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A+P2 > Blood/f > Flashcards

Blood/f Flashcards

1
Q

The structure of a RBC

A

Bioconcave disk, thin middle, thick outer edge

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2
Q

Does a RBC have a nucleus or mitochondria?

A

NO (so O2 cant be stolen)(must use fermentation through glycolysis pathway)

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3
Q

Why does a RBC have a large surface area?

A

so it can exchange O2 and CO2 quicker

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4
Q

RBCs stack for what reason?

A

so they can pass easily through narrow capillaries. (they can also bend and flex)

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5
Q

what is the average volume of a single RBC?

A

Mean Corpuscular volume (MCV)

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6
Q

the name of the abbreviation Hb

A

Hemoglobin

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7
Q

Hb is a _____ in RBCs than have 2___ and 2_____

A

protein/alpha chains/beta chains

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8
Q

Each molecule of heme contains how many chains? and what do they contain?

A

4/ Iron (Iron molecules bind with oxygen)

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9
Q

Each RBC can carry 4 O2s at a time because…

A

it has a heme/iron molecule on each alpha and beta chain

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10
Q

HbO2 is….

A

“oxyhemaglobin” because oxygen is bound causing the blood to be bright red.

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11
Q

When the oxygen is released…

A

the RBC becomes deoxyhemoglobin

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12
Q

When CO2 binds to hemoglobin…

A

it becomes carbaminohemoglobin

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13
Q

when Hb level is low, person becomes weak, lethargic, and confused… what do they “have”?

A

anemia (brain isn’t getting enough oxygen)

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14
Q

the presence of heme in urine

A

Hemogloburia

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15
Q

presence of whole RBCs in urine

A

Hematuria

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16
Q

When RBC is old, the body breaks down the cell. each heme becomes..

A

Biliverdin

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17
Q

Abnormal Hemoglobin (ex. thalassemia and sickle cell anemia)
Thalassemia is
Sickle cell anemia is

A

T: inability to produce adequate numbers of alpha and beta chains.
S: One single mutation in beta chains (causes call to become stiff and curved and very painful)

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18
Q

bruising is discolored due to?

A

Biliverdin

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19
Q

damaged/old RBCs are _________ by macrophages which break down ________ into a ____ pigment called Biliverdin

A

Phagocytized/hemoglobin/green

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20
Q

Biliverdin is then converted(oxidized) into ______ in the blood stream

A

bilirubin (orange/yellow)

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21
Q

_____ binds to bilirubin and transports to the ______ for the excretion in the bile

A

Albumin/liver

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22
Q

if the liver cannot absorb and secrete bilirubin and people turn yellow and this is called _______?

A

Jaundice

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23
Q

_________(plasma protein in blood) binds to excess iron

A

Tranferrin

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24
Q

Antigens are substances (_______,_______) which are “normally” foreign to the body and can produce an immune response if ______ are present

A

most(Toxins, microbes)/ antibodies

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25
Q

Antibodies have what type of shape?

A

Y

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26
Q

The human body produces special ______ called antibodies when it encounters “antigen”. the antibody will bind to antigen causing it to______

A

proteins/agglutinate(clump)

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27
Q

most _____ are proteins located on the cell membrane of _______

A

antigens/microbes

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28
Q

what is determined by the presence and absence of a surface antigen?

A

Blood type (A,B and Rh)

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29
Q

Type A has surface antigen A and antibodies to…

A

B

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30
Q

type B has surface antigen _ and _ antibodies

A

B/A

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31
Q

What type has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies?

A

AB

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32
Q

Does type O have any surface antigens or antibodies? (if so what?)

A

no/ A and B antibodies

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33
Q

who is the universal donor?

A

O (dOnOr)

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34
Q

who is the universal receiver?

A

AB

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35
Q

Rh

A

Rhesus system

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36
Q

Rh is just another what?

A

surface antigen

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37
Q

Rh positive indicates…

A

the presence of Rh surface antigens

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38
Q

Rh negative indicates…

A

the absence of Rh surface antigens

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39
Q

if your blood agglutinates and kills you, this is the effect of..

A

receiving the wrong blood type

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40
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

hemolytic disease of a newborn

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41
Q

Granular leukocytes (stained granules)

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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42
Q

Agranular leukocytes (few if any granules)

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

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43
Q

qualifications of WBC is done using

A

Differential count

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44
Q

differential count can diagnose

A

the disease/bacteria that is causing infection

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45
Q

_ever _et _onkeys _at _ananas

A

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

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46
Q

Leukopenia

A

low numbers of WBCs

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47
Q

Leukocytosis

A

Excessive numbers of WBCs (leukemia)

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48
Q

4 Characteristics of WBCs?

A

Amoeboid movement, can migrate out into the bloodstream, attracted to chemical stimuli, Phagocytosing(bacteria engulfing)

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49
Q

Amoeboid movement

A

mobility to catch microbes

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50
Q

migrate into bloodstream

A

they can squeeze between cells to get out of the vessels to get to surrounding tissue

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51
Q

Positive chemotaxis

A

attracted to chemical stimuli

a) cells send out a “call for help”
b) WBCs “hear it” and come to the needing area.

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52
Q

what are capable of phagocytosing?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

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53
Q

specific defenses?

A

lymphocytes (specific viruses)

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54
Q

non-specific?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes (fungi, virus, bacteria, etc)

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55
Q

5 types of WBCs?

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes

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56
Q

Neutrophils..

A

(polymorphonuclear or “polys”) granules are chemically neutral so they are hard to stain with acidic/basic dyes.

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57
Q

how many lobes does a neutrophil have?

A

2-5 (beads)

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58
Q

the granules of a neutrophil are filled with?

A

lysosomal enzymes and bactericidal compounds.

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59
Q

What are basically the “first responders”? they are the first to arrive at an injury site and attack and digest bacteria that were marked by antibodies…

A

Neutrophils

60
Q

Neutrophils ______ bacteria and release its contents onto ______ ________ which destroy it.

A

engulf/engulfed bacteria

61
Q

Degranulation is what?

A

the release of granular contents into engulfed area

62
Q

Neutrophils also release _______ and leukotrienes which contribute to ____ inflammation to control spread of

A

prostaglandins/ local

63
Q

how long do neutrophils last unless they are attacking bacteria and then they only last how many amount of minutes?

A

they last 10 hours normally but when they are attacking they only last 30 minutes. they are the ones that form pus.

64
Q

Eosinophils (acidophils). why are they named red?

A

they are stained with eosin, an acidic dye. (bi-lobed nucleus)

65
Q

eosinophils defend against multicellular ______ such as flukes or ________ _____

A

parasites/ parasitic worms

66
Q

eosinophils ______ toxic compounds

A

exocytose (kick out)

67
Q

what causes eosinophils to activate?

A

allergens

68
Q

Basophils get their name because….

A

they are stained with basic dyes which causes them to be blue or purple. (high numbers of granules block nucleus)

69
Q

basophils discharge their contents of _____ and _____ which causes inflammation of an injury.

A

histamine/heparin

70
Q

are Monocytes large or small?

A

Large, 2 times the size of a red blood cell

71
Q

monocytes travel in bloodstream, but when they leave, they are called…..

A

Macrophages.

72
Q

what do macrophages do to items larger than themselves?

A

swallow up or engulf

73
Q

what kind of shape does a monocyte nucleus have?

A

kidney bean

74
Q

there are how many types of Lymphocytes? and what are they?

A

3/ T cells, B cells, NK cells

75
Q

what is a T cell responsible for?

A

“cell mediated immunity” will attack bacteria one on one

76
Q

B cells are responsible for what?

A

“humoral immunity” production of antibodies that will attack antigens all over the body

77
Q

What are NK cells for?

A

they kill abnormal tissue cells (cancer)

78
Q

Another name for Platelets?

A

Thrombocytes

79
Q

How long do platelets live?

A

7-10 days

80
Q

Shape of a platelet?

A

Round disk shape with out a nucleus

81
Q

What is formed when megakaryocyte breaks up to form several thousand platelets so they are fragment of a cell.

A

Platelets

82
Q

How many platelets should you have per mL?

A

150,000 to 500,000 per mL

83
Q

How many platelets are in circulation?

A

2/3

84
Q

How many platelets are in the spleen as reserve in case of a circulatory crisis?

A

1/3

85
Q

Released from kidney, causing platelets to be formed.

A

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

86
Q

Cause the blood to clot upon injury.

A

Platelets

87
Q

Low numbers of plates causes ______ ______.

A

Excessive bleeding

88
Q

High numbers of platelets can cause _____ _____.

A

Blood clots

89
Q

3 Properties of platelets?

A
  • Aggregation (Gather together)
  • Adhesiveness (Stick together)
  • Agglutinate (Form clumps)
90
Q

what is the purpose of EPO?

A

causes RBCs to produce

91
Q

What phase is it when the blood vessel is cut and the wall contracts to slow bleeding?

A

Vascular phase

92
Q

contraction exposes the _____ _____ of endothelial cells to bloodstream

A

basal lamina

93
Q

what does endothelial cells release? and what does it cause?

A

they release endothelins/ smooth muscle and endothelial cell division

94
Q

platelet phase is when…..?

A

the blood vessel is damaged.

95
Q

under epithelium is the _____ membrane or _____ lamina

A

basement/ basal

96
Q

The basal lamina has _____ in it and when it is exposed, the _____ will bind to the exposed collagen and will “stick” to the surface of the _____ _____

A

collagen/platelets/vessel wall

97
Q

when platelets are exposed to collagen, they are activated and then they dump their contents into what? what does it activate, if it activates anything?

A

plasma/activates other platelets

98
Q

platelets aggregate and form ______ _____ that close break in the vessel.

A

“platelet plug”

99
Q

when a platelet changes shape, they become more what?? when they arrive at an injury site?

A

spherical

100
Q

platelets release chemicals that help with _____ _____

A

vessel repair

101
Q

cells outside of the injury site release other chemicals to stop ______

A

clotting

102
Q

the coagulation phase starts when?

A

30 seconds after injury. and blood clotting starts

103
Q

what does factor X (10) activate?

A

Prothrombinase

104
Q

prothrombinase converts what into what?

A

prothrombin into thrombin

105
Q

Thrombin converts fibrinogen into what?

A

fibrin

106
Q

fibrin forms a network which forms a?????

A

blood clot

107
Q

Ca +2 and 13 factor proteins are converted from what to what?

A

proenzymes to active enzymes

108
Q

how many pathways are their for blood clotting?

A

3

109
Q

what are the three pathways of blood clotting?

A

extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, and common pathway

110
Q

what is another name for extrinsic pathway?

A

Tissue factor pathway

111
Q

where does the extrinsic pathway begin?

A

outside of bloodstream

112
Q

what is the primary pathway of coagulation?

A

extrinsic pathway

113
Q

several _____ _____ are converted to activate form to initiate the cascade.

A

pro-enzymes

114
Q

extrinsic pathway begins with release of which factor by damaged endothelial cells

A

factor III

115
Q

what is another name for intrinsic pathway?

A

contact activation pathway

116
Q

where does the intrinsic pathway begin?

A

inside the bloodstream when proenzymes are exposed to collagen fibers

117
Q

when does the common pathway begin?

A

when the enzymes from either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway activates factor X which forms prothrombinase

118
Q

and again, prothrombinase converts prothrombin into what?

A

thrombin

119
Q

how many blood clotting inhibitors are their?

A

4

120
Q

what are the 4 blood clotting inhibitors?

A

anticoagulants, heparin, thrombomodulin, prostacyclin

121
Q

anticoagulants is also…

A

antithrombin III

122
Q

heparin prevents blood clotting where?

A

in veins

123
Q

Thrombomodulin activates _____ and it inactivates several clotting factors

A

Protein C

124
Q

Prostacyclin inhibits what aggregation?

A

platelet

125
Q

what is required for blood clotting?

A

ions and vitamins

126
Q

what is the dissolving of the clot after repairs are completed?

A

fibrinolysis

127
Q

cells make ______ (proenzyme) that becomes plasmin which degrades ______

A

plasminogen/fibrin

128
Q

what is the drifting blood clot, the block vessel causes tissue to die downstream

A

embolus

129
Q

damage to the tissue in embolus

A

infarct

130
Q

myocardial infarction

A

heart attack

131
Q

blood clot inside a vessel causing platelets to stick?

A

thrombus

132
Q

area where platelets stick is called?

A

plaque

133
Q

inadequate production of a clotting factor usually factor VIII due to genetic inbreeding?

A

hemophilia

134
Q

aspirin inactivates platelet enzymes so it helps ____ blood

A

thin

135
Q

what are anemias?

A

condition/disease caused by low oxygen transport by blood due to low RBC counts or abnormality of RBC or hemoglobbin

136
Q

beta chains are mutated? the RBCs look like half moons and cannot pass through capillaries without causing pain.

A

sickle-cell anemia (resistance to malaria)

137
Q

caused by insufficient iron in RBCs?

A

Iron deficient anemia

138
Q

causes abnormal ratio of hemoglobin chains (alpha/beta) due to DNA defects

A

Thalassemia

139
Q

how may types of leukemias are there?

A

2

140
Q

what are the two types of leukemia?

A

myeloid/lymphoid

141
Q

characterized by abnormal granulocytes or other cells in bone marrow

A

myeloid

142
Q

involve abnormal lymphocytes?

A

lymphoid

143
Q

what is pre-hepatic/hemolytic?

A

caused by too many RBCs being broken down at once

144
Q

Hepatic?

A

caused by processing bilirubin in liver not functioning correctly

145
Q

post-hepatic

A

disruption of bile removal caused by gallstones in bile duct or cancer in head of pancreas.

A+P2 (3 decks)

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