blood science Flashcards

1
Q

how to diagnose MI

A

the rise and fall in cardiac biomarkers
serial changes of an ecg
ischaemic type chest pain

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2
Q

group a+ patient can receive

A

group a+/- or group o+/-

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3
Q

group ab- can receive

A

group o- and group ab-

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4
Q

group o+ can receive

A

group o+/-

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5
Q

group b- can receive

A

group o- and group b-

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6
Q

test for coagulation

A

sodium citrate due to its sensitivity to anticoagulant contamination and works at a fixed rate

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7
Q

tunica intima

A

made of endothelial cells and acts as a negatively charged surface

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8
Q

tunica media

A

mainly collagen and smooth muscle important for its pro-coagulant surface

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9
Q

tunica adventitia

A

made of fibrocytes and collagen type 3. is packed with tissue factor and activates coagulation.

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10
Q

what are the 3 stages of vascular insult

A

spasm plug coagulation

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11
Q

what is the purpose of the spasm

A

spasm slows blood flow and is controlled by smooth muscle cells

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12
Q

what is the purpose of plugging

A

using platelets to form a wall and support the thrombus

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13
Q

what is the purpose of coagulation

A

using coagulation factors in order to reinforce the wall and catch any formed elements

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14
Q

what is a common vasoconstrictor

A

N02 + txa2 accelerates vasoconstriction and causes platelets to stick together

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15
Q

what is the intrinsic pathway

A

uses atp and forms on thrombus after being activated by trauma within vascular system.
requires FX11 FX1 FX FV111

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16
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway

A

occurs when external trauma is found. requires FV11 pulls in factor X and creates thrombin burst

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17
Q

what is the common factor

A

end point where intrinsic and extrinsic pathways meet, process creates a fibrin net to prevent leakage. Uses F11 FV FX

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18
Q

Where are coagulation factors made

A

liver

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19
Q

what are vitamin k dependant factors

A

2,7,9,10

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20
Q

what is haemophillia a

A

it is an x linked disorder that affects men and is the inability to produce factor 8

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21
Q

what is haemophillia b

A

it is an inability to produce factor 9. patient presents with bleeding.

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22
Q

what is the use of creatine kinase

A

use when no skeletal muscle damage is present. is specific to the heart. peaks within 8-10 hours

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23
Q

what is lactate dehydrogenase

A

not very specific for heart. peaks after 72 hours, persists for a long time

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24
Q

what is troponin i

A

peaks within 24-48 hours. best but most expensive. highly specific and sensitive

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25
Q

what does prothrombin time do

A

PT test measure the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation. measures time for clot to form

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26
Q

what does appt measure

A

the extrinsic pathway and common pathway. measures time for clot to form.

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27
Q

how to test for collagen binding factor v111 and pro-peptide level

A

use elisa on von williebrand factor

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28
Q

what is albumin

A

single polypeptide chain responsible for maintaining oncotic pressure within the blood

29
Q

what is alpha-1 antitrypsin

A

a hormone that breaks down proteins such as neutrophils. has a link to oestrogen and lung disease.

30
Q

what is beta-2 microglobulin proteinused for?

A

found on surface of human cells. if elevated assume renal dysfunction and malignancy

31
Q

what is bile

A

A cholesterol-derived liquid produced by hepatocytes in the liver

32
Q

what is hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver due to fattening of hepatocytes. can lead to cirrhosis

33
Q

what is cholestasis

A

a blockage of bile

34
Q

3 stages of alcoholic liver disease

A

fatty liver disease- alcoholic hepatitis- alcoholic cirrhosis

35
Q

what does the aminotransferase test do

A

measures enzyme activity. shows hepatocellular damage

36
Q

what does alkaline phosphatase do

A

hydrolyses phosphate into alkaline solution. can indicate hepatitis or a tumour. is an enzyme however non-specific

37
Q

what does billirubin do

A

tests for haemolysis. if concentration high assume jaundice may be present.

38
Q

what does GGT do

A

used as a probe to tell if patient has drank works well with alkaline phosphatase

39
Q

what does albumin do

A

most produced protein indicative of major damage.

40
Q

what dies the alpha 1 antitrypsin test do

A

if deficient assume cirrhosis

41
Q

what does Alpha-fetoprotein cause?

A

slightly raised in hepatitis. significantly raised in cancer in the liver

42
Q

explain the process of erythropoiesis

A

take a totipotent stem cell introduce IL-3 and GM-CSF
multipotent stem cell then gets hit with il-3 again
BFU-E
CFU-E
introduce erythropoietin

43
Q

name all important cytokines to erythropoiesis

A

il-1 6 for gm-csf stimulation
il-3-4-6 for multipotent cell stimulation

44
Q

whats a patient that has high white cell count

A

leukocytosis

45
Q

patient with a low white cell count

A

leukopenia

46
Q

whats a high neutrophil count called

A

neutrophilia

47
Q

whats a low neutrophil count

A

neutropenia

48
Q

what causes macrocytsosis

A

b12 and folate

49
Q

what causes microcytosis

A

ida

50
Q

what is the diagnostic triad for leukemia

A

leukocytosis. auer rods anaemia

51
Q

what is the diagnostic triad for lymphoma

A

look for reed-sternberg cells hodgkins (owl face cells)
solid lymph nodes

52
Q

What is the diagnostic triad for leukemia

A

splenomegaly. hepatosplenomegaly.
leukocytosis

53
Q

diagnostic triad for myeloma

A

production of Bence Johnes paraproteins
excessive removal of bone
nervous damage due to excessive calcium

54
Q

name a haemoglobinopathy

A

sickle cell anaemia

55
Q

treatments of sickle cell anaemia

A

transfused blood

56
Q

stage 1 of lymphoma and treatment

A

cancer has only manifested in one region. can be treated with chemotherapy or radiotherapy. shrink tumour

57
Q

stage 2 of lymphoma and treatment

A

cancer has appeared in two nodes on the same side of the body. treat with chemotherapy and radiotherapy

58
Q

stage 3 of lymphoma and treatment

A

indicates cancer has spread to the other side of the body. more advanced. treat with radiotherapy /and chemotherapy

59
Q

stage 4 of lymphoma and treatment

A

cancer has metastasised outside the lymphatic system and made secondary cancers. often treat with chemotherapy alone

60
Q

the best way of diagnosing leukaemia?

A

use cytochemistry after doing a bone marrow biopsy

61
Q

best way of diagnosing non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

use a biopsy of excision skin (skin lesion)

62
Q

best way of diagnosing hodgkins lymphoma

A

full blood count biopsy

63
Q

how are eosinophils made

A

stem cell colony forming unit(GEMM) IL-3+GM-CSF CFU (monocyte eosinophil granulocyte) CFU-E IL-5

64
Q

How are neutrophils made

A

stem cell colony forming unit(GEMM) IL-3+GM-CSF CFU (monocyte eosinophil granulocyte) CFU(granulocyte monocyte) g-CSF Colony Forming Unit-granulocyte

65
Q

how are monocytes made

A

stem cell colony forming unit(GEMM) IL-3+GM-CSF CFU (monocyte eosinophil granulocyte) CFU(granulocyte monocyte) G-CSF Colony Forming Unit-Granulocyte

66
Q

how to diagnose alcoholic cirrhosis

A

use ggt and alkaline phosphatase, aminotransferase and ultrasound

67
Q

how to diagnose liver carcinoma

A

alkaline phosphatase (5x) and alphafertonin. use imaging techniques of biopsy for diagnosis

68
Q

how to diagnose hepatitis

A

use billirubin and alkaline phosphatase to indicate liver function. use ultrasound to diagnose/ biopsy