Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

patho final > blue book questions > Flashcards

blue book questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which are the principle parts of a eukaryotic cell?

A

organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The cell membrane is described as a fluid mosaic. Some proteins have a degree of mobility within the lipid bilayer

A

The first sentence is true
The second sentence is true
The second sentence is relevant to the first


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which particle can penetrate cell membranes most easily

A

Lipid soluble, transport protein present


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For a cell to engage in active transport process, it requires

A

All the above (mitochondria, fuel, ATP, Enzymes)


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is inconsistent with the other?

a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. filtration
d. phagocytosis
e. facilitated transport

A

d. phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which can transport substance uphill against the concentration gradient?

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

carveolae

a. serve as repositories for some receptors
b. provide a route for transport into the cell
c. relay signals into cells
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which statement is true for cytoplasm?

a. it is located outside the nucleus
b. it provides support for organelles
c. it is mostly water
d. a, b, and c

A

d. a, b, and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein:

a. is a break on the progress of the cell cycle
b. binds to gene regulatory proteins
c. slows cell proliferation
d. a and c
e. a, b, and c

A

e.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a major function of connective tissue is

A

support and binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which are characteristic of epithelial tissue

A

protection and secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signaling molecules cause all of the following except:

A

conversion of an intracellular signal into an extracellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ligands that bind with membrane receptors include which of the following? (may be more than 1)

a. hormones
b. antigens
c. neurotransmitters
d. drugs
e. infectious agents

A

b. antigens

e. infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The products from the metabolism of glucose include which of the following

A

Kilocalories, CO2, H2O, ATP


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify the correct sequence of events for initiation and conduction of a nerve impulse

A

Sodium permeability changes, sodium moves inside, potassium permeability changes, potassium leaves cell, resting potential is reestablished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Increased cytoplasmic calcium

A

Decreases permeability at the junctional complex


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cell junctions

a. coordinate activités of cell within tissues
b. are an impermeable part of the plasma
c. hold cells together
d. both a and c
e. both b and c

A

D

Coordinate activities of cells within in tissues and hold cells together



How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which genetic disease is caused by abnormal karyotype

A

Down syndrome


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is not characteristics of Down syndrome

A

It is a genetic error of metabolism


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome in an abnormality of

A

deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An individual’s karyotype lacks a homologous X chromosome and has only a single X chromosome presents. Which statement is not true

A

The karyotype is 46,XY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, the disorder is:

A

nondisjunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cystic fibrosis has been mapped to chromosome

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in autosomal dominant inherited disorders

A

affected persons mating with normal persons have a 50% risk of have an affected offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Identify the characteristics of X-linked recessive inherited disorders

A

Affected males have normal sons
Affected males have affect daughters
Sons of female carriers have a 50% risk of being affected


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which is/are not autosomal dominant disease

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When environmental influences cause varied phenotypic expressions of genotypes, the result is

A

A multifactorial trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which likely is not multifactorial inherited disorder

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A cellular adaptation observable in uterine cervical epithelium is:

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the consequences when a cell is forced into anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Increased lactic acid

Inadequate ATP production


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the probable cause of cellular swelling in the early stages of cell injury

A

Na+ - K pump fails to remove intracellular Na+


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dystrophic calcification

A

Occurs in dying or dead tissues

Is observed in chronic lesion


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cellular swelling is:

a. irreversible
b. evident early in all types of cellular injury
c. manifested by decreased intracellular sodium
d. none of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which is not reversible

A

Karyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Aging:

A

Is caused by declining stem cell numbers


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In aging, cross-linking implies

A

cell permeability decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aquaporins is/are:

A

Water channel proteins that provide cell membrane permeability to water


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Of the 60% of the body weight made up of water, about 2/3 is

A

intracellular water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sodium is responsible for

A

Osmotic equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A milliequivalent is a unit of

A

Chemical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which statement is true?

a. the number of ions and anions in the body must be equal
b. intravascular molecules of protein are without charge
c. the sodium ions must be united with chloride ions
d. the positive and negative charges in blood plasma must be equal to each other

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Aldosterone controls ECF volume by

A

sodium reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The release of ADH is not stimulated by

A

hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Laboratory studies of an adult reveal the following: 


Plasma sodium = 110mEq/L

Plasma chloride = 85mEq/L

Plasma potassium = 4.8mEq/L

Plasma calcium = 5.2mEq/L

Plasma bicarbonate = 26mEq/L


The most likely alteration is :
A

hyponatremia and calcium deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
An individual suffers from weakness, dizziness, irritability, and intestinal cramps.  Laboratory studies reveal the following:


Plasma sodium = 138mEq/L

Blood pH= 7.38

Plasma potassium = 6.8mEq/L

Plasma bicarbonate = 25mEq/L


An EKG with tall, peaked T wave


The individual is suffering from:
A

hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An acid is

A

A substance/chemical that donates a hydrogen ion or a proton to the solution


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Strong acids:

A

Include phosphoric acid
Contribute many H+ to the solution
Are eliminated by the renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The pH of saliva is about 7 and the pH of gastric juice is about 2. How many times more concentrated is the hydrogen ion in gastric juice than in saliva

A

100,00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The blood pH is maintained near 7.4 by buffering systems. The sequence from the fastest-acting to the slowest-acting system is

A

blood buffers, lungs, kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which would not shift the blood pH toward alkalosis

A

Bicarbonate ion secretion into urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
A young female became agitated and apprehensive, and the eventually lost consciousness.  At the hospital emergency room, the following laboratory values were obtained
:
Plasma sodium = 137mEq/L

Plasma potassium = 5.0mEq/L

Blood pH = 7.53

Serum CO2 = 22mmHg

Plasma bicarbonate = 24mEq/L
re
Her immediate diagnosis is:
A

respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

As HCO-3 shifts from the red blood cell to the blood plasma, it is expected that the plasma

A

Cl- shifts into the red blood cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

An elevated anion gap is associated with an accumulation of

A

lactate anion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Innate resistance or immunity:

A

Depends on physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Collectins:

A

Protect against respiratory infection


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Complement is:

A

A series of proteins in the blood


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Diapedesis is a process in which:

A

Neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to an injured tissue site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

interferon:

A

Prevents viruses from infecting healthy host cells


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The sequence of inflammatory events within the vasculature is:

A

Arteriolar vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased capillary 
permeability, plasma leakage, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The inflammatory response

A

Minimizes injury and promotes healing


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The alternative complement pathway is activated by

A

Gram-negative bacterial and fungal cell wall polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The activation of Hageman factor affects all three

A

Activation of kinin system by a fragment of Hageman factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The sequence of phagocytosis

A

Margination, diapedesis, recognition, adherence, ingestion, fusion with lysosomes inside the phagocyte, destruction of the target


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Swelling during acute inflammation is caused by

A

Fluid exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Recognition of abnormal environmental components so cells can respond to these substances is by binding to cell surface receptors. Cells involved in the innate resistance have

A

Pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mast cell degranulation release

A

Histamine, IL-4, and eosinophil chemotactic


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Interleukin 6

A

Stimulates growth of blood cells and fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tumor necrosis factor

A

Causes tumor cytotoxicity


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Characteristic systemic manifestations of acute inflammation include

A

Fever caused by the release of IL-1 by neutrophils and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterized by

A

Lymphocytic and macrophagic infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Scar tissue is

A

Nonfunctional collagenous and fibrotic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Neutrophils are

A

the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Macrophages in comparison with neutrophils and basophils,

A

function for a longer time and later in the inflammatory response and are involved in the activation of the adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Eosinophils

A

serve as primary defenders against parasites and help regulate vascular mediators released from mast cells by preventing more inflammatory activity than is needed


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Natural killer cells r

A

ecognize and eliminate virus-infected cells and cancerous cells


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Granulation tissue is

A

filled with new capillaries and is surrounded by fibroblasts and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Immunogenicity depends on

A

Host foreignness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following are capable of forming clones

A

Both T and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which cells are stimulated by IL-2

A

T cells and NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which cells bind with MHC class I molecules

A

Cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

HLAs

A

Are not found on the surfaces of erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

CD4 markers are associated with

A

Helper T cells


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Antibodies are produced by

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

An immunoglobulin contains

A

Two heavy and two light polypeptide chains


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The antibody class that has the highest concentration in the blood

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following antibodies is matched with its appropriate role

A

IgM/first to challenge the antigen


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The primary immune response involves

A

A latent period followed by peak antibody production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The B cell receptor complex consists of

A

Antigen-recognition molecules


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cytokines and their receptors functions

A

As chemical signals between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Clonal selection

A

Occurs primarily after birth and through life


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Immunologic tolerance develops because

A

Self-reactive lymphocytes are eliminated in the primary lymphoid organs


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Antigenic destruction/removal by humoral immunity requires

A

Phagocytosis


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

Inhibit virus-infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Antibody is effective against

Extracellular viruses

A

Extracellular viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Adhesion molecule pairings involve

A

Cytotoxic T cell CD8 MHC class I on APC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Transforming growth factor (TGF) functions to

A

Stimulate wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Helper T Cells

A

are necessary to include both humoral and cellular immune responses


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Regulatory T cells

A

function to avoid attacking self-antigens or to avoid overactivation of immune response 


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Super antigens

A

cause activation of large populations of T lymphocytes irrespective of antigen specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The Secretory Immune System

A

consists of antibodies in bodily secretions that protect the body against antigens yet to penetrate the skin or mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Immunologic responses recognized as disease are

A

Immediate hypersensitivities

Delayed hypersensitivities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which is not characteristic of hypersensitivity

A

Prior contact unnecessary to elicit a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called

A

An autoimmune disease


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which hypersensitivity is cause by poison Ivy

A

Type IV


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The mechanism of hypersensitivity for drugs is

A

Type I, II, III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which is not an autoimmune disease

A

Transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Damage in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

The humoral immune system and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The classical complement cascade begins with

A

Antigen/antibody complexes binding to a component of the complement system


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which of the following is/are an alloimmune disorder

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Immunodeficienceies occur because of impaired function of

A

B and T cells
Phagocytic cells
Complement


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

An X-linked recessive disorder of immune deficiency involves a deficit of

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Deficiencies in B cell immune response are suspected when unusual or recurrent severe infections are caused by

A

encapsulated bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by


A

Congenital lack of thymic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Secondary or acquired immunodeficiencies

A

Develop after birth
May be caused by viral infections
May develop following immunosuppressive therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rejection of a kidney transplant occurred after 2 weeks. The reaction occurred because of:

A

Immune response against donor HLA antigens

Type IV hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

SCID exhibits

A

B and T cell deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A positive HIV antibody test signifies that the

A

Individual is infected with HIV and likely so for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which is incorrect regarding AIDS




A

The patient will have increased numbers of CD4+ cells or helper Tcells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which characterizes cancer cells

A

Poorly differentiated
Metastasis
Infiltrative growth mode
Poor cellular cohesiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Tumor cell markers

A

Can monitor the course of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Telomeres

A

Block unlimited cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Metastasis is

A

The ability to establish a secondary neoplasm at a new site


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Carcinoma in situ is

A

Pre-invasive

A glandular or epithelial lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Known routes of metastasis include

A

Continuous extension
Lymphatic spread
Continuous extensions
Bloodstream dissemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Tumor suppressor genes are

A

Genes that produce proteins that inhibit cellular division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In the current theory of carcinogenesis

A

Several mutagenic hits are required

Sequential genetic changes occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Which is not involved in metastasis

A

Interference


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Loss of E-cadherin

A

Causes cells to detach from their extracellular attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The p53 gene

A

Enables cells to cope with DNA damage
Blocks the proliferation of cells that have suffered carcinogenic mutations
Mutations are the most common genetic lesions in the human race
Mutations disable an emergency brake on cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Local invasive factors include all except

A

Increased cellular adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The sequence of carcinogenesis is

A

Several mutagenic hits the DNA, reactivation of telomerase, and development of immortal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Adjuvant chemotherapy

A

Follows surgery to eliminate micrometastasis


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Neoplasia

A

Abnormal, proliferating cells possessing a higher degree of autonomy than normal cells


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Anaplasia

A

Lack of cellular differentiation or specialization, primitive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Autonomy

A

Cancer cells’ independence from normal cellular controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Preventing exposure to ______ can prevent many cancers

A

carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The expression of _____ is linked to carcinogenesis because they can act as either oncogenes or tumor-suppressor genes


A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Developmental plasticity

A

is the ability to develop in a particular way depending on the environment


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Xenobiotics

A

include toxic, mutagenic and carcinogenic chemicals


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

One function of the somatic nervous system that is not performed by the autonomic nervous system is conduction of impulses

A

To skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

A neuron with a single dendrite at one end of the cell body and a single axon at the other end of the cell body would be classified as

A

bipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Neurons that carry impulses away from the CNS are called

A

Efferent neurons


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Neurons are specialized for the conduction of impulses, whereas neuroglia

A

Support nerve tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

There is one-way conduction at a synapse because

A

Only the presynaptic neuron contains neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which contains the thalamus and hypothalamus

A

Diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The reticular activating system

A

Maintains wakefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which phases best describe the spinal cord

A

Conducts motor impulses from the brain

Conducts sensory impulses to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Which is not a protective covering of the CNS

A

Cauda equine


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The composition of cerebrospinal fluid is

A

A plasma-like liquid with glucose, salts, and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

An autonomic ganglion can be described as

A

The site of synapses between visceral efferent neurons


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A

Mobilizes energy in times of need

Is innervated by cell bodies from T1 through L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A

Conserves and stores energy

Has relatively short postganglionic neurons


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Tasting

A

Facial nerve cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Balance maintenance

A

Vestibulocochlear cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

More extensive use of norepinephrine as a transmitter

More widespread and generalized effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Endorphins

A

Decrease pain sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Referred pain from upper abdominal disease involves

A

T8, L1, and L2


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

In the gate control theory of pain

A

Stimulation of large A fibers – closes the gate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Which is not a neuromodulator of pain

A

Heparin


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Interleukin-1

A

Raises the hypothalamic set point
Is an endogenous pyrogen
Is stimulated by exogenous pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Increased serum levels of epinephrine increased body temperature by

A

Increasing heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

In heatstroke

A

Core temperature increases as the regulatory center fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Which is involved in fever

A

Tumor necrosis factor
Endotoxins
Elevation of the set point in the hypothalamus


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

In hypothermia

A

Acidosis can develop


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Although non-REM sleep and REM sleep are defined by electrical recordings, they are characterized by physiologic events. Which does not occur

A

During non-REM sleep, levels of corticosteroids increase


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Meniere disease

A

Disrupts both vestibular and hearing functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Acute otitis media (AOM)

A

Displays a tympanic membrane progressing from erythema to opaqueness with bulging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Age-related macular degeneration AMD

A

Exhibits retinal detachment and loss of photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Vestibular nystagmus

A

Is the constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball caused by ear distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Sleep apena

A

Is lack of breathing during sleep

Can result from airway obstruction during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Individuals affected by sleep apnea may experience

A

Polycythemia
Cyanosis
Pulmonary hypertension


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Supratentorial processes reduce arousal by

A

Displacement of the brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

An individual shows flexion in upper extremities and extension in lower extremities. This is

A

Decorticate posturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Cerebral death

A

Permits normal internal homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Precipitating causes of seizure include all of the following except

A

Hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Which epileptic seizure is characterized by temporal lobe spikes in the EEG

A

complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Postictal sleeping can be seen in _____ seizures


A

tonic-clonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

Is most prevalent as a late-onset dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Dystonia is

A

Abnormal posture maintained by muscular contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

An individual with increased intracranial pressure from a head injury shows small and reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, and slowed breathing. Which stage of ICP is present

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Infratentorial herniation occurs with

A

Shifting of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

In cerebral vasogenic edema

A

Plasma proteins leak into extracellular spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Which statement is not true regarding increasing intracranial pressure

A

Accumulating CO2 causes vasoconstriction


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Intellectual function is impaired in the dementing process. Which intellectual function is not impaired

A

Anterograde memory
Retrograde memory
Abstraction
Language deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

In blunt head trauma

A

The dura remains intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

In an automobile accident, an individual’s forehead struck the windshield. The coup/countercoup injury would be in the

A

Frontal/occipital region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

In moderate diffuse axonal injury

A

Coma lasts more than 24hrs

Tearing of axons in the cerebral hemisphere occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Most spinal core injuries occur in the

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Injury of the cervical cord may be life threatening because of

A

Diaphragmatic impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia is characterized by all of the following except

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Intervertebral disk herniation

A

In the lumbosacral area causes pain over the gluteal region and into the calf or ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

TIAs are

A

Focal neurologic deficits that develop suddenly, last more than an hour, and clear without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Which is a risk factor for the development of CVAs

A

Polycythemia vera
Hypertension
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperhomocysteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Which most typically characterizes the victims of cerebral embolic stroke

A

Middle-aged individuals with a history of heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Ruptured aneurysms are most likely in which of the following cerebrovascular accidents

A

Hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Which is not a primary intracerebral neoplasm

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

In bacterial meningitis, the CSF has

A

Neutrophilic infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Multiple sclerosis involves

A

Activation of T cells autoreactive to myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Manifestations of subarachnoid hemorrhage include which of the following

A

A stiff neck

Kernig sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Which laboratory values would be expected in an individual with SIADH

A

Serum sodium = 120mEq/L and urine hypoosmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Hypopituitarism in an adult male likely includes all of the following except

A

Dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Excessive secretion of GH in an adult may cause

A

Acromegaly

203
Q

A manifestation shared by both diabetes mellitus and diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus is

A

Polyuria

204
Q

The manifestation of hyperthyroidism include all of the following except

A

Constipation

205
Q

Hypothyroidism crisis is

A

Myxedema coma

206
Q

Graves disease is

A

Hyperthyroidism
Associated with autoimmunity
Manifested by ophthalmopathy 


207
Q

Inadequate levels of THs at birth may cause

A

Mental retardation 


208
Q

Hyperparathyroidism causes

A

Increased osteoclastic activity

209
Q

A manifestation of hypocalcemia is

A

Tetany

210
Q

What is the most common cause of acromegaly

A

Anterior pituitary adenoma

211
Q

If a 19-year old woman were suffering from shortness of breath, weight loss, excessive sweating, exophthalmos, and irritability, which hormone would you expect to find elevated in her serum

A

Thyroxine

212
Q

A 24-year old woman with a history of “juvenileonset” diabetes is found in a stuporous state. She is hypotensive and has cold, clammy skin. What is the likely etiology of her condition

A

Insulin shock

213
Q

A 10-year old boy was brought into the emergency room comatose, suffering from metabolic acidosis with a blood glucose level of 800mg/dL. The most probable disease causing his condition is

A

Type I diabetes mellitus

214
Q

Your neighbor, not previously diagnosed as a diabetic, has gained 80 pounds in the past year and is able to produce some insulin. Her fasting blood glucose value is always elevated. She is being treated with oral insulin-stimulating drugs. Your neighbor is most likely suffering from

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

215
Q

Common symptoms and signs of diabetes mellitus include all of the following except

A

Increased muscle anabolism

216
Q

Which laboratory finding is inconsistent with a diagnosis of absolute insulin deficiency

A

FBS (fasting blood sugar) of 90mg/dL

217
Q

Common complications of diabetes mellitus include all of the following except

A

Retinopathy
Peripheral neuropathy
Nephropathy

218
Q

An individual with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiences hunger, lightheadedness, headaches, confusion and tachycardia while performing cross country running. The likely cause of these manifestations is

A

Hypoglycemia because of running

219
Q

Which is/are expected during hyperinsulinism

A

Excess insulin

Epinephrine

220
Q

Long term corticosteroid therapy may cause which of the following

A

Delayed wound healing
Osteoporosis
Peptic ulcers

221
Q

Which electrolyte alteration occurs in Addison disease

A

Hypoatremia

222
Q

A benign tumor of adrenal glands that causes hypersecretion of aldosterone is

A

Conn disease

223
Q

Hypersecretions of aldosterone causes

A

hypernatremia

224
Q

Hypersecretions of glucocorticoids causes

A

hyperglycemia or osteoporosis

225
Q

Which is not a plasma component

A

Platelets

226
Q

Which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma

A

Albumins


227
Q

Eosinophils can

A

phagocytize
Ingest antigen-antibody complexes
be induced to attach parasites

228
Q

The precursor of granulocytes is the

A

Myeloblast

229
Q

Identify the correct sequence in the differentiation of erythrocytes

A

Proerythroblast, normoblast, reticulocyte

230
Q

A differential count of WBCs includes all of the following except

A

3% reticulocytes

231
Q

The purpose of erythroprotein is to

A

Control erythrocyte production

232
Q

The main regulator of platelet circulating mass is

A

Thrombopoietin

233
Q

About how many times more RBCs than WBCs are there in 1mm3 of blood

A

1000

234
Q

if the total leukocyte count of an individual was 700/mm3, about how may neutrophils would normally be present in 1mm3 of blood

A

4200

235
Q

Which granulocyte function is similar to that of tissue mast cells

A

Basophils

236
Q

Erythropoitetin

A

Is secreted by the kidney

Production is stimulated by tissue hypoxia

237
Q

Which is not an agranulocyte

A

Mast cell

Reticulocyte

238
Q

Which are the most effective phagocytes

A

Neutrophils and monocytes

239
Q

Which vitamins are needed for erythropoiesis

A

C and E

B2 and B12

240
Q

Kupffer’s cells are found in the

A

liver

241
Q

Which test reflects bone marrow activity

A

Reticulocyte count

242
Q

As an individual ages

A

Lymphocytic function decreases

243
Q

Hemostasis involves all of the following except

A

Prostacyclin I

244
Q

When a blood vessel is damaged

A

Subendothelial collagen is exposed
Platelets are attracted to collagen
Platelets degranulate


245
Q

The biochemical mediators released by adhering platelets cause

A

Vasoconstriction of the injured vessel


246
Q

Which is the correct sequence in coagulation

A

Damaged tissue – VII – prothrombin

247
Q

Which is the correct sequence in fibrinolysis

A

Plasmin, FDP

248
Q

Anemia refers to a deficiency of

A

Hemoglobin

Erythrocytes

249
Q

Morphologic classification of anemia is based on all of the following except

A

Cause

250
Q

Hypoxemia causes

A

Arterioles, capillaries, and venules to dilate

The heart to contract more forcefully

251
Q

Which symptoms are consistent with aplastic anemia, but not with pernicious anemia

A

Hemorrhage into the tissues

252
Q

A cause of macrocytic-normochromic anemia is

A

Antibodies against parietal cells

253
Q

An individual with chronic gastritis and tingling in the fingers requires which of the following for treatment

A

Vitamin B12 by intramuscular injection


254
Q

Secondary polycythemia may be caused by

A

Dehydration
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Living in high altitudes


255
Q

The symptoms of polycythemia are essentially caused by

A

Increased blood viscosity

256
Q

Leukocytosis is found in all of the following except

A

Bone marrow depression

257
Q

What is the most notable characteristic of infectious mononucleosis

A

The presence of heterophil antibody is diagnostically helpful


258
Q

Which likely does not play a role in leukemia

A

diet

259
Q

CML is characterized by its

A

Presence of the Philadelphia chromosome

260
Q

Clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma

A

Decreased serum calcium

261
Q

A thrombocytopenia with a platelet count less than 50,000/mm3 likely will cause

A

Hemorrhage from minor trauma

262
Q

Thromboembolic disease can be caused by all of the following except

A

Deficient dietary intake of vitamin K

263
Q

DIC is associated with

A

Endothelial damage
Activation of factor X
Release of TF

264
Q

Organs that respond to a particular hormone are called

A

Target organs

265
Q

A major feature of the “plasma membrane receptor” mechanism of hormonal actions is

A

Action of cyclic AMP

Requirement of a second messenger

266
Q

A major feature of the “activation of genes” mechanism of hormonal action is

A

The hormone enters the cell

267
Q

A hormone having an antidiuretic effect similar to that of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is

A

Oxytocin

268
Q

The hypothalamus controls the adenohypophysis by direct involvement of

A

Regulating hormones

269
Q

Hormones convey regulatory information by

A

Endocrine signaling
Paracrine signaling
Autocrine signaling
Synaptic signaling

270
Q

If calcium levels in the blood are too high, thyrocalcitonin concentrations in the blood should

A

Increase, thereby inhibiting osteoclasts

271
Q

In the negative feedback mechanism controlling thyroid hormone secretion, which is the nonregulatory hormone


A

Thyroxine

272
Q

The control of parathyroid hormone is most accurately described as

A

Negative feedback not involving the pituitary 


273
Q

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system begins to function when renin is secreted by the

A

None of the above is correct (NOT THE adrenal cortex, medulla, pancreas, kidneys)

274
Q

The effects of adrenal medullary hormones and the effects of sympathetic stimulation can be described as

A

Overlapping in most respects

275
Q

Which best describes the respective effects of insulin and glucagon on blood glucose

A

Insulin lower blood glucose; glucagon raises it

276
Q

The releasing hormones produced in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary via the

A

Hypophysial portal system

277
Q

Which anabolic hormone increases muscle protein synthesis

A

Insulin

278
Q

Aldosterone maintains electrolyte balance by

A

None of the above is correct. (NOT the retention of potassium, elimination of sodium, retention of both sodium and potassium)

279
Q

Mineralcorticoid hormones conserve sodium by

A

controlling Na+, H+, K+ levels


280
Q

Glucocorticoid hormones are

A

anti-inflammatory

281
Q

Epinephrine causes

A

fight or flight response

282
Q

Gonadocorticoids act as

A

minor sex hormones

283
Q

Oxygenated blood flows through the

A

Pulmonary veins


284
Q

The hepatic vein carries blood from the

A

Liver to vena cava

285
Q

The position of the heart in the mediastinum is

A

Between the lungs and the superior to the diaphragm

286
Q

The pericardial space is found between the

A

Visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium

287
Q

In the normal cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs?

A

The two atria contract simultaneously, whereas the two ventricles relax
The two ventricles contract simultaneously, whereas the two atria relax


288
Q

The QRS complex of the ECG represents

A

Ventricular depolarization

289
Q

A person having a heart rate of 100 bpm, a systolic blood pressure of 200mmHg, and a stroke volume of 40 mL would have an average cardiac output of

A

None of these

290
Q

During atrial systole, the

A

Atrioventricular valves are open

291
Q

Which does not significantly affect heart rate

A

Atrioventricular valves

292
Q

One cardiac cycle

A

Has a duration that changes if the heart rate changes

Usually requires less than 1 second to complete


293
Q

Compared with arteries, veins

A

Have a larger diameter


294
Q

Normal systolic pressure within the left ventricle is in the range of

A

90 to 140 mmHg

295
Q

Backflow of blood from the arteries into the relaxing ventricles is prevented by the

A

Semilunar valves


296
Q

Adrenomedullin (ADM)

A

Exhibits powerful vasodilatory activity

297
Q

The Frank-Starling law of the heart concerns the relationship between

A

The length of the cardiac muscle fiber and the strength of contraction


298
Q

Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in the cardiac muscle is

A

Arranged in branching networks
Singly nucleated
More accessible to sodium and potassium ions


299
Q

Blood pressure is measured as the

A

Pressure exerted on arteries by the blood

300
Q

Identify the correct sequence of the portions of the pulmonary circulation

A

Right ventricle → pulmonary arteries →lungs → pulmonary veins →left atrium

301
Q

The normal heartbeat is initiated by the

A

SA node

302
Q

If the sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart predominates over parasympathetic nervous system stimulation, the heart will

A

Increase its rate

303
Q

When blood exhibits a turbulent flow

A

Resistance increases

304
Q

Identify the normal sequence of an electrical impulse through the heart’s conduction system

A

SA node  AV node  atrioventricular bundle  right and left bundle branches  purkinje fibers

305
Q

Which factor might increase resistance to the flow of blood through the blood vessels

A

Decreased numbers of capillaries


306
Q

Depolarization of cardiac muscle cells occurs because of

A

The cell’s interior becoming less negatively charged

307
Q

Which of the following statements is true

A

Lymph from the entire body, except for the upper right quadrant, eventually drains into the thoracic duct

308
Q

Events in the development of atherosclerotic plaque include all of the following except

A

Complement activation

309
Q

G.P a 50 year old man, was referred for evaluation of blood pressure. If he has a high diastolic blood pressure, which of the following is G.P’s reading

A

130/95 mmHg

310
Q

The complications of uncontrolled hypertension include all of the following except

A

Anemia

311
Q

Primary hypertension

A

Is essentially idiopathic

312
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is caused by all of the following except

A

Increased blood volume

313
Q

Localized out pouching of a vessel wall or heart chamber is

A

An aneurysm

314
Q

Which is a possible cause of varicose veins

A

Gravitational forces on blood
Long periods of standing
Trauma to the saphenous veins

315
Q

A 76-year old man came to the ER after experiencing chest pain while shoveling snow. Laboratory tests revealed essentially normal blood levels of SGOT, CPK, and LDH enzymes. The chest pain was relieved following rest and nitroglycerin therapy. The most probable diagnosis is

A

Angina pectoris

316
Q

Complications of an infarcted myocardium likely could include

A

Heart failure
Death
Systemic thromboembolism

317
Q

In pericardial effusion

A

Tamponade compresses the right heart before affecting other structure


318
Q

Chamber volume increase is observed in what type of cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated

319
Q

Which statement is true regarding rheumatic heart disease

A

It is caused by hypersensitivity/immunity to streptococci

It usually damages the mitral valve

320
Q

Transmural myocardial infarction

A

Is categorized as STEMI

321
Q

Bacterial infective endocarditis differs from rheumatic heart disease because of which of the following

A

Bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the heart, endocardium and valves
It may occur following dental or bladder catheterization procedures

322
Q

Individuals with only left heart failure would exhibit which of the following

A

Dyspnea

Pulmonary edema

323
Q

In congestive heart failure, the pump or myocardium itself fails because of which of the following

A

Loss of contractile force of the heart
Hypertension
Cardiac dysrhythmias


324
Q

Shock is a complex pathophysiologic process

A

hypertension

325
Q

SIRS begins with an infection that progresses to

A

Bacteremia
Sepsis
Septic shock
MODS


326
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning hypertension

A

Headache is the most reliable symptom

327
Q

A 53-year old man was admitted to the emergency room after experiencing shortness of breath

A

An acute myocardial infarct 


328
Q

Considering the sequence of structure through which air enters the pulmonary system, the pharynx is to the trachea as the

A

Respiratory bronchioles are to the alveolar ducts

329
Q

The cilia of the bronchial wall

A

Propel mucus and trapped bacteria toward the oropharynx

330
Q

As the terminal bronchioles are approached

A

The epithelium become thinner


331
Q

The left bronchus

A

Is more angled than the right

332
Q

The respiratory unit consists of

A

Respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

333
Q

Alveoli are excellent gas exchange units because of

A

Their large surface area
A very thing epithelial layer
Extensive vascularization

334
Q

Surfactant

A

Facilitates alveolar expansion during inspiration

335
Q

During expiration, which relationship is true

A

As the lung volume decreases, the pressure increases


336
Q

When the diaphragm and external intercostal contract

A

The intrathroacic volume increases

337
Q

Oxygen diffusion from the alveolus to the alveolar capillary occurs because

A

The PaO2 is less in the capillary than in the alveolus


338
Q

A shift to the right in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation cure

A

Improves oxygen release and increases oxygen movement into the cells

339
Q

In which sequence does PaO2 progressively decrease

A

Atmospheric air, aortic blood, body tissue

340
Q

Alveoli are well-suited for diffusion of respiratory gases because

A

They contain surfactant, which helps prevent alveolar collapse

341
Q

Which ordinarily brings about the greatest increase in the rate of respiration

A

Excess carbon dioxide

342
Q

The major muscles of inspiration are the

A

Diaphragm

External intercostals

343
Q

Stretch receptors

A

Are sensitive to volume changes in the lung
Are located in airway smooth muscles
Decrease ventilatory rate when stimulated
Prevent lung overinflation when stimulated 


344
Q

Which of the following increases the respiratory rate

A

Increase PaCO2, decreased pH, decreased PaO2

345
Q

The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of neurons

A

Sets the automatic rhythm of respiration

346
Q

High altitudes may produce hypoxia by

A

Decreased oxygen inspiration

347
Q

In ARDS, increased alveolocapillary membrane

A

Platelet-activating factor
Oxygen free radicals
Tumor necrosis factor

348
Q

Type II pneumocyte damage cause

A

Decreased surfactant production

349
Q

Pulmonary edema may be caused by abnormal

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Capillary oncotic pressure
Capillary permeability

350
Q

In bronchial asthma

A

Bronchial muscles contract

351
Q

Asthma is precipitated by which of the following inflammatory mediators

A

Histamine
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes
Neutrophilic infiltration


352
Q

In emphysema

A

None of the above are correct

NOT area for gas exchange, NO prolonged inspirations, NO increase in diaphragm movement, NO involvement of bronchioles 


353
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

Is caused by air pollutants

Exhibits a productive cough

354
Q

Which is inconsistent with pneumonia

A

Involves only interstitial lung tissue

355
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Is caused by an aerobic bacillus
May affect other organs
Antibodies may be detected by a skin test

356
Q

Pulmonary emboli usually

A

Obstruct blood supply to lung parenchyma
Originate from thrombi in the legs
Occlude pulmonary artery branches


357
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A

Occurs when left arterial pressure is elevated

Shows right ventricular hypertrophy on an electrocardiogram

358
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

Occurs in response to long-standing pulmonary hypertension
Is right heart failure
Is manifested by altered tricuspid and pulmonic valve sounds

359
Q

A lung cancer characterized by many anaplastic figures and the production of hormones is most likely

A

Small cell carcinoma

360
Q

The metastasis of lung squamous cell carcinoma is

A

late

361
Q

Which sequence of structures does urine pass through as it leaves the body

A

Minor calyx – major calyx – renal pelvis – ureter – urinary bladder – urethra


362
Q

The functional unit of the human kidney is the

A

Nephron

363
Q

One unique feature of the renal blood circulation is that

A

There are two sets of capillaries

364
Q

Which has the opposite effect on urine production from the others

A

Decreased solutes in blood

365
Q

The glomerular filtration rate is regulated by

A

the autonomic nervous system
the renin-angiotensin system
atrial natriuretic factor

366
Q

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from other capillary networks in the body because they

A

Branch from and drain into arterioles

367
Q

Which is not a function of the kidney

A

Urine storage

368
Q

Antidiuretic hormone causes water to

A

Diffuse into the ascending limb of the vasa recta

Return to the systemic circulation

369
Q

Water reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate initially enters the

A

vasa recta

370
Q

An increase in water permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collection duct is the result of

A

an increase in production of ADH

371
Q

The descending loop of the nephron allows

A

Water reabsorption

372
Q

Which most accurately describe the pressures affecting net glomerular filtration

A

Blood hydrostatic pressure opposes capsular hydrostatic and blood oncotic pressures


373
Q

Tubular secretion of urea is accomplished in the

A

Secretion adds material to the filtrate; reabsorption removes materials from the filtrate

374
Q

The kidneys:

A

Eliminate H+
Eliminate NH4+
Conserve HCO3-

375
Q

If a small person excretes about 1 liter of urine during a 24hr period, estimate the total amount of glomerular filtrate formed

A

100 liters

376
Q

Which should not appear in the glomerular filtrate just after the process of glomerular filtration has accomplished

A

protein

377
Q

The loop of Henle is to vasa recta as convoluted tubules are to

A

Peritubular capillaries

378
Q

The two ‘currents’ used in the countercurrent exchange system are the

A

Ascending and descending limbs

379
Q

The countercurrent exchange system

A

Facilitates osmosis


380
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor

A

Increases urine output

381
Q

A waste product of protein metabolism is

A

Urea

382
Q

Renal function tests include

A

Urinalysis

BUN and serum creatinine

383
Q

Which substance is an abnormal constituent of urine

A

glucose

384
Q

The presence of albumin in the urine would indicate probable damage to

A

Glomeruli

385
Q

Upper urinary tract obstruction

A

Can cause hydroureter

386
Q

Renal calculi may be composed of

A

Calcium oxalate

Uric acid

387
Q

Which can be characteristics of ureteral stones

A

Severe pain in the back
Severe pain in the abdomen
Nausea and vomiting

388
Q

Which are predisposing factors for acute UTIs

A

Congenital deformities or the urinary tract
The sex of the patient
Decrease urine flow

389
Q

A common cause of both pyelonephritis and cystitis is

A

Invading, ascending microorganisms such as E.coli


390
Q

Uremia causes

A

Retention of metabolic acids

391
Q

Pyelonephritis is

A

Characterized by fever, chills, and flank pain
Characterized by pyuria, bacteriuria, and hematuria
More common in young women than in young men

392
Q

Which renal condition usually has a history of recent infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci

A

Glomerulonephritis

393
Q

Which statement is not true concerning glomerulonephritis

A

Approximately 90% of individuals experience chronic disease

394
Q

Causes of acute renal injury include

A

Stones and structures in kidneys or ureters

Heart failure leading to poor renal perfusion

395
Q

Which describes a patient in acute renal injury

A

Elevated serum creatinine

Oliguria

396
Q

Which is not a characteristic of chronic renal injury

A

Anuria

397
Q

Chronic renal injury

A

May result from HTN
Is usually the result of chronic inflammation of the kidney
May be treated with dialysis or transplants


398
Q

An individual has elevated blood concentrations of urea and creatinine because of complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This condition is

A

Postrenal disease

399
Q

Nephrotoxins such as antibiotics, may be responsible for

A

Acute tubular necrosis

400
Q

Uremia, as seen in chronic renal injury, would include

A

Metabolic acidosis
Elevated BUN and creatinine
Cardiovascular disturbances

401
Q

The earliest symptom of chronic renal injury is

A

Polyuria


402
Q

In chronic renal failure, tubulointerstitial disease leads to

A

Sodium wasting

403
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) reaches the anterior pituitary gland and causes the release of which of the following

A

FSH and LH

404
Q

A new menstrual cycle involves a rise in the levels of

A

FSH


405
Q

Progesterone

A

Maintains the thickened endometrium


406
Q

The ovaries produce

A

Ova and estrogen

407
Q

During which days of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium achieve maximum development

A

20 to 24

408
Q

Hormones necessary for the growth and development of female breasts are

A

estrogen and progesterone

409
Q

The structure that releases a mature ovum is the

A

Graafian follicle

410
Q

A major duct of the female reproductive system is the

A

Uterine tube

411
Q

Prostate is to the accessory gland as gonad is to the

A

ovary

412
Q

Cells that produce testosterone are

A

Interstitial endocrinocytes

413
Q

The function of testosterone consists of

A

Development of male gonads
Bone and muscle growth
Influencing sexual behavior
Growth of testes

414
Q

Immediately after the sperm cells leave the ductus epididymis, they enter

A

Ductus deferens 


415
Q

A substance produced in the reproductive system mainly by the bulbourethral gland is

A

mucus

416
Q

Which structure produces a secretion that helps maintain the motility of spermatozoa

A

Prostate

Cowper (bulbourethral) glands


417
Q

Semen is

A

The sperm and secretions of the seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral gland

418
Q

The vulva consists of the

A

Labia majora and labia minora
Clitoris
Vaginal orifice

419
Q

The major difference between female and male hormone production is

A

Hormonal production is relatively constant in the male

420
Q

The primary spermatocyte has

A

46 chromosomes

a diploid number of chromosomes

421
Q

During the follicular/proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Vascularity of breast tissue increases

422
Q

Most of the lymphatic drainage of the female breast occurs through the

A

Axillary nodes

423
Q

What is the likely pathophysiology of PMS

A

An abnormal nervous, immunologic, vascular, and gastrointestinal response to hormone fluctuations of the menstrual cycle likely occurs


424
Q

Acute PID

A

May cause infertility or tubular pregnancy

425
Q

Anovolatory cycles having prolonged estrogen levels and absence of progesterone production are found in

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

426
Q

Depressed T cell function is associated with

A

Endometriosis

427
Q

A 42-year old retired prostitute who became sexually active at age 14 is at risk for development of

A

Cervical carcinoma

428
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome is

A

The most common cause of infertility in the United States
Associated with hyperinsulinemia
Sometimes a precursor of endometrial carcinoma

429
Q

Endometriosis

A

Involves the ectopic endometrium responding to hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle


430
Q

Phimosis is

A

A condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted

Caused by poor hygiene and chronic infection

431
Q

A varicocele is an intrascrotal disorder

A

That occurs because of independent or congenitally absent valves in the spermatic veins


432
Q

Cryptorchidism is

A

Failure of testes to descend into the scrotum

433
Q

The infectious cause of orchitis is

A

Mumps virus

434
Q

In BPH, enlargement of periurethral tissue of the prostate causes

A

Obstruction of the urethra

435
Q

Recurrent UTIs in the male causes

A

Chronic bacterial prostatitis

436
Q

A symptom or sign of late-stage, metastatic prostatic cancer

A

Mental confusion associated with brain metastases

437
Q

Male sexual dysfunction may be caused by

A

Diabetes mellitus

438
Q

The muscularis of the gastrointestinal tract is

A

Composed of circular fibers and longitudinal fibers

439
Q

The digestive functions performed by the saliva and salivary amylase, respectively are

A

Lubrication and carbohydrate digestion

440
Q

The nervous pathway involved in salivary secretion requires stimulation of

A

Receptors in the mouth, sensory impulses, and parasympathetic impulses to the salivary glands

441
Q

Food would pass rapidly from the stomach into the duodenum if it were not for the

A

Pyloric sphincter

442
Q

The secretion of gastric juice

A

Occurs in three phases; cephalic, gastric, and intestinal

443
Q

During nervous control of gastric secretion, the gastric glands secrete before food enters the stomach. This stimulus to the glands comes from

A

Parasympathetic impulses over the vagus nerve


444
Q

Pepsinogen

A

Must be activated by HCl
Is secreted by the chief cells
Is a precursor to pepsin

445
Q

Beginning at the lumen of the tube, the sequence of layers of gastrointestinal tract is

A

Mucosa, submucosa, mascularis, serosa


446
Q

Normally, when chime leaves the stomach

A

The proteins have been partly digested into polypeptides

447
Q

Which layer of the small intestine includes microvilli

A

Mucosa

448
Q

Which is not an example of mechanical digestion

A

Conversion of protein molecules into the amino acids

449
Q

Pancreatic juice is to trypsin as gastric juice is to

A

Pepsin

450
Q

Which part of the small intestine is most distal from pylorus

A

Jejunum

451
Q

The pancreas

A

Is a gland with its duct ultimately opening into the duodenum

452
Q

The chief role played by the pancreas in digestion is to

A

Secrete enzymes, which digest food in the small intestine

453
Q

Among the structural feature of the small intestine are villi, microvilli, and circular folds. Their function is to

A

Increase the surface area for absorption

454
Q

The fate of carbohydrates in the small intestine is

A

Digestion to monosaccharides

455
Q

The absorptive fate of the end products of digestion may be summarized by which of the following

A

Amino acids and monosaccharides are absorbed into blood capillaries; most fatty acids are absorbed into lymph

456
Q

A lobule of the liver contains a centrally located

A

Vein with radiating hepatocytes and sinusoids

457
Q

An obstruction of the common bile duct would cause blockage of the bile coming from

A

Both the liver and the gallbladder

458
Q

The human adult liver does not

A

Produce erythrocytes

459
Q

The chime that enters the large intestine is converted to feces by activity of

A

Bacteria and water reabsorption

460
Q

During vomiting, there is

A

Deep inspiration, airway closure, forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contractions, and esophageal sphincter relaxation

461
Q

IBS

A

Is related to dysregulation of the brain-gut axis

462
Q

Osmotic diarrhea is caused by

A

Lactase deficiency


463
Q

A common manifestation of hiatal hernia is

A

Gastroesophageal reflux

Postprandial substernal pain

464
Q

Intestinal obstruction causes

A

Decreased nutrient absorption

465
Q

Peptic ulcers may be located in the

A

Stomach
Esophagus
Duodenum
Colon

466
Q

Gastric ulcers

A

May lead to malignancy

467
Q

Duodenal ulcers

A

May be complicated by hemorrhage

468
Q

In malabsorption syndrome, flatulence and abdominal distention are likely caused by

A

Undigested lactose fermentation by bacteria

469
Q

The characteristic lesion of Crohn disease is

A

Found in the ileum

Granulomatous

470
Q

Low-residue diets and chronic constipation play a roe in the pathogenesis of

A

Diverticulitis

471
Q

A 14-year old boy has been admitted to the emergency room with acute-onset abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. Abdominal rebound tenderness is intense, and he has a fever and leukocytosis. This individual most likely is suffering from

A

Acute appendicitis

472
Q

Leptin

A

Suppresses hunger/appetite at the hypothalamus

473
Q

Short-term starvation involves

A

Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis


474
Q

The most common manifestation of portal hypertension is

A

Vomiting of blood from esophageal bleeding

475
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy is manifested by

A

Cerebral dysfunction

476
Q

Which would be consistent with a diagnosis of viral hepatitis

A

Elevated aspartate transaminase serum enzymes
decreased serum albumin levels
prolonged coagulation times
increased serum bilirubin levels

477
Q

Which viral hepatitis is not associated with a chronic state or a carrier state

A

Hepatitis A

478
Q

Which type of jaundice is caused by the increased destruction of erythrocytes

A

Hemolytic

479
Q

Which most often causes biliary cirrhosis

A

Biliary obstruction

480
Q

Symptoms of cholelithiasis include all of the following except

A

Decreased serum bilirubin levels


481
Q

In pancreatitis

A

The tissue damage likely results from release of pancreatic enzymes


482
Q

Predisposing factors in the development of colon cancer include all of the following except

A

High fiber diet

483
Q

Which stratum of the epidermis contains dead keratinocytes

A

Corneum

484
Q

The dermis is composed of all of the following except

A

Melanocytes

485
Q

Which does not occur as the skin ages

A

More melanocytes

486
Q

Arteriovenous anastomoses in the dermis

A

Facilitate the regulation of body temperature

487
Q

The cause of atopic dermatitis is

A

Mast cell degranulation, T cell and monocyte interaction

488
Q

The skin lesion of psoriasis is

A

Thick, scaly, erythematous plaque


489
Q

A circular, demarcated, salmon-pink scale within in a plaque is characteristic of

A

Pityriasis rosea

490
Q

Acantholysis is observed in

A

Pemphigus 


491
Q

The cause of impetigo in the adult is

A

Coagulase-positive staphylococci

Beta-hemolytic streptococci

492
Q

The usually manifestation of HSV is a

A

Cold sore or fever blister

493
Q

Of the benign tumors of the skin, keratoacanthomas are characterized by

A

Origination from hair follicles

A proliferative stage that produces a nodule with a central crust

494
Q

Which are most likely to undergo malignant transition

A

Nevi and actinic keratosis

495
Q

The cause of Kaposi sarcoma likely is

A

Immunodeficiency

496
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin in manifested as

A

Elevated, firm lesions

497
Q

An untreated basal cell carcinoma

A

Ulcerates and involves local tissue

498
Q

Which malignant skin lesion metastasizes the earliest

A

Malignant melanoma

499
Q

In which type of burn does skin function continue

A

First-degree

500
Q

A burn that destroys the epidermis and dermis is a

A

Deep partial thickness burn

501
Q

Hypovolemic shock in severely burned individuals is the result of

A

dilation of capillaries

increased capillary permeability

502
Q

An individuals surviving burn shock, increased wound sepsis is caused by

A

Released inflammatory cytokines
Fewer opsonins
Inability of phagocytes to migrate to the site of infection


503
Q

Onychomycosis is

A

Fungal infection of the nail plate

patho final (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions