Blood smears Flashcards

1
Q

How can you assess for analytical errors?

A

Quality control
Plausibility evaluation
Techincal and medical review
method of obtaining results from a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can excitement (epinephrine) do to a haematology sample?

A

Lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Are band cells part of a stress leukogram?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What makes a good blood smear?

A

3/4 length of the slide
Well defined monolayer
Well defined feathered edge
No holes

WBCs not at feathered edge
Evenly distributed WBCs/ platelets
Well stained with good contrast and colour
No stain precipitate or other artifacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can a moderate to marked leukocytosis affect on haematology?

A

Hb
Platelet count
MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can a microcytosis do to a haematology results

A

May cause errors in RBC, platelet numbers, and MCV, as they are confused for platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can a lipaemia/ chylomicrons do to a haematology sample?

A

Cause errors in WBCs, platelets and eosinophils due to an affect on the light reflection that the measurements use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you do a WBC measurement on a smear?

A

Average WBCs per 40 field x 2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you do a platelet measurement on a smear and how do values suggest the levels are?

A

Average per 100x field x 20,000

<2 per hpf - v low
2-5 low
5-25 adequate
25-50 high
>50 v high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you differentiate between band and segmented neutrophils?

A

bands have parrallel sides

Segmented when any indentation of the nucleus is >25% of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the rule of thumb with reticulocytes and polychromatophils

A

All polychromatophils are reticulocytes, but not all reticulocytes are polychromatophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which stain is good for parasites?

A

new methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the rule of 3 for checking if results are plausible?

A

Hct +/-3 = Hb x 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should you do if MCHC is high

A

Not physiologically possible

Look for signs of haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

small but prominent dark inclusions which are remnants of nuclear material
Sign of regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does babesia look like in blood?

A

Babesia canis appear as large pear-shaped organisms, usually in pairs
B. gibsoni organisms are much smaller, circular bodies. These parasites are more often seen in capillary blood (e.g. from an ear prick) and most frequently found along the edges of films. However, these
organisms are not always visualized and
serology or PCR are more sensitive

17
Q

What does feline infectious anaemia look like in blood?

A

Provided that samples are obtained during an episode of parasitaemia, organisms may be identified using the Rowmanowsky stains.
The organisms stain blue–grey to pale purple with Rowmanowsky stains and appear as small cocci singly or in chains. Again PCR is a more sensitive diagnostic technique.

18
Q

Outline how does oxidant injury appear in blood?

A

Ingestion of oxidants such as onions or zinc can lead to the formation of Heinz bodies or eccentrocytes with resultant anaemia.
Heinz bodies are seen as non-staining round bodies, usually protruding from the surface of the cell. Eccentrocytes have a pale area on one side of the cell which is devoid of haemoglobin, but with a cell
membrane visible around this pale area

19
Q

How does microangiopathic anaemia appear?

A

Red blood cell fragmentation, e.g. due to
vascular neoplasms such as haemangiosarcoma, results in the formation of schistocytes and acanthocytes.
Schistocytes are irregular-shaped, often with elongated fragments and an irregular spiked outline. Acanthocytes also have irregular spiky projections but are roundish in shape.

20
Q

What does iron deficiency anaemia look like?

A

This leads to defective haemoglobin
synthesis, and so red blood cells are very
pale with a wide area of central pallor and a
thin rim of haemoglobin

21
Q

What are some signs of toxic change in neutrophils?

seen in bacterial infection/ severe inflammation

A
Döhle bodies – indistinct blue–grey
cytoplasmic inclusions
Increased cytoplasmic basophilia (but not as dark as monocytes) 
Foamy vacuolated cytoplasm
Cytoplasmic granules 
Giant neutrophils
Nuclear swelling
Doughnut-shaped nuclei.
22
Q

What are the possible causes for lymphocytosis?

A

chronic infection or inflammation,
lymphocytic leukemia,
physiologic lymphocytosis

23
Q

What do glucocorticoids do to a haematology?

A

mature neutrophilia by increasing release of mature neutrophils from the marrow storage pool, demarginating neutrophils from the marginal neutrophil pool (MNP) into the circulating neutrophil pool (CNP), and decreasing neutrophil migration into tissues.

24
Q

What may lead poisoning show in a smear?

A

Basophilic stippling

25
Q

What are causes of a v mild anaemia that has a marked metarubircyte componenet?

A

This is a nonregenerative anemia because the response is disordered and causes of inappropriate metarubricytosis should be pursued. These include marrow neoplasia, myelofibrosis, lead poisoning, myelophthisis, extramedullary hematopoiesis, or severe anoxia

26
Q

What would a normal regenerative response to blood loss look like?

A

macrocytic and hypochromic

if the animal became really anaemic then it could appear microcytic hypochromic

27
Q

What is a degenerative left shift

A

bands exceed mature neutrophils with a normal WBC count. Indicates a poor prognosis

28
Q

What can cause marked eosinophilia?

A

allergy and hypersensitivity reactions, chronic granulomatous disease, and neoplasms such as mast cell tumors or lymphoma.
Eosinophilic leukemia and hypereosinophilic syndrome are infrequent causes

29
Q

Does erythropoietin stimulate platelet production?

A

Yes

30
Q

How long do RBCs last?

A

100d dog

80-90 cats

31
Q

How is crenation affected by storage?

A

Crenation is more prominent in films made from EDTA-antico agulated blood than in films made from fresh non-anticoagulated blood.

32
Q

What occurs in maturation defect anaemias?

A

Maturation defect anemias have nonregenerative peripheral blood patterns but erythroid hyperplasia in the bone marrow.

33
Q

What are the lab features of relative polycythaemia?

A

A. Moderate increases in PCV

B. Elevated total protein concentration

C. Hypernatremia and hyperchloremia

D. Concentrated urine specific gravity

34
Q

Outline neutrophils

A

A. Neutrophils serve as the primary defense against invasion of tissues by microorganisms.

B. Neutrophils kill bacteria and can also damage or participate in the destruction of mycotic agents, algae, and viruses.

C. Neutrophils accumulate at sites of inflammation or bacterial infection by a process of directional migration or chemotaxis.

D. At the site of inflammation, neutrophils are capable of phagocytosis and microbicidal activity.

35
Q

What are the functions of macrophages?

A

A. Phagocytosis

B. Regulation of the inflammatory response via release of inflammatory mediators

C. Antigen-processing for presentation to lymphocytes

D. Regulation of body iron stores

36
Q

What can monocytosis suggesr?

A

A. The presence of inflammation

B. Demand for phagocytosis

C. Tissue necrosis

D. A “stress response” induced by high circulating glucocorticoids

37
Q

What is the most reliable componenet of a stress leukogram?

A

Lymphocyte counts between 750/ul and 1500/ul