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bloodbank questions Flashcards

1
Q

An in vitro phenomenon associated with a positive IAT is:
a. maternal antibody coating fetal RBCS
b. patient antibody coating patient RBCs
c. recipient antibody coating transfused donor RBCs
d. identification of alloantibody specificity using a panel of reagent RBCs

A

D.

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2
Q

Polyethylene glycol enhances antigen-antibody reactions by:
a. decreasing zeta potential
b. concentrating antibody by removing water
c. increasing antibody affinity for antigen
d. increasing antibody specificity for antigen

A

B.

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3
Q

Solid-phase antibody screening is based on:
a. adherence
b. agglutination
c. hemolysis
d. precipitation

A

A.

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4
Q

What do Coombs’ control cells consists of?
a. Type A positive cells coated with anti D
b. Type A negative cells coated with anti D
c. Type O positive cells coated with anti D
d. Type O negative cells coated with anti D

A

C.

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5
Q

If you have the authority to decide which primary AHG methodology to utilize at your lab, which method would you choose based on the knowledge that the majority of the staff are generalists?
a. LISS
b. Polybrene
c. Solid phase or gel
d. Enzyme-linked

A

C.

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6
Q

A 27-year old group O mother has just given birth to a beautiful, group A baby girl. Since the mother has IgG anti A in her plasma, it is likely that the baby is experiencing some in vivo red cell destruction. Which of the following methods and tests would be most effective at detecting the anti A on the baby’s RBCs?
a. DAT using common tube technique
b. DAT using gel
c. IAT using common tube technique
d. IAT using gel

A

B.

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7
Q

When RBCs are stored, there is a shift to the left. This means:
a. Hgb oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3 DPG
b. Hgb oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3 DPG
c. Hgb oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3 DPG
d. Hgb oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3 DPG

A

B.

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8
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant preservatives provides a storage time of 35 days at 1C to 6C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?
a. ACD-A
b. CP2D
c. CPD
d. CPDA-1

A

D.

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9
Q

What is the minimum number of platelets require in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation (90% of sample units)
a. 5.5 X 10^11
b. 3 x 10^10
c. 3 x 10^11
d. 5.5 x10^10

A

D.

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10
Q

One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24 hour post transfusion RBC survival of more than:
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 65%
d. 75%

A

D.

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11
Q

What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?
a. 6
b. 5.9
c. 6.8
d. 6.2

A

D.

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12
Q

What is the hemoglobin source for hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers in advanced clinical testing?
a. only bovine hgb
b. only human hgb
c. both bovine and human hgb
d. none of the above

A

C.

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13
Q

Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells?
a. pH decreases
b. 2,3 DPG increases
c. ATP increases
d. plasma K decreases

A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial contamination of platelet products?
a. entry of skin plugs into the collection bag
b. environmental contamination during processing
c. bacteremia in the donor
d. incorrect storage temperature

A

A.

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15
Q

The following phenotypes are written incorrectly except for:
a. Jk^a+
b. Jka+
c. Jk^a(+)
d. Jk (a+)

A

D.

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16
Q

Which of the following characteristics best describes Lewis antibodies?
a. IgM, naturally occurring, cause HDFN
b. IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDFN
c. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, cause hemolytic transfusion reactions
d. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

A

B.

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17
Q

The Le genes codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that transfer a fucose to the N-acetylglucosamine on:
a. Type 1 precursor chain
b. Type 2 precursor chain
c. Types 1 and 2 precursor chain
d. Either type 1 or type 2 in any one individual but not both

A

A.

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18
Q

What substances would be found in the saliva of a group B secretor who also has Lele genes?
a. H, Lea
b. H, B, Lea
c. H, B, Lea, Leb
d. H, B, Leb

A

C.

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19
Q

Transformation to Leb phenotype after birth may be as follows:
a. Le(a-b-) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b+)
b. Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to Le(a-b+) to Le(a+b+)
c. Le(a-b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b-)
d. Le(a+b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to LE(a-b+)

A

A

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20
Q

In what way do the Lewis antigen change during pregnancy?
a. Lea antigen increases only
b. Leb antigen increases only
c. Lea and Leb both increase
d. Lea and Leb both decrease

A

D.

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes Lewis antigens?
a. The antigens are integral membrane glycolipids
b. Lea and Leb are antithetical antigens
c. The Le(a+b-) phenotype is found in secretors
d. None of the above

A

D.

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22
Q

Which of the following genotypes would explain RBCs types as group A Le(a+b-)?
a. A/O Lele HH Sese
b. A/A Lele HH sese
c. A/O LeLe hh SeSe
d. A/A LeLe hh sese

A

B.

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23
Q

Anti-LebH will not react or will react more weakly with which of the following RBCs?
a. Group O Le(b+)
b. Group A2 Le(b+)
c. Group A1 Le(b+)
d. none of the above

A

C. because GroupA1 has lesser H antigens and is LEb+ compared to Group O and Group A2. O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies?
a. Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive
b. Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive
c. Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive
d. Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally antiglobulin reactive

A

A.
Decreased by ENZYMES (Susceptible)
MNS
Duffy
Lutheran

Duffy Loaths MNS

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25
Q

Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal coldd hemoglobinuria?
a. Anti-I
b. Anti-i
c. Anti-P
d. Anti-P1

A

C. Autoanti-P

Anti-I -M. pneumoniae
Anti-i - infectious mononucleosis
Anti-P1 - Echinococcus granulosus tapeworm, Fascioliasis

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26
Q

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?
a. Anti-Fya
b. Anti-k
c. Anti-Jsa
d. Anti-K

A

D.

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27
Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria?
a. P
b. Kell
c. Duffy
d. Kidd

A

C. Fy(a-b-) - seen in blacks, also resistant to P. knowlesi

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28
Q

The null K0 RBC can be artificially prepared by which of the following treatments?
a. Ficin and DTT
b. Ficin and glycine-acid EDTA
c. DTT and glycine-acid EDTA
d. Glycine-acid EDTA and sialidase

A

C.

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29
Q

Which antibody does not fit with others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?
a. Anti-S
b. Anti-P1
c. Anti-Fya
d. Anti-Jkb

A

B.

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30
Q

Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in whites?
a. Fy(a+b+)
b. Fy(a-b+)
c. Fy(a-b-)
d. Fy(a+b-)

A

C.

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31
Q

Antibody detection cells will not routinely detect which antibody specificity?
a. Anti-M
b. Anti-Kpa
c. Anti-Fya
d. Anti-Lub

A

B.

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32
Q

Antibodies to antigens in which of the following blood groups are known for showing dosage?
a. I
b. P
c. Kidd
d. Lutheran

A

C.

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33
Q

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. Anti-s
b. Anti-k
c. Anti-Lua
d. Anti-Jka

A

D. Kidd

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34
Q

Anti-U will not react with which of the following RBCs?
a. M+N+S+s-
b. M+N-S-s-
c. M-N+S-s+
d. M+N-S+s+

A

B.

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35
Q

A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to which antigen?
a. I
b. i
c. P
d. P1

A

A.

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36
Q

Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?
a. P1
b. Jsa
c. Fya
d. Jka

A

C.

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37
Q

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope:
a. Vel
b. JMH
c. Jra
d. Sda

A

D.

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38
Q

Which of the following has been associated with causing sever immediate HTRs?
a. Anti-JMH
b. Anti-Lub
c. Anti-Vel
d. Anti-Sda

A

C.

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39
Q

Which of the following antibodies would more likely be found in a black person?
a. Anti-Cr(a)
b. Anti-At(a)
c. Anti-Hy
d. all of the above

A

D.

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40
Q

Which of the following antigens is not a blood group system?
a. Do(a)
b. Vel
c. JMH
d. Kx

A

B.

41
Q

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity?
a. Anti-JMH
b. Anti-Ch
c. Anti-Kn(a)
d. Anti-Kp(a)

A

B.

42
Q

An antibody reacted with untreated RBCs and DTT-treated RBCs but not with ficin-treated RBCs. Which of the following antibodies could explain this pattern of reactivity?
a. Anti-JMH
b. Anti-Yt(a)
c. Anti-Kp(b)
d. Anti-Ch

A

D.

43
Q

The following are generally considered clinically insignificant because they have not been associated with causing increased destruction of RBCs, HDFN, or HTRs.
a. Anti-Do(a) and anti-Co(a)
b. Anti-Ge3 and anti-Wr(a)
c. Anti-Ch and anti-Kn(a)
d. Anti-Di(b) and anti Yt

A

C.

44
Q

Antibodies are excluded using RBCs that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because:
a. Antibodies may show dosage.
b. multiple antibodies may be present.
c. It results in a P value of 0.05 for proper identification of the antibody.
d. All of the above.

A

A.

45
Q

A request for 8 units of packed RBCs was received for patient LF. The patient has a negative antibody screen, but one of the 8 units was 3+ incompatible at the AHG phase. Which of the following antibodies may be the cause?
a. Anti-K
b. Anti-Le(a)
c. Anti-Kp(a)
d. Anti-Fy(b)

A

C.
Antibodies reacting in AHG Phase:
Anti-K
Anti-Fy(a)
Anti-Jk(a)

So dapat may reaction si Anti-K, HOWEVER, present so Anti-Kp(a) sa choices. Anti-Kp(a) suppresses or masks reaction of other KEll antigens so as if wala anti-K tungod nga ara si Anti-Kp(a). (? - not sure sa explanation hihi)

46
Q

The physician has requested 2 units of RBCs for the patient DB, who has two antibodies, anti-L and anti-Q. The frequency of antigen L is 45%, and the frequency of antigen Q is 70% in the donor population. Approximately how many units will need to be antigen-typed for L and Q to fill the request?
a. 8
b. 12
c. 2
d. 7

A

B.
The number of units requested is divided by the frequency of the antigen-negative of the individual.
anti L and anti Q (kung 2 antibodies ang present)
2/(0.55*0.30) = 12.1 or 12 units

if only anti-L
2/0.55 = 3.6 or 4 units

if only anti-Q
2/0.70 = 2.9 or 3 units

47
Q

Anti-Sd(a) has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize the antibody and allow detection of other antibodies?
a. Saliva
b. Hydatid cyst fluid
c. Urine
d. Human breast milk

A

C.

Neutralization - helpful when multiple antibodies are suspected.
Saliva - Anti-Lewis
Hydatid cyst fluid - Anti-P1
Human breast milk - Anti-I

48
Q

Patient JM appears to have a warm autoantibody. She was transfused 2 weeks ago. What would be the next step performed to identify any alloantibodies that might be in her serum?
a. Acid elution
b. Warm autoadsorption using autologous cells
c. Warm differential adsorption
d. RESt adsorption

A

C.

Adsorption - antibodies are removed by adding target antigen and allow antibody and antigen to bind with each other.
RESt adsorption - contains cold-reacting autoantibodies (H, I and IH-like structures); removes insignificant antibodies that interferes warm-reacting antibodies
Steps in RESt adsorption: incubate at 4C
Autoadsoprtion - using own patient’s RBCs.
Steps: Wash px RBCs, incubate with px serum 4C or 37C. Look for agglutination
Homologous adsorption - When px is so anemic that there are not enough RBCs available to perform adequate number of adsorption or px is recently transfused.
Steps: px is phenotyped and phenotypically matched RBCs are used for adsorption
Differential adsorption: phenotyping a patient is difficult because of recent transfusion and or positive DAT.

49
Q

Which of the following methods may be employed to remove IgG antibodies that are coating a patient’s RBCs?
a. Adsorption
b. Elution
c. Neutralization
d. Titration

A

B.

50
Q

A technologist has decided to test an enzyme-treated panel of RBCs against a patient’s serum. Which of the following antibody pairs could be separated using this technique?
a. Anti-Jk(a) and anti-Jk(b)
b. Anti-S and anti-Fy(a)
c. Anti-D and anti-C
d. Anti-Jk(a) and anti-Fy(a)

A

D.

51
Q

An antibody demonstrates weak reactivity at the AHG phase when using a tube method with no enhancement reagent and monospecific anti-IgG AHG reagent. When repeating the test, which of the following actions may increase the strength of the positive reactions?
a. Adding an enhancement reagent, such as LISS or PEG
b. Decreasing the incubation time from 30 minutes to 10 minutes
c. Employing the prewarm technique
d. Decreasing the incubation temperature to 18C

A

A.

52
Q

Transfusion testing:
a. proves that the donor’s plasma is free of all irregular antibodies
b. detects most irregular antibodies on the donor’s RBCs that are reactive with patient’s serum
c. detects most errors in the ABO groupings
d. ensures complete safety of the transfusion

A

C.

53
Q

Having checked the patient’s prior history after having received the specimen and request, you:
a. do not have to repeat the ABO and Rh if the name and hospital number agree
b. do not have to repeat the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) if the previous IAT was negative
c. have to perform a crossmatch only if one has not been done within the last 2 weeks
d. have to compare the results of your ABO, Rh, and IAT with the previous results.

A

D.

54
Q

What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh0 (D) negative, whole blood
b. O Rh0 (D) positive, whole blood
c. O Rh0 (D) positive, packed cells
d. O Rh0 (D) negative, packed cells

A

D.

55
Q

A patient developed an anti-Jk(a) antibody 5 years ago. The antibody screen is currently negative. To obtain suitable blood for transfusion, which procedures apply?
a. type the patient for the Jk(b) antigen as an added part to the crossmatch procedure
b. crossmatch random donors with the patient’s serum, and releases the compatible units for transfusion to the patient.
c. type the patient and donor units for the Jk(a) antigen, and then crossmatch the Jk(a) negative units with the patient serum.
d. computer-crossmatch Jk(a) negative donor units.

A

C.

56
Q

A 26 year old B Rh0 (D) negative female patient requires a transfusion. No B Rh0 (D) negative units are available. Which should be chosen for transfusion?
a. B Rh0 (D) positive RBCs
b. O Rh0 (D) negative RBCs
c. AB Rh0 (D) negative RBCs
d. A Rh0 (D) negative RBCs

A

B.

57
Q

The purpose of the immediate-spin crossmatch is to:
a. ensure survival of transfused RBCs
b. determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient
c. detect cold-reacting unexpected antibodies
d. meet computer crossmatch requirements

A

B.

58
Q

Which does not represent requirements set forth by the AABB for the performance of a computer crossmatch?
a. computer system must be validated on-site
b. recipient antibody screen must be positive
c. two determinations of the recipient ABO and Rh must be performed
d. computer system must have logic

A

B

59
Q

You have just received a request and a sample for pretransfusion testing. Which is the most appropriate to do first?
a. perform the ABO grouping and Rh typing
b. complete the crossmatch
c. perform the IAT to see if the patient is going to be a problem
d. check the records for prior type and screen results

A

D.

60
Q

Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days following the transfusion?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

A

C.

61
Q

Below are the results of the history obtained from a perspective female blood donor:
age: 16
temp: 99.0 F (37.2C)
hct: 36%
history: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously

How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion?

a. none
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

B.

62
Q

For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:
a. 150 x 10^3/uL (150x10^9/L)
b. 200 x 10^3/uL (200x10^9/L)
c. 250 x 10^3/uL (250x10^9/L)
d. 300 x 10^3/uL (300x10^9/L)

A

A.

63
Q

The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
a. -80 C
b. -20 C
c. -12 C
d. 4 C

A

A.

64
Q

Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

A

A.

65
Q

Cryoprecipitated AHF:
a. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
b. should be stored at 4C prior to administration
c. will not transmit hepatitis B virus
d. is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B

A

A.

66
Q

Which apheresis platelets products should be irradiated?
a. autologous unit collected prior to surgery
b. random stock unit going to a patient with DIC
c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
d. a directed donation given by an unrelated family friend

A

C.

67
Q

Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:
a. granulocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. red cells
d. platelets

A

B. Irradiation requires three conditions to occur:
(1) transfusion or transplantation of immunocompetent T lymphocytes
(2) histocompatibility differences between graft and recipient (major or minor HLA or other histocompatibility antigens)
(3) usually, an immunocompromised patient

transfusion-related GVHD is caused by viable T lymphocytes in cellular blood components.

68
Q

Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?
a. Red blood cells
b. Fresh frozen plasma
c. Red blood cells, frozen
d. Cryoprecipitated AHF

A

B.

69
Q

The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
a. fresh frozen plasma
b. platelets
c. fresh whole blood
d. cryoprecipitated AHF

A

D.

70
Q

A blood component prepared by thawing fresh frozen plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:
a. plasma protein fraction
b. cryoprecipitated AHF
c. factor IX complex
d. FP24

A

B.

71
Q

according to AABB standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets?

a. 5.5x10^10
b. 6.5x10^10
c. 3.0x10^11
d. 5.0x10^11

A

C.

72
Q

Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood?
a. light spin followed by a hard spin
b. light spin followed by 2 hard spins
c. 2 light spins
d. hard spin followed by a light spin

A

A.

73
Q

Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:
a. 1x10^10 platelets
b. 3x10^10 platelets
c. 3x10^11 platelets
d. 5x10^11 platelets

A

C.

74
Q

Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate. What is the best way to prepare this product?
a. crossmatch only CMV-seronegative units
b. irradiate the unit with 1,500 rads
c. wash the units with saline prior to transfusion
d. transfuse through a Log3 leukocyte-removing filter

A

D.

75
Q

In a quality assurance program, cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII?
a. 60
b. 70
c. 80
d. 90

A

C.

76
Q

A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?

a. A
b. B
c. O
d. AB

A

C.

77
Q

In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:

a. anti-c
b. anti-d
c. anti-e
d. anti-E

A

A.

78
Q

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?
a. rr
b. R1R1
c. R2R2
d. R1R2

A

A. dce/dce
anti-f will react with cells that carry c and e on the same Rh polypeptide.

79
Q

A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions:
anti-D: +
anti-C: +
anti-E: +
anti-c: +
anti-e: +
anti-f: -
The most probable genotype of this patient is:
a. R1R2
b. R2r”
c. Rzr
d. RzRz

A

A. DCe/DcE

Non reactivity with anti-f indicates the cells do not have an Rh polypeptide that possesses both c and e, which is necessary to type as f+. R1R2 is the most likely genotype.

80
Q

Anti-N is identified in a patient’s serum. If random crossmatches are performed on 10 donor units, how many would be expected to be compatible?

a. 0
b. 3
c. 7
d. 10

A

B.
The N antigen is lacking in 30% of the Caucasian population.

81
Q

A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father’s most likely Rh phenotype?
a. rr
b. r”r
c. R1r
d. R2r

A

C. R1r
The baby appears to lack c since no HDFN was evident. The mom is most likely R1R1 (DCe/DCe) so had ti pass R1 onto the baby. The father must have passed on an Rh gene that also did not produce c. The father has to be R1r (DCe/dce).

rr: dce/dce
r”r: dcE/dce
R2r: DcE/dce

82
Q

A family has been typed for HLA because 1 of the children needs a stem cell donor. Typing results are listed below:
father: A1,3;B8,35
mother: A2, 23; B12,18
child#1: A1,2; B8,12
child#2: A1,23; B8,18
child#3: A3,23; B18,?
What is the expected B antigen in child #3?

a. A1
b. A2
c. B12
d. B35

A

D. From the first 2 children it can be determined the mom has the haplotypes A2B12 and A23F18. The dad has the haplotypes A1B3 and A3B35. The expected B antigen in child #3 is B35.

83
Q

A patient is group O, Rh-negative with anti-D and anti-K in her serum. What percentage of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient?
a. 0.5
b. 2.0
c. 3.0
d. 6.0

A

D.
Determination of compatibility can be determined by multiplying the percentage of compatibility of each antigen. 46% of the population is group O, 15% are D-, and 91% are K-.
0.460.150.91= 0.06279*100 = 6.279 or 6

84
Q

Relationship testing procedures the following red cell phenotyping results:
father: “B” ; D+C-c+E+e-
mother: “O” ; D+C+E-c-e+
child: “O” ; D+C+E-c+e+
What conclusions may be made?
a. there is no exclusion of paternity
b. paternity may be excluded on the basis of ABO typing
c. paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing
d. paternity may be excluded on the basis of both ABO and Rh typing

A

C.
The child’s genotype does not include E. The alleged father is homozygous for E. If he was the father the child would also have E. The father can be excluded from paternity.

84
Q

A patient is typed with the following results:
Patient’s cells with
anti-A 0
anti-B 0
anti-A,B 2+
Patient’s serum with
A1 red cells 2+
B red cells 4+
Ab screen 0
The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group:

a. “O”; confusion due to faulty group O antiserum
b. “O”; with an anti-A1
c. “Ax”; with an anti-A1
d. “A1”; with an anti-A

A

C.
Ax cells are more strongly reactive with anti-A,B than with anti-A and the plasma frequently has anti-A1 present (resulting to 2+ results with A1 red cells).

84
Q

The observed phenotypes in a particular population are:
Phenotype Number of persons
Jk (a+b-) 122
Jk (a+b+) 194
Jk (a-b-) 84

What is the gene frequency of Jk(a) in this population?
a. 0.31
b. 0.45
c. 0.55
d. 0.60

A

C.
Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p2+2pq+q2
p2 is the homozygous population, Jk(a+b-).
q2 is the heterozygous recessive, Jk (a-b-).
2pq is the heterozygous dominant, Jk (a+b+).
122/400= 0.305 or 30%
84/400= 0.21 or 21%
194/400=0.485 or 49%
para ma dula ang ^2, i,squareroot. so squareroot of 30% is 0.5477225575 or 0.55.

84
Q

In a random population. 16% of the people are Rh-negative (rr). What percentage of the Rh-positive population is heterozygous for r?
a. 36%
b. 48%
c. 57%
d. 66%

A

B. !!!search for answers for this pls!!!
p^2+2pq+q^2=1.0
p+q=1.0
0.16+84

D-D+ ?
D-D- 16%
D+D+ ?

85
Q

The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperature is:
a. anti-Lu(a)
b. anti-Lu(b)
c. anti-Lu(3)
d. anti-Lu(ab)

A

A.
Most examples of anti-Lu(a) agglutinate saline suspended cells. Most examples of anti-Lu(b) are IgG and reacts at 37C. Anti-Lu(3) usually reacts at the AHG phase as does anti-Lu(ab).

86
Q

Which of the following antibodies is neutralized by pooled human plasma?

a. anti-Kn(a)
b. anti-Ch
c. anti-Yk(a)
d. anti-Cs(a)

A

B.

87
Q

HLA antibodies are:
a. naturally occurring
b. induced by multiple transfusions
c. directed against granulocyte antigens only
d. frequently cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

A

B. HLA antibodies are formed in response to pregnancy, transfusion or transplantation and are therefore not naturally occurring . They are associated with febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions and TRALI. They are directed against antigens found on granulocytes and other cells such as platelets.

88
Q

Saliva from which of the following individuals would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le (a-b+) patient?
a. group A, Le (a-,b-)
b. group A, Le (a+b-)
c. group O, Le(a+b-)
d. group O, Le (a-b+)

A

D.
Group O have the most H substance in their saliva. The person must also be a secretor of ABH substances. Due to gene interaction between the secretor gene and Lewis gene, people who are Le(a-b+) assures H in their saliva.

89
Q

Inhibition testing can be used to confirm antibody specificity for which of the following antibodies?
a. anti-Lu(a)
b. anti-M
c. anti-Le(a)
d. anti-Fy(a)

A

C.

90
Q

Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians?
a. D
b. E
c. c
d. e

A

D.
The overall incidence of the e antigen is 98%
c is 80%
D is 85%
E is 30%

e>D>c>C>E>d

91
Q

When the red cells of an individual fail to react with an anti-U, they usually fail to react with:

a. anti-M
b. anti-Le(b)
c. anti-S
d. anti-P1

A

B.

92
Q

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?
a. Kell system antigens
b. Duffy system antigens
c. P antigen
d. I antigen

A

C.

93
Q

In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient’s serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with:
a. group A cells, B cells and O cells, but not his own cells
b. cord cells but not his own or other adult cells
c. all cells of group O cell panel and his own cells
d. only penicillin-treated panel cells, not his own cells

A

C.
Anti-I is commonly found in all individuals, but when it causes hemolysis, the titer may be high and react at all temperatures. Cold agglutinin syndrome is mainly found in lymphoproliferative diseases.

94
Q

Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following?

a. Fy3
b. P
c. I
d. Rh1

A

C.

95
Q

Which of the following is a characteristics of anti-i?
a. often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
b. reacts best at room temperature or 4C
c. reacts best at 37C
d. is usually IgG

A

B.
anti-i is an IgM antibody that reacts with cord cells and i adult cells. It is not associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn since IgM antibodies do not cross the placenta.

96
Q

The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:
a. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test
b. are predominantly IgM
c. often cause allergic transfusion reactions
d. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme treated RBCs.

A

A.
Antibodies in the Kidd blood group system are IgG and react best at the AHG phase. These antibodies are associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and reactivity can be enhanced by testing with enzyme pretreated cells.

Para sa kinabukasan (3 decks)

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