acidosis, decreased platelet count with abdominal distention but absence of bowel sounds and on plain radiographs, ascites and ileus are present, the most likely classification will be:

a. IIA-Definite, mildly ill
b. IIB-Definite, moderately ill
c. IIB-Definite, severely ill
d. IIIA-Advanced, severely ill, intact bowel

A

b. IIB-Definite, moderately ill

71
Q

The following are enanthem manifestations of Scarlet fever EXCEPT.

A. Strawberry tongue
B. Palatal petechiae
C. Tonsillar congestion
D. Koplik’s spots

A

D. Koplik’s spots

72
Q

**

One of the following represents a major criteria in Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome:

A. rash
B. subconjunctival injection
C. desquamation on the hands and feet D. localized neurologic abnormalities

A

A. rash

73
Q

This is the MOST common clinical manifestation of meningococcal infection:

A. Asymptomatic carriage
B. Pneumonia
C. Meningitis
D. Bacteremia

A

A. Asymptomatic carriage

74
Q

One of the following is NOT a recommended prophylaxis for Meningococcemia:

A Rifampicin
B Azithromycin
C. Ofloxacin
D. Ceftriaxone

A

C. Ofloxacin

75
Q

BONUS :)

A

BONUS :)

76
Q

**

In Congenital Rubella Syndrome, the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT

A. Up to 85% of infants are infected if they acquire the infection during the 2nd trimester,
B. Infants present with deafness, cataracts, heart defects, microcephaly, mental retardation
C. Mothers will have spontaneous abortion following a Rubella infection during the first trimester.
D. This may lead to prematurity or fetal death.

A

A. Up to 85% of infants are infected if they acquire the infection during the 2nd trimester, 1ST TRI

77
Q

A 15-year old male presents with fever, generalized maculopapular rash, fatigue. throat. pain with generalized lymphadenopathy after he was given Amoxicillin capsule. Your most likely causative agent will be:

A. Parvovirus B19
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Coxsackie A16
D. Herpes simplex

A

B. Epstein-Barr virus

78
Q

When a child has 6 days fever, bulbar conjunctival injection. with truncal polymorphic, erythematous rash , periungual desquamation, injected pharynx, your most likely diagnosis will be

A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Rubeola infection
C. Scarlet Fever
D. Meningococcemia

A

KAWASAKI ANSWER ANI

79
Q

The following are TRUE about Roseola infantum EXCEPT:

A. The rash appears with the lysis of fever
B. Patients may have seizures
C. Prodrome period includes: rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis and mild lymphadenopathy
D. The rash may appear in the face, behind the ears, neck, trunk

A

D. The rash may appear in the face, behind the ears, neck, trunk

80
Q

The following are true about the rash in Parvovirus BID infection EXCEPT

A. Macular rash appears with sparing of nasal bridges
B. Rash may wax and wane in 2 weeks
C. Rash may appear due to tiggers like stress
D. Patients are treated with Ampicillin and develops this rash

A

D. Patients are treated with Ampicillin and develops this rash

81
Q

A 3 year old child present with anorexia, malaise, low grade fever and maculopapular rash begins on the face and spreads to the body for 3 days. On the examination, there is retroarticular and posterior occipital lymphadenopathy shows wbc 4500 mm and platelet count 115,000 mm. One of the following is most likely the diagnosis:

A. Roseola
B. Rubella
C. Scarletfever
D. Dengue fever

A

B. Rubella

82
Q

An 8 year old child with chronic eczema was exposed to chickenpox 2 days ago, of this following the most appropriate action would be:

A. Observed for 2 weeks
B. VZIGadministration
C. Varicella vaccine administration
D. startacyclovirtreatment

A

B. VZIGadministration

83
Q

The following are true about epstein b infection except:

A. Incubation period lasts from 1-2 months
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma is a common
manifestation in adolescence
C. It is commonly associated with infectious mononucleosis
D. The igm viral capsid antigen is the most specific serologic test

A

B. Burkitt’s lymphoma is a common manifestation in adolescence

84
Q

A 3 year old male came into your clinic with fever, poor oral intake and vesicular rash on his hands, face. On PE, the buccal mucosa showed scattered erythematous ulceration on the lips, tongue, soft palate. Of the following statements, which is NOT true about this disease

A. A polio coxsackievirus infection
B. Humans are the only reservoir
C. Can be transmitted transplacentally
D. The causative organism can cause
herpangina

A

A. A polio coxsackievirus infection

85
Q

The following are true about herpes zoster, except:
A. Within 2 days after exposure, you may start acyclovir to those who are immunocompromised
B. Rarely, it appears in those with a history of varicella infection at 2 years old
C. The vesicular lesions are clustered within one to two adjacent dermatomes
D. An early protracted pain persisting for months after the rash has healed occurs

A

D. An early protracted pain persisting for months after the rash has healed occurs

86
Q

The following describes the critical phase of dengue fever infection, except:

A. Fever subsides
B. Increasing hemoconcentration
C. Decreasing serologic test for IgG
D. Decreasing platelet count

A

C. Decreasing serologic test for IgG

87
Q

he following diagnostic tests for Primary Dengue fever infection is sensitive on the 4th day of illness, except:

A. NS-1
B. RT-PCR
C. serologic testing of IgG
D. Serologic testing for IgM

A

C. serologic testing of IgG

88
Q

One of the following characteristic is unique to Chikungunya infection:

A. Muscle pains
B. Jointpain
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Bleeding dyscrasia

A

B. Jointpain

89
Q

A 21 day old neonate presented with fever, poor suck and jaundice. Urinalysis showed leukocyturia of 20 WBC/hpf. Total bilirubin level showed 13mg/dl. What is your most appropriate treatment?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid
C. Gentamicin
D. Cefixime

A

C. Gentamicin

90
Q

A 4 year old male came in with fever and generalized diffuse, erythematous, tender skin lesions with areas of blisters and erosions. Some areas of epidermis separate upon a gentle shear force. Periorificial scaling is also seen. Your most likely diagnosis:

A. Ritter Disease
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Mucocutaneous lymphnòde syndrome
D. Streptococcal scalded syndrome

A

A. Ritter Disease

91
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. Bilateral, purulent conjunctivitis
b. Strawberry tongue with fissured lips
c. Maculopapular, erythematous rash
d. Unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy

A

a. Bilateral, purulent conjunctivitis

92
Q

Herpes Simplex Type 1 would manifest as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Stomatitis
b. Keratitis
c. Encephalitis
d. Genital herpes

A

d. Genital herpes

93
Q

A 16-month old infant present with high fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis; after 3 days, a macular rash begins on the head and spreads over most of the body. On examination, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly and temperature 40 C. CBC reveals WBC count 3000/mm. The severity of this illness is MOST likely related to the extent of:

a. Rash
b. Fever
c. Leukopenia
d. Splenomegaly

A

????

94
Q

The most common cause of Classic FUO is:

a. HIV
b. Cancer
c. Drug fever
d. Post-op complication

A

b. Cancer

95
Q

An 8-month old infant have remittent fever for the last 3 days with nasal congestion and mild cough and developed maculopapular rash after the lysis of fever. Of the following, your most likely diagnosis is:

a. Rubeola
b. Roseola
c. Rubella
d. Scarlet fever

A

b. Roseola

96
Q

One of the following is TRUE about Rubeola infection EXCEPT:

a. Patient presents with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
b.Pathognomonic for this infection would be the cervical lymphadenopathies
c. Rash appears 2-4 days prodrome and 24 days after exposure
d. Rash fades in order of appearance and follows a cephalocaudal pattern

A

???

97
Q

A 3-year old male who has chronic renal failure was exposed to his sister who developed measles 2 days ago. Of the following, the MOST appropriate action is to:

a. Isolate the patient
b. Measles vaccine within 72 hours
c. Immunoglobulin with 72 hours?
d. Observe and reassure
RUBEOLA (MEASLES)

A

c. Immunoglobulin with 72 hours?

98
Q

A 5-year old presents with low grade fever, pharyngitits and mild conjunctivitis. After about one week, he developed facial rash with circumoral pallor, followed by a pruritic reticulated rash over the body that waxes and wanes (recur with exercise and bathing). The most likely cause would be:

a. Coxsackie virus
b. Parvovirus B19
c. Ebstein Barr virus
d. Herpesvirus type 6

A

b. Parvovirus B19

99
Q

An 8-year old male presents with fever, malaise, anorexia, and rash which appear as small red papules and vesicles on an erythamatous base, which ulcerate and crusted mainly on trunk, head, and face. The most common central nervous system complication is:

a. Optic neuritis
b. Encephalitis
c. Cerebellar ataxia
d. Meningitis

A

b. Encephalitis

100
Q

Shingles is a reactivation of a latent infection. This infection is?

a. Herpes-Zoster virus
b. Varicella Zoster infection
c. Herpes Simplex 1
d. Herpes Simplex 2

A

b. Varicella Zoster infection

101
Q

This is TRUE about pyoderma except

a. Majority of the lesions are bullous
b. .
c. Treatment of choice include Cephalosporin and
macrolides d. ……

A

a. Majority of the lesions are bullous

102
Q

The following are TRUE of Enterococcus Faecalis, EXCEPT:

a. Hospital acquired infection
b. Resistant to antibiotic
c. Normal GIT inhabitant
d. Usually responds to B-lactamase inhibitors

A

d. Usually responds to B-lactamase inhibitors

103
Q

The difference between Diphtheria and exudative pharyngitis is:

a. Pseudomembrane
b. Lack of fever
c. A&B
d. B only

A

c. A&B

104
Q

A 2 yo female came with high grade fever, cough and increase in sleeping hours. You probable causative agent for this case would be?

a. Bordetella pertussis
b. H. Influenzae
c. Streptococcus Agalactiae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

b. H. Influenzae
???

105
Q

Common sites susceptible to Streptococcus pneumoniae infection include EXCEPT

a. Ears
b. Lungs
c. Skin
d. Paranasal sinuses

A

c. Skin

106
Q

A 3-month old infant developed rhinorrhea and mild fever. On the 7th day, he developed a cough at night. Post tussive vomiting was noted. There was a history of incomplete immunization. The most likely causative agent is:

Bordetella pertussis
RSV
Streptococcus pneumoniae
H. influenzae

A

Bordetella pertussis

107
Q
A
108
Q

A 10 year old developed high grade fever, coryza and sore throat. After 2 days, cough was noted. Confirming the diagnosis entails identification of surface Ags: hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. The most likely pathogen is:
a. Rhinovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. Influenza virus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus

A

c. Influenza virus

109
Q

An 18-month old was brought to your clinic for failure to thrive and developmental delay. The patient also has a history of recurrent ear infections, oral thrush and chronic diarrhea. On chest x-ray, cardiomegaly were noted. Your patient most likely belongs to:

a. Symptomatic, category B HIV
b. Symptomatic, category C HIV
c. Acute Retroviral Syndrome
d. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

A

a. Symptomatic, category B HIV

110
Q

The first sign of infection with Respiratory Syncytial Virus is

a. Dry cough
b. Rhinorrhea
c. Low grade fever
d. Watery eyes

A

b. Rhinorrhea

111
Q

Rotaviruses are in the Rioviridae family and cause disease in virtually all mammals and birds. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

a. Infection typically begins after an incubation period of < 48 hour
b. Vomiting and fever typically abate after the 4th day of illness
c. Dehydration may develop and progress rapidly particularly in infants
d. Most severe disease typically occurs among children 4-36 mos of age
e. Fever, vomiting and frequent watery stools are present in about 50-60% of cases

A

b. Vomiting and fever typically abate after the 4th day of illness

112
Q

Poliomyelitis is a fatal infection. The following are true EXCEPT

a. Transmitted oral-fecal
b. Aseptic meningitis is the nonparalytic type
c. Isolation of virus in the blood on the 2nd week of illness is diagnostic
d. Inactivated polio vaccine is NOT effective against viral transmission

A

c. Isolation of virus in the blood on the 2nd week of illness is diagnostic

113
Q

he following are typical manifestations of the Acute Neurologic Phase, Furious type in Rabies infection EXCEPT:

a. Combative
b. Hydrophilic
c. Focal paralysis
d. Hypersalivatio

A

b. Hydrophilic

114
Q

Japanese B encephalitis manifests with the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT

a. Fever
b. Tremors
c. Focal paralysis
d. Cogwheel rigidity

A

c. Focal paralysis

115
Q

All of the following matching are true EXCEPT

a. Shigella dysenteriae–febrile seizures
b. Enterohemorrhagic–traveller’s diarrhea
c. Clostridium difficile–antibiotic-associated diarrhea
d. Salmonella typhi–”rose-spots” skin lesions
e. Vibrio cholera–”rice water stools”

A

b. Enterohemorrhagic–traveller’s diarrhea

116
Q

Typhoid fever is one of the common bacterial infections caused by Salmonella typhi. The following statements are true EXCEPT:
a. High grade fever is a major sign
b. Decreased CBC is often a common finding
c. Watery stools often manifest on the 1st week of illness
d. Isolation of virus in the blood during 1st week of illness is diagnostic

A

c. Watery stools often manifest on the 1st week of illness

117
Q

When a patient will present with fever, watery stools, abdominal cramps and pain on the rectal area, the particular pathogen will be

a. Enteroinvasive
b. Enteropathogenic
c. Enterotoxigenic
d. Enteroaggregative

A

a. Enteroinvasive

118
Q

A 5 year old presented with punctured wound on the right foot by a common nail bought his father that day. Mother immediately clean the wound with soap and water. Mother claimed complete primary immunizations. Your next step would be?

A. IV antibiotics
B. Give tetanus immunoglobulin
C. Give tetanus toxoid like Td or Tdap
D. Observe and advice mother to continue wound dressing

A

D. Observe and advice mother to continue wound dressing

119
Q

A 5 year old waded on flood water with incidence. There’s an increase incidence of leptospirosis in the area. You are most likely to give the ff. prophylaxis

A. Penicillin IV
B. Rifampicin
C. Doxycycline
D. Oral amoxicillin

A

D. Oral amoxicillin

120
Q

If the patient is a 12-year old who waded on flood water with intact skin. What is your prophylaxis?

A. Amoxicillin 500mg as single dose
B. Doxycycline 200mg as single dose
C. Azithromycin 500 mg as single dose’
D. Doxycycline 200 mg once a day for 3-5 days

A

B. Doxycycline 200mg as single dose

121
Q

A newborn presented with whitish, macular lesions in the buccal mucosa. He received Amoxicillin drops for UTI prior. He is on dropper feeding but with poor suck. The most likely etiologic agent would be

A. Candida albicans
B. Corynebacterium
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

A. Candida albicans

122
Q

A 6 year old complained of intense pruritis at night. On PE, you noticed small reddish papules with scratch marks mostly on groin, buttocks and lower extremity. There was no fever. Your most likely diagnosis is

A. Impetigo
B. Pyoderma
C. Scabies
D. Tinea versicolor
E. Candida albicans

A

C. Scabies

123
Q

Mumps virus is in the family Paramoxyviridae and the genus Rubulavirus. Mumps is characterized by

A. Incubation period ranges from 7-11 days
B. Unilateral parotitis rarely becomes bilateral
C. Pale opening of the stensen duct
D. Parotid swelling peaks in approximately 3 days

A

D. Parotid swelling peaks in approximately 3 days

124
Q

**

Low risk Human papilloma virus type include

A. 6,11
B. 16, 18
C. 31, 35
D. 11, 16

A

A. 6,11

125
Q

Viral diagnosis for Human papillomavirus infection include the ff. EXCEPT

A. Cell culture
B. Biopsy
C. Pap smear
D. RT-PCR

A

A. Cell culture

126
Q

his is the major cause of bronchiolitis in children

A. Influenza
B. Rhinovirus
C. Coronavirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus

A

D. Respiratory syncytial virus

127
Q

Treatment for influenza infection include the ff except:

A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Oseltamivir
D. Hydration

A

B. Aspirin

128
Q

Common complications of influenza include the ff except:

A. Otitis media
B. Pneumonia
C. Myocarditis
D. Sinusitis

A

D. Sinusitis

129
Q

A 4 year old presented with fever, watery stools, and one episode of seizure. Stool examination is foul smelling and positive for mucus, blood and leukocyte. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Shigellosis
B. Amoebic colitis
C. Enterotoxigenic e. Coli infxn
D. Enterohemorrhagic e. Coli infxn

A

A. Shigellosis
**

130
Q

In general, this is the most common complication of mumps infection

A. Orchitis
B. Meningitis
C. Nephritis
D. Pancreatitis

A

B. Meningitis

131
Q

The usual watery type of diarrhea associated with fever , abdl cramps and rectal pain is common in which type of E.coli infxn?

A. Enteroinvasive
B. Enterotoxicogenic
C. Enteroaggregative
D. Enteropathogenic

A

A. Enteroinvasive

132
Q

A 4 year old has watery stools. Stool examination is foul smelling and positive for mucus, blood and leukocyte. You managed the patient as amoebiasis. The ff are true except:

A. Abdominal pain is colicky
B. Fever is common at this age group
C. Some are asymptomatic cyst passers
D. Usual affected population are between 1-5 yrs of age

A

B. Fever is common at this age group

133
Q

The most common etiology of joint and bone infection in children is:

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

134
Q

Shiga toxin producing E.coli is associated with this type of diarrhea

A. Enteroinvasive
B. Enterotoxigenic
C. Enteroaggregative
D. Enteropathogenic
E. Enterohemorrhagic

A

E. Enterohemorrhagic

135
Q

The only vaccine preventable disease that is infectious but not contagious. The likely organism is

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Bordetella pertussis

A

A. Clostridium tetani

136
Q

bonus

A
137
Q

For ciprofloxacin resistant shigellosis, the following are treatment of choice except:
A. Cefixime
B. Doxycycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Cotrimoxazole

A

B. Doxycycline

138
Q
A
139
Q

The following are TRUE of Human Papillomavirus infection, EXCEPT:
a. Sexually transmitted disease
b. Early age of sexual intercourse is a risk factor
c. Direct contact with genital skin is a risk factor
d. HPV types 16, 18 are the common types for early stage

A

d. HPV types 16, 18 are the common types for early stage

140
Q

Prodrome phase in Rabies infection presents with the following, EXCEPT:

a. Difficulty swallowing
b. Myoclonic jerks
c. Focal paralysis
d. Restlessness?
e. Paresthesias

A

c. Focal paralysis

141
Q

In Rabies postexposure prophylaxis, nibbling of uncovered skin, minor scratches or abrasions without bleeding is best managed by:
a. Administration of vaccine
b. Local treatment of the wound
c. Administration of immunoglobulins
d. A&B only
e. A,B&C

A

d. A&B only

142
Q

One of the following differentiates the SARS-CoV from MERS-CoV:
a. Fever
b. Headache
c. Runny nose
d. Non productive cough
e. Body malaise

A

b. Headache

143
Q

Catheter-related infections is usually caused by this organism.

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Enterococcus faecalis

A

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis

144
Q

MATCHING TYPE

a. Rhinovirus infection
b. Influenza infection

Gradual symptom onset

A

a. Rhinovirus infection

145
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Sore throat is common

a. Rhinovirus infection
b. Influenza infection

A

a. Rhinovirus infection

146
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Chest discomfort is common

a. Rhinovirus infection
b. Influenza infection

A

b. Influenza infection

147
Q

MATCHING TYPE

Headache is common

a. Rhinovirus infection
b. Influenza infection

A

b. Influenza infection

148
Q

MATCHING TYPE

a. Rhinovirus infection
b. Influenza infection

Fever is rare

A

a. Rhinovirus infection

PEDIA 2 BM1 QUIZZES + BM2 (5 decks)

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