Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 Clinical Pathology > Blood Transfusion > Flashcards

Blood Transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 blood components can be taken from whole blood once it has been donated?

A

1) Red blood cells
2) Platelets
3) Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Whole blood can be processed to give just red cells via what process?

A

Leucodepletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Once whole blood has been processed to give plasma, what 3 things can this form?

A

1) Fresh frozen plasma
2) Cryoprecipitate
3) Undergo fractionation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Once whole blood has been processed to give plasma, it can undergo fractionation to give what 3 components?

A

1) Factor concentrates - FVIII, FIX, prothrombin complex
2) Albumin
3) Immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the usual transfusion time for 1 unit RBC?

A

1.30 to 3 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the time limit for removal from cold storage to end of transfusion?

A

4hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What must be done to the blood if its intended for rapid transfusion?

A

Placed in a blood warmer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The plasma which is removed to leave concentrated red cells is replaced by what?

A

Solution of electrolytes, glucose and adenine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do we transfuse to normalise the Hb in anaemic patients?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 reasons for transfusion RBCs?

A

1) Prevent the symptoms of anaemia
2) Improve quality of life of anaemic patients
3) Prevent ischaemic damage of end organs in anaemic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the cause of symptoms in anaemia?

A

Tissue hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Tranfusion threshold trigger in anaemic patients?

A

The lowest concentration of Hb that is not associated with symptoms of anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The lowest concentration of Hb that is not associated with symptoms of anaemia?

A

1) Increased cardiac output
2) Increased cardiac artery blood flow
3) Increased oxygen extraction
4) Increase of red blood cell 2,3 DPG
5) Increased production of EPO
6) Increased erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 main parameters which affect the adaptation mechanisms to anaemia?

A

1) Whether it is acute or chronic anaemia
2) Underlying conditions which affect the cardiac output, arterial blood flow or O2 saturation of Hb impair the adaptation mechanisms eg. CV disease, resp disease and age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the transfusion threshold (trigger) value for RBC transfusion in anaemic patients with mild symptoms?

A

add

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the transfusion threshold (trigger) value for RBC transfusion in anaemic patients with CV disease?

A

add

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main reason for transfusion of RBCs?

A

To restore oxygen carrying capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the alternatives to RBC infusions?

A

1) Correction of treatable causes of anaemia - eg. iron, B12 and Folate deficiency, EPO treatment for patients with renal disease
2) Correction of coagulopathy - discontinuation of antiplatelet agents, administration of anti-fibrinolytic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sometimes transfusion is used in acute anaemia due to blood loss, according to guidelines, what percentage of blood volume has to be lost for transfusion to be necessary?

A

> 40% transfusion is definitely necessary

30-40% transfusion is probably necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the threshold trigger value for patients on regular transfusions due to myeloid failure syndromes?

A

What is the threshold trigger value for patients on regular transfusions due to myeloid failure syndromes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 3 things should be taken into consideration in patients on regular transfusions for myeloid failure syndromes causing chronic anaemia?

A

1) Co-morbidities that affect cardiac and respiratory function
2) Iron overload
3) Adaptation to anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the aims of transfusion in patients with chronic anaemia due to myeloid failure syndromes?

A

1) Symptomatic relief of anaemia
2) Improvement of quality of life
3) Prevention of ischaemic organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the aim of transfusion in patients with chronic anaemia due to inherited anaemias (thalassaemia)?

A

Suppression of endogenous erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the trigger threshold for transfusion in patients with chronic anaemia due to inherited anaemias (thalassaemias)?

A

90-95 - target is 100-120g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the main thing to take into consideration for transfusion in patients with chronic anaemia due to inherited anaemias?

A

Iron overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At what temperature are platelets stored and what is there shelf life from collection?

A

Stored at room temp - shelf life is 5 days from collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the usual transfusion time for 1 unit of platelets?

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The adult therapeutic dose of platelets is platelets from how many pooled donations?

A

4 pooled donations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For what reason do we transfuse platelets?

A

Treatment of bleeding due to severe thrombocytopenia (low platelets) or platelet dysfunction - thus to prevent bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 2 contraindications for platelet transfusion in thrombocytopenia?

A

1) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis

2) Thrombocytic thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the limiting factor for the shelf life of platelets?

A

Risk of contamination by bacteria from donors arm which grow at the conditions of storage

32
Q

What are the 3 main indications for transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A

1) Coagulopathy with bleeding/surgery
2) Massive haemorrhage
3) Thrombocytic thrombocytopenic purpura

33
Q

In what 2 situations should fresh frozen plasma not be transfused?

A

1) Warfarin reversal

2) replacement of single clotting factor

34
Q

At what temperature is fresh frozen plasma stored, for how long?

A

-30 degrees - for up to 24 months

Thawed immediately before use

35
Q

What is the usual dose of FFP?

A

12-15ml/kg (4-6 units for average adult)

36
Q

In what 4 groups should you make the special requirement of using CMV negative transfusion?

A

1) Children

37
Q

What is the purpose of giving an irradiated transfusion?

A

To prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease in specific T cell immunodeficiency cases

38
Q

In what 5 groups of patients should you give an irradiated transfusion?

A

1) Intrauterine transfusions
2) Congenital immunodeficiencies
3) Hodgkin lymphoma
4) Stem cell/ bone marrow transplants
5) After purine analogue chemo

39
Q

What are the 3 pre-transfusion laboratory tests?

A

1) Group - determination of ABO, Rh(D) group
2) Screen for antibodies against other clinically significant blood group antigens
3) Compatibility testing - cross matching

40
Q

What is the process of the pre-transfusion Ab screen?

A
  • Pts plasma screened for Ab against other clinically significant blood group Ag
  • If negative no further testing is needed
  • If positive then Ab identification is carried out: test the patients plasma against a panel of red cells containing all the clinically significant blood groups using the anti-globulin test
41
Q

What is the process of cross matching pre transfusion?

A

Donor red cells of the correct ABO and Rh group are selected from blood bank

  • Avoid any other groups the patient has Abs against (detected in screen)
  • Crossmatching: patients plasma is mixed with aliquots of donor red cells to see if a reaction (agglutination or haemolysis) occurs
42
Q

What do the results of cross matching suggest?

A

If no reaction: RBC units are compatible and there is no risk of acute haemolysis
Reaction: RBC units incompatible, risk of acute haemolysis

43
Q

What is the difference between acute and delayed transfusion reactions?

A

Acute reactions present 24 hours after transfusion

44
Q

What are the 3 immunological acute transfusion reactions?

A

1) Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility
2) Allergic/ anaphylactic reaction
3) TRALI (Transfusion related acute lung injury)

45
Q

What are the 3 non immunological acute transfusion reactions?

A

1) Bacterial contamination
2) TACO (transfusion associated circulatory overload)
3) Febrile non haemolytic transfusion reaction (febrile = with symptoms of fever)

46
Q

What are the 2 immunological delayed transfusion reaction?

A

1) Transfusion associated graft versus host disease (TA-GvHD)
2) Post transfusion purpura

47
Q

What is the non immunological delayed transfusion reaction?

A

Transfusion transmitted infection - viral/ prion (TTI)

48
Q

What are the 4 diseases which we worry about infection with due to transfusion?

A

1) hep B (1.5 in 1 million)
2) HIV (1 in 6 million)
3) Hep C (1 in 30 million)
4) Prion disease

49
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction due to ABO incompatibility results in the release of free Hb, what 4 consequences does this have?

A

1) Deposition of Hb in the distal renal tubule results in acute renal failure
2) Stimulation of coagulation results in microvascular thrombosis
3) Stimulation of cytokine storm
4) Scavenges NO resulting in generalised vasoconstriction

50
Q

In what percentage of people is an acute haemolytic reaction due to ABO incompatibility fatal?

A

20-30%

51
Q

What is the onset of acute haemolytic reaction due to ABO incompatibility?

A

Severe reactions may occur early in the transfusion - ie within the first 15 mins
Milder reactions may occur later but usually before the end of transfusion

52
Q

What are the 8 signs and symptoms of an acute haemolytic reaction due to ABO incompatibility?

A

1) Fever and chills
2) Back pain
3) Infusion pain
4) Hypotension/ shock
5) Hemoglobinuria
6) increased bleeding (DIC)
7) Chest pain
8) Sense of impending death

53
Q

What is the major cause of acute haemolytic reactions?

A

Always human error - biggest cause is errors of patient identification

54
Q

At which 2 stages can errors of patient identification in terms of transfusion be made?

A

1) Sampling
2) Pre transfusion administration check - ie. check patients details on the compatibility label against the patients wrist band at the bedside

55
Q

In what 3 ways can errors of identification of sampling be avoided?

A

1) Label at the bedside
2) Check details against the patients identification wrist band
3) Do not use addressograph labels

56
Q

What is the onset of a delayed haemolytic reaction?

A

Onset 3-14 days following a transfusion of RBC

57
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of a delayed haemolytic reactions?

A

1) Fatigue
2) Jaundice
3) And or fever

58
Q

What are the 4 lab findings in delayed haemolytic reactions?

A

1) Drop in Hb
2) Increased LDH
3) Increased indirect bilirubin
4) Direct antiglobulin test positive

59
Q

What is a delayed haemolytic reaction due to?

A

Immune IgG Abs against RBC antigens other than ABO - the Ab formed after the transfusion

60
Q

In addition to ABO name the 8 important blood group systems?

A

1) Rhesus
2) Kell
3) Duffy
4) Kidd
5) Lutheran
6) MNS
7) Lewis

61
Q

Name the 2 other names for the Coomb’s test?

A

1) Anti human globulin test

2) Direct anti-globulin test

62
Q

What is the function of the Coomb’s test - a key test in blood transfusion - how does it work?

A

Used to detect IgG antibodies on red cells

1) Red cells are coated with the IgG Ab eg. anti-Rh in Rh positive patients
2) AHG (anti human globulin) added
3) Visible agglutination (as it binds the IgG bound to the RBCs)

63
Q

What is the estimated rate of fatalities related to transfusion related acute lung injury?

A

5-10%

64
Q

What is the pathological process in transfusion related acute lung injury?

A

1) Donor has Ab to recipients leucocytes (anti-HLA, anti-HNA)
2) Activated WBC lodge in pulmonary capillaries
3) Release substances that cause endothelial damage and capillary leak

65
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) tends to be a complication of which kind of transfusion?

A

Of plasma rich components eg. platelets or FPP

66
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of TRALI?

A

Sudden onset of acute lung injury occurring within 6 hours of transfusion

67
Q

What are the 3 features of acute lung injury?

A

1) Hypoxemia
2) New bilateral chest X ray infiltrates
3) No evidence of volume overload

68
Q

What is the treatment for TRALI?

A

Mild forms may respond to supplemental oxygen therapy
Severe forms may require mechanical ventilation and ICU support
There is no role for diuretics or corticosteroids

69
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of TRALI?

A

Lab investigations = donor tested fro HLA and granulocyte Ab and the recipient is tested for expression of neutrophil Ag
Confirmation of diagnosis = donor has Ab against Ag that are expressed on recipients granulocytes

70
Q

After how many hours do people with TRALI usually recover?

A

72-96 hours

71
Q

What are the 7 signs and symptoms of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)?

A

1) Sudden dyspnea
2) Orthopnea
3) Tachychardia
4) Hypertension
5) Hypoxemia
6) Raised BP
7) Elevated jugular venous pulse

72
Q

What are the 5 risk factors for TACO?

A

1) Elderly patients
2) Small children
3) Patients with compromised LV function
4) Increased volume of transfusion
5) Increased rate of transfusion

73
Q

What are the 2 main allergic reactions patients can experience with transfusion?

A

1) Urticarial rash +/- wheeze - hypersensitivity due to a random plasma protein
2) Anaphylaxis - wheeze, tachycardia, hypotension, laryngeal oedema, facial oedema

74
Q

What 2 lab investigations should be undertake when a patient has an allergic reaction to transfusion?

A

1) Quantification of IgA

2) testing for anti-IgA Ab

75
Q

What is a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR?

A

Occurs during or soon after transfusion
Get a fever-rise in temp >1 degree +/- shakes/ rigors
Sometimes get tachychardia
This is unpleasant but not life threatening

76
Q

What are FNHTRs due to?

A

Cytokines or other biologically active molecules that accumulate during the storage of blood components

Year 2 Clinical Pathology (64 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions