Blood Transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

Reasons to transfer blood

A

Bleeding (Mainly)

Failure of production

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2
Q

Features of antigens of blood groups

A

Red cell antigens expressed on cell surface (proteins, sugars, lipids)
Can provoke antibodies

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3
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Something that provokes an immune response

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4
Q

Blood group types

A

Type A
Type B
Type AB
Type O

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5
Q

Antigens of the ABO blood groups

A
ABO - glycosyltransferase
A and B - transferase enzymes
A = N-acetyle-galactosamine
B - galactose 
0 - non functional allele 
SO A AND B ARE CO DOMNANT AND O IS RECESSIVE
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6
Q

Most common blood types

A

A and O

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7
Q

Rarest blood type

A

AB

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8
Q

If you have blood group A, what do you have antibodies against?

A

B

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9
Q

If you have blood group B, what antibodies do you have against?

A

A

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10
Q

If you have blood group O, you have antibodies against……

A

A and B

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11
Q

if you have blood group AB, you have NO antibodies against….

A

A and B

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12
Q

What blood group is a universal donor?

A

Blood Group O

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13
Q

What blood group is a universal recipient?

A

Blood group AB

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14
Q

What does FFP contain and not contain compared to blood?

A

DOES NOT Contain the antigen but contains the antibody

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15
Q

What is RhD?

A

An antigen which is a transmembrane protein, with ion channels and is hydrophobic

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16
Q

How many RhD proteins do people usually have?

A

2

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17
Q

Types of RhD blood group system

A

RhD +ve

RhD -ve

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18
Q

Who can make anti-RhD and why?

A

RhD negative individuals can make anti-D if exposed to RhD+ cells during

  • transfusion
  • pregnancy
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19
Q

What can anti-D cause?

A

Transfusion reactions

haemolytic disease of the newborn

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20
Q

What is tested/looked at in blood donors?

A
Extensive 'behavioural screening'
- sex
- age 
- travel 
- tattoos 
Tested for ABO and Rh Blood groups 
Screened for 
- Hep B/C/E
- HIV
- Syphilis
Variable screened for (if travelled to certain parts of the world)
- HTLV1
- Malaria 
- west nile virus
- zika virus
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21
Q

What do apheresis donors do?

A

Just take off platelets or just FFP etc

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22
Q

Indications for red cell transfusion

A
  1. to correct severe acute anaemia, which might otherwise cause end organ damage
  2. to improve QoL in patient with otherwise uncorrectable anaemia
  3. To prepare a patient for surgery or speed up recovery
  4. to reverse damage caused by a patients own red cells e.g. sickle cell disease
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23
Q

Storage and transfusion of RBCs

A

Stored at 4C (2 - 6 range)

Transfused over 2-4 hours

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24
Q

Storage and transfusion of platelets

A

1 dose platelets (=4 pooled or 1 apheresis donor)
stored at approx. 22C
shelf life 7 days
transfuse over 20-30 mins

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25
Q

Indications for platelet transfusion

A

Massive haemorrhage
Bone marrow failure
Prophylaxis for surgery
Cardiopulmonary bypass (only use if bleeding)

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26
Q

Components of a platelet transfusion

A

Fresh frozen plasma

Cryoprecipitate

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27
Q

Storing of FFP

A

Stored frozen, allowed 30 mins to thaw

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28
Q

Indications for FFP transfusion

A

Massive haemorrhage (1:1 ratio)
DIC with bleeding
Prophylactic

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29
Q

Lab tests for FFP

A

PT and APTT

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30
Q

Storing of cryoprecipitate

A

Stored frozen, allowed 20 mins to thaw

Cooling FFP at 4C slowly to form the precipitate

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31
Q

Lab test of cryoprecipitate

A

Fibrinogen

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32
Q

What does cross match tariff defined by MSBOS mean?

A

You will have this blood ready ahead of time due to the patient

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33
Q

How long are Samples in a blood bank kept for?

A

7 days

only valid for 2 days if recent transfusion

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34
Q

When is Coombs test positive?

A

Clumping together of antihuman immunoglobulin to antibodies due to antibody being bivalent

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35
Q

Causes of Coombs test positive

A
Direct
- autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
- passive anti-D
- haemolytic transfusion reactions
Indirect
 - cross matching
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36
Q

Blood requirements immediately during a massive haemorrhage

A

6 units of red cells
4 units FFP (cryoprecipitate?)
1 unit platelets

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37
Q

Risks of blood transfusion

A

Never events (death/harm due to transfusion of ABO incompatible components)
TACO (too much blood too quickly)
ATR
Fever

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38
Q

What does TACO stand for?

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload

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39
Q

What does ATR stand for?

A

Acute transfusion reaction

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40
Q

What is prion disease caused by?

A

Abnormal prion protein from mad cow disease

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41
Q

How to catch prion disease

A

Transmittable by blood transfusion from earl in disease in sheep
mainly found in older people
another reason not to transfuse blood unless really have to

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42
Q

Adverse reactions of a blood transfusion

A
TACO 
AHTR 
Bacterial infection 
TRALI 
Pyrexia 
urticaria 
dyspnoea 
Shock
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43
Q

What does AHTR stand for?

A

Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

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44
Q

Pathology of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Development of maternal Anti D antibodies (sensitisation)
IgG crosses the placenta
So the mothers RhD negative antibodies go into the placenta and interact with the RH positive blood cells
This causes haemolysis in the foetal circulation

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45
Q

Prevention of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Prophylactic Anti-D

  • sensitising events
  • routine at 28/34
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46
Q

Treatment of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
Careful monitoring 
- antibody titres
- doppler US
- IU transfusion 
Delivery 
Intrauterine transfusion though cannulation of umbilical vein (if cannot deliver baby as too early)
Leucapheresis (bone marrow harvests, donor lymphocyte infusions) 
Bone, milk, heart valves, faecal banks 
gene therapies
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47
Q

Pathology of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A

Transfused anti-leucocyte Abs in donor plasma interact with the patients WBCS
Bilateral pulmonary infiltrate

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48
Q

Treatment of TRALI

A

Supportive

Ventilation

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49
Q

What does PTP stand for?

A

Post transfusion purpura

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50
Q

When does PTP occur?

A

RARE 7-10

days after transfusion of blood or platelets

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51
Q

Pathology of PTP

A

HPA 1 negative patients form antibodies after transfusion or pregnancy
after further transfusion destruction of own platelets

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52
Q

Pathology of transfusion associated graft vs host disease

A

Rare but always fatal
Graft of lymphocytes in donors blood
- transfused to an immunocompromised host
- homozygosity of donors HLA type

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53
Q

How can transfusion associated graft vs host disease be prevented?

A

Irradiation of blood

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54
Q

Is any transfusion risk free?

A

No

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55
Q

What is intraoperative cell salvage?

A

Gives the patient back their own blood and reduces the risk of needing a transfusion

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56
Q

In what ways can a need for blood transfusion be minimised?

A

Autologous programmes such as intraoperative cell salvage, intra or post operative may be considered
Pre operative care, anaemia correction with iron, stop aspirin/warfarin where possible etc
EPO (recombinant human erythropoietin) can stimulate red cell production in some circumstances

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57
Q

How long can blood live outside the body for?

A

35 days

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58
Q

What do neonates < 1 y/o use for blood transfusions?

A

Peedie pack

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59
Q

What does a peedie pack consist of?

A

Special donors for neonates where 1 donation is split into 5 30ml individual donations
The other 4 will be reserved for the same neonate if one is used so not getting 5 different donations

60
Q

What is the biggest risk of blood transfusion?

A

Error in administration of blood

61
Q

What is the shelf life for FFP and cryoprecipitate and why is this?

A

3 years

As stored frozen

62
Q

What does code red consist of?

A

Activating major haemorrhage before at the hospital so can have FFP and cryoprecipitate thawed to be ready

63
Q

Once FFP is thawed, how long is it viable for?

64
Q

What would happen to platelets If they were put into a fridge?

A

They would die

65
Q

Who needs irradiation of their blood?

A

Haematology patients
Some MS patients
Some patients on certain drugs

66
Q

Why do people need their blood irradiated?

A

Their immune system is so slow they could not handle the T lymphocytes from the donors blood

67
Q

What does blood irradiation prevent?

A

Transfusion associated Graft vs host disease

68
Q

After a sensitising event / birth of a baby, within what time limit must Anti D be given?

A

Within 72 hours

69
Q

How long would a T number sticker stay on an ID band for?

A

However long the sample is viable so should only ever have one at one time

70
Q

What must be checked of the blood unit prior to infusion?

A
No pack leakage 
Transfusion port in tact 
No evidence of haemolysis 
No gas / discolouration / clots
Donation number - pack matches label 
Compatibility label against patient's wristband 
Blood group - pack compatible with label 
Expiry date - not passed
71
Q

Current risks of blood transfusion in the UK

A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HIV/AIDs
vCJD
Hepatitis E
72
Q

How much is a unit of blood?

A

470ml (+/- 50ml)

73
Q

What does a unit of blood consist of?

A

270 ml of red cell concentrate

Suspended in plasma plus additive solution

74
Q

What is the donation tested for?

A
HIV
HBV
HCV
HTLVI/II
Syphilis
75
Q

In a 70kg recipient, one unit of blood should increase the Hb by how much?

76
Q

How must red cells be stored?

A

4C

Until < 30 mins before required

77
Q

How is the blood given?

A

Each unit given over 2-3 hours

Infusion flow rate of approx. 100mL/hour

78
Q

Indications for red cell transfusion

A

Perioperative/ITU transfusion
Bone marrow failure
Rarely used to treat iron and other haematinic deficiencies

79
Q

What to tell the patient about red cell transfusion

A
Reason for transfusion 
Treatment options
Valid alternatives
Option to refuse
Risks of transfusion
80
Q

Management of serious adverse reactions of red cell transfusions

A

STOP THE TRANSFUSION
keep all residual blood packs
Recheck identity of patient, blood unit and documentation
Check and record patients BP, pulse, RR, and check for dyspnoea, tachypnoea, wheeze, cyanosis
Notify blood bank
Check blood gases or O2 sats
Maintain airway
Seek advise if condition continues to deteroriate

81
Q

Adverse events of transfusion

A
Fluid overload
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction 
Infusion of a bacterially contaminated unit 
TRALI 
Severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis
82
Q

Where must serious adverse reactions be reported to?

83
Q

Under what haemoglobin level is transfusion usually indicated?

84
Q

What 3 things to remember about transfusion

A

Right blood
Right patient
Right time

85
Q

Common allergic reaction symptoms patients may get after having a transfusion

A

Skin rashes
Fever
Dyspnoea

86
Q

How long does a platelet or plasma transfusion take to give?

A

Around 30 minutes to an hour

87
Q

Reasons for red cell transfusion

A

Surgery / accident leading to blood loss
To treat anaemia
Treatment of cancer / leukaemia

88
Q

Reasons for a platelet transfusion

A

To increase the number of platelets in the blood

To replace the platelets which are not working properly

89
Q

What does plasma look like when it is going to be transfused? And what does it contain?

A

Pale yellow liquid

Red cells, white cells and platelets, also clotting factors

90
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

More than one clotting factor called fibrinogen

91
Q

Once you have had a transfusion, what are you no longer able to do? Why is this?

A

Donate blood

Precaution against vCJD transmission

92
Q

What does irradiation do to the blood?

A

Depleted in T lymphocytes

93
Q

Who is at risk of transfusion assosiated graft vs host disease (TA-GvHD)?

A

Transfusions from family members / tissue type matched donors
Those born with immune system disorders
Those with a weakened immune system due to Hodgkins disease / treatment with certain drugs / bone marrow or stem cell transplant
Receiving chemotherapy drugs such as fludarabine
Unborn babies and babies needing exchange transfusions

94
Q

Why do plasma products such as FFP, cryoprecipitate, anti D, albumin and immunoglobulin not need irradiated?

A

They do not cause TA-GvHD

95
Q

What complementary markers tests are done for every donation?

A
Syphillis
HIV 
Hep B
Hep C
HTLV 1/2
Hep E
96
Q

What is a window period?

A

The period of which between someone is infected to when it is detectable

97
Q

What do complementary tests now look for in the blood? Why?

A

Tend to look for antibodies instead of antigens

Antibodies have a shorter window period than antigens

98
Q

What does vCJD stand for?

A

Variant CJD

99
Q

What is taken from one donation?

A

Red cells
Pooled platelets
FFP
Apheresis platelets

100
Q

What are pooled platelets?

A

Plasma and platelets from 4 donations

101
Q

What are apheresis platelets?

A

Take out platelets and give the donor back the rest of their blood

102
Q

How are apheresis donors picked?

A

Donate regularly
Multiple -ve screening tests
ABO and rheus groups

103
Q

What happens if red cells go out of temp range for 30 minutes?

A

Need to be used or discarded

104
Q

What must be done when storing pooled platelets?

A

They must be kept constantly moving

105
Q

What is the top layer of cryoprecipitate more concentrated for?

A

Clotting factors

106
Q

What is FFP more concentrated for?

A

Fibrinogen

107
Q

What does all of group O have?

A

H substance

108
Q

How old are you when you start to produce your own blood antibodies?

A

3 - 4 months

109
Q

How many binding sites does the IgG antibodies have?

110
Q

How many binding sites does the IgM antibodies have?

111
Q

How are the IgG antibodies destroyed?

A

Spleen etc

112
Q

How are IgM antibodies destroyed?

A

Destruction in the veins by cross linking (DIC)

113
Q

What group is the universal plasma donor?

114
Q

What blood group is the go to group for FFP?

115
Q

What blood group is hard to get for FFP?

116
Q

What ways do you get exposure to something foreign to stimulate antibodies?

A

Pregnancy

Transfusion

117
Q

What % of the population are Rheusus D +ve and -ve?

A
85% = +ve
15% = -ve
118
Q

Why can RhD -ve be transfused to Rh +ve patients?

A

As no foreign antigen so no antibody stimulated

119
Q

What blood group can be transfused to all patients no matter what blood group they are?

A

O RhD negative

120
Q

What does a second sample blood policy reduce?

A

Wrong blood in tube incidents

121
Q

Who is the second sample blood policy for?

A

Non urgent requests
1st time blood component request
> 12 months old

122
Q

How long should there ideally be between the two blood samples?

A

10 minutes

123
Q

How does the second sample policy not refer to?

A

Urgent
Infants up to 12 months
Patients whose blood groups are already known to the lab

124
Q

The 8 main blood groups

A
A +
A - 
B +
B - 
AB + 
AB -
O + 
O -
125
Q

Give examples of who would be given irridated blood

A

Granulocyte transfusions
IU transfusions
Neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery
Bone marrow / stem cell transplants
Immunocompromised (e.g. chemo or congenital)
Patients with / previous Hodgkins disease

126
Q

Hb transfusion threshold

A

Without ACS - 70 g/L

With ACS - 80g/L

127
Q

In patients who are not currently bleeding or about to undergo a procedure, a platelet transfusion should be performed if the plaelets fall to below what level?

A

10 x10^9/L

128
Q

What conditions would a platelet transfusion have an increased risk of death?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
Chronic bone marrow failure

129
Q

What platelet count should a platelet transfusion be offered to a patient if they are actively significantly bleeding?

A

< 30 x10^9

130
Q

What do platelets have an increased risk of compared to other types of blood product?

A

Bacterial contamination

131
Q

What is the universal donor of FFP?

A

AB RhD negative

132
Q

What is used to reverse the effects of anticoagulation in an emergency when the patient has a head injury or severe bleeding?

A

Vitamin K AND

Prothrombin complex concentrate

133
Q

Treatment of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Generous fluid resuscitation (saline)

Termination of the transfusion

134
Q

Treatment of post transfusion purpura

A

High dose immunoglobulin therapy

135
Q

Treatment of allergic transfusion reaction

A

IM adrenaline, corticosteroids and supportive care

Bronchodilators

136
Q

What causes acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis
Usually the result of RBC destruction by IgM-type antibodies

137
Q

Presentation of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A
Symptoms begin minutes after transfusion 
Fever
Abdominal pain 
Chest pain 
Agitation 
Hypotension
138
Q

Complications of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

DIC

Renal failure

139
Q

Pathology of non haemolytic febrile reaction

A

Due to white blood cell HLA Abs

Often the result of previous sensitisations by pregnancies or transfusions

140
Q

Treatment of non haemolytic febrile reaction

A

Paracetamol

141
Q

Pathology of anaphylaxis / allergic reaction post transfusion

A

Hypersensitivity to components within the transfusion

142
Q

Presentation of allergic reaction / anaphylaxis post transfusion

A

Within mins of starting
Severity can range
- urticaria to anaphylaxis with hypotension, SOB, wheezing, stridor or angioedema

143
Q

Features of TRALI

A
Development of hypoxaemia / ARDS within 6 hours of the transfusion 
Hypoxia
Pulmonary infiltrates on X ray 
Fever
Hypotension
144
Q

Presentation of TACO

A

Pulmonary oedema

HTN

145
Q

When can IV iron be used?

A

Patients with iron deficiency anaemia prior to surgery when oral iron cannot be tolerated or the time interval is too short

146
Q

What is the major criteria to determine if the use of cryoprecipitate is needed in bleeding?

A

Low fibrinogen level

147
Q

What is the major constituent of cryoprecipitate?

A

Factor VIII