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A+P2 > Lymphatic > Flashcards

Lymphatic Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • produce, maintain, and distributes lymphocytes to defend against infection. (reach maturity in lymphoid tissue)
  • monitor and filter lymph
  • returns tissue fluid that has been forced out of the bloodstream back to veins (prevents edema)
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2
Q

Components of lymphatic system

A
  1. Lymphatic vessels
  2. Lymphatic tissue
  3. Lymphatic Organs
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3
Q

Lymphatic vessels consist of?

A

capillaries, small and large vessels

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4
Q

Lymphatic tissue is..

A

MALT and tonsils

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5
Q

what are the lymphatic organs?

A

thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes

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6
Q

Lymphatic vessels carry ______ from _____ tissue to the venous system

A

lymph/peripheral

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7
Q

Lymphatic system returns fluid loss back to?

A

the bloodstream

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8
Q

lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries because? (5)

A
  1. blind pockets
  2. are larger in diameter
  3. have thinner walls
  4. a flatter outline
  5. fluid (lymph) enters the walls but does not exit through the walls
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9
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are ___ ____ vessels that are ______ to tissue fluid and proteins

A

one-way/permeable

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10
Q

what can enter into the capillaries but will be moved to larger vessels to be filtered?

A

Bacteria, Viruses and debris

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11
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are not in?

A

Bone
CNS
Cornea
Splenic pulp

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12
Q

what are lacteals?

A

specialized type of capillary located in the intestines that transports absorbed fat from intestines

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13
Q

Small lymphatic vessels are?

A

larger than capillaries and have valves similar to veins and are pale gold in color.

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14
Q

there are how many types of major lymph-collecting vessels?

A

2

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15
Q

what are the 2 lymph-collecting vessels?

A

superficial lymphatics and deep lymphatics

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16
Q

superficial lymphatics are located where?

A
  • subcutaneous layer in the skin

* mucous membrane in digestive respiratory, urinary and reproductive glands

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17
Q

deep lymphatics are?

A

larger than lymphatic vessels and they flow into the deep veins and arteries and the pulp helps move lymph.

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18
Q

Superficial and deep lymphatics converge to make?

A

lymphatic trunks

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19
Q

lymphatic trucks empty into?

A

two large collecting vessels or ducts.

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20
Q

what does the thoracic duct collect?

A

collects lymph from inferior to the diaphragm of the body and left side superior to the diaphragm.

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21
Q

where does the thoracic duct begin?

A

at L2 vertebrae with a sac-like chamber called “cisterna chyli”

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22
Q

where does the Cisterna Chyli receive lymph from?

A

right and left lumbar trunks and intestinal trunks.

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23
Q

the thoracic ducts drains into?

A

it drains into the system circulation at the left brachiocephalic vein.

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24
Q

the right lymphatic ducts collects lymph from?

A

the right side of the body superior to the diaphragm.

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25
Q

the R. lymphatic ducts is THOUGHT to drain into what?

A

the systemic circulation at right subclavian.

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26
Q

when blood vessels are dilated they allow _____ blood flow while becoming “leaky” allowing some fluid to escape the vessels.

A

increased.

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27
Q

the lymphatic system ______ this fluid and returns it back to the ____ for circulation.

A

recycles/veins

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28
Q

what is caused when the lymphatic circulation is blocked or impaired?

A

lymphedema

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29
Q

lymphedema affects mainly???

A

limbs, face, neck and abdomen

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30
Q

lymphedema has how many progressive stages?

A

3

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31
Q

stage 1 of lymphedema is when?

A

you press into swollen limb and it leaves a pit.

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32
Q

stage 2 of lymphedema is when?

A

pressure does not leave a pit. and the limb can become fibrotic.

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33
Q

stage 3 of lymphedema is when?

A

often called elephantiasis. generally only in legs, after lymphedema has went long untreated.

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34
Q

what are the 4 types of lymphoid tissue?

A

MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
BALT (bronchus associated lymphoid tissue)
NALT (nose associated lymphoid tissue)

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35
Q

GALT is found in the digestive system, which is?

A

Peyer’s patches in the small intestines. it prevent bacteria from escaping from intestines.

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36
Q

tonsils are?

A

nodules in the walls of the pharynx that trap swallowed or inhaled bacteria.

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37
Q

there are _ tonsils and they form what?

A

5/ waldeyers ring.

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38
Q

what are the 5 tonsils? and what are the paired ones?

A

(1) pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid)
(2) L&R palatine
(2) L&R lingual (base of tongue)

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39
Q

Lymph nodes have a ____ ____ shape and about _ inch in size?

A

kidney bean/1

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40
Q

humans have approximately how many lymph nodes throughout the body found in the underarms, groin, chest and abdomen?

A

500-600

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41
Q

blood vessels and nerves attach at?

A

the hilus

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42
Q

there are two types of vessels that attach to each node… what are they?

A

afferent (carries lymph to)

efferent (carries lymph away)

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43
Q

lymph nodes can provide warning of infection and send out _________ to fight infection.

A

lymphocytes.

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44
Q

the deep cortex is dominated by??

A

T cells

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45
Q

The outer cortex and medulla are dominated by??

A

B cells

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46
Q

what is located posterior to the sternum and partially overlies the heart?

A

thymus.

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47
Q

what is the principal organ responsible for the maturation of T-cells?

A

thymus.

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48
Q

they thymus secretes thymosin which stimulates ______ to become immunocompetent

A

T cells.

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49
Q

what is the blood thymus barrier?

A

prevents antigens from leaking into organs which prevent premature activation of lymphocytes.

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50
Q

what are the two layers of the thymus?

A

medulla and cortex

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51
Q

T cells mature in the cortex then move to medulla. after how many weeks do they enter into the bloodstream?

A

3 weeks.

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52
Q

what are the thymosins produces in the thymus?

A

thymosin a, b, V, thymopoietin and thymulin.

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53
Q

the T cells final location is in either?

A

the spleen or lymph node

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54
Q

spleen?

A

is the largest lymphoid organ located along posterior/lateral border of stomach

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55
Q

the 5 function of the spleen

A
  1. filters and removes abnormal blood cells by phagocytosis
  2. responds to antigens in blood by releasing B and T cells.
  3. stores platelets
  4. acts as a blood reservoir
  5. site of RBC production in fetus
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56
Q

the spleen has red and white pulp, and the blood passes through the white pulp where ___ and ____ fixed macrophages to remove ______

A

free/fixed/pathogens

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57
Q

lymphocytes make up ___________ of white blood cells.

A

20 to 30%

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58
Q

Lymphocytes live how long?

A

4 years

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59
Q

T cells mature in? B cells mature in?

A

thymus/bone

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60
Q

3 classes of lymphocytes?

A

T cells
B cells
NK cells

61
Q

what percent of lymphocyte cells are T cells?

A

80%

62
Q

4 types of T cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
Suppressor T cells
other(memory)

63
Q

what do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

attack body’s cells that are infected by pathogens

64
Q

what do Helper T cells do?

A

Activate T and B cells

65
Q

What do suppressor T cells do?

A

Inactivate T and B cells

66
Q

B cells make up ______ of lymphocytes?

A

10 to 15%

67
Q

B cells can differentiate into ____ cells which produce ______

A

Plasma cells/antibodies

68
Q

NK cells make up ______ of lymphocytes?

A

5 to 10%

69
Q

where do NK cells mature?

A

in bone

70
Q

NK cells destroy?

A

abnormal human cells

71
Q

non specific defenses?

A 
physical barriers
phagocytic cells
immunological surveillance
interferon
complement
fever
inflammation
72
Q

what are physical barriers?

A

Skin
Hair
Epithelial Cells
Mucus

73
Q

the skin has sweat glands that produce?

A

lysozymes that inhabit bacteria

74
Q

hair protects against?

A

insects

75
Q

Epithelial tissues are connected by ______ to prevent penetration of bacteria

A

desmosomes

76
Q

mucus provides a layer to prevent bacteria from coming into contact with what?

A

respiratory tract

77
Q

there are two types of phagocytic cells…

A

Microphages

Macrophages

78
Q

what are the two types of microphages?

A
  • Neutrophils (first to show up)

- eosinophils (Phagocytose pathogens which have antibodies attached)

79
Q

what are the types of macrophages?

A

free/wandering (can move around)(alveolar macrophages)

Fixed (local in tissue, dont move normally)(microglia in CNS)

80
Q

NK cells have immunological surveillance…. what do NK cells do?

A

they destroy abnormal human cells, quality control to check for cancer cells.

81
Q

What do NK cells do to destroy abnormal cells?

A

release perforin (pokes holes)

82
Q

what is an interferon?

A

a subtype of a biochemical called cytokines

83
Q

how are cytokines released?

A

released by activated lymphocytes/infected cells which bind to infected human cells that are replicating viruses.

84
Q

what are the three types of interferon?

A

Alpha interferon
Beta interferon
gamma interferon

85
Q

what is alpha interferon released by?

A

they are released by a virus infected cell to warn other cells.

86
Q

What is a beta interferon released by?

A

released by fibroblasts to slow inflammation in damaged areas.

87
Q

what are gamma interferon released by?

A

they are released by activated T-Cells and NKC to activate macrophages in infected areas.

88
Q

what do the complement proteins do?

A

attack and break down cell walls of bacteria and stimulates response to infection.

89
Q

Fever……..

A

helps to mobilize defenses, accelerates repairs and inhibits pathogens

90
Q

at what temperature does it start causing neuron damage in the brain?

A

104

91
Q

what is the cytokine that macrophages release?

A

interleukin 1 which is a pyrogen.

92
Q

pyrogens can do what?

A

reset the homeostatic temperature higher so pathogens dont have optimal growth temperature.

93
Q

What do pyrogens also do?

A

circulate back to the hypothalamus and resets the temperature regulation center. `

94
Q

what does inflammation produce?

A 
the cardinal signs and symptoms of inflammation which are: 
tumor
rubor
heat
pain
95
Q

what is another word for tumor?

A

local swelling

96
Q

what is another word for rubor?

A

redness

97
Q

what is another word for heat?

A

calor

98
Q

what is another word for pain?

A

donor

99
Q

what do damaged cells release? and what do they activate?

A

they release prostaglandins, proteins and potassium which activate Mast Cells causing the release of histamine and heparin.

100
Q

what roles do Mast cells play in inflammation response?

A
  • blood flow increase
  • phagocytes activated
  • capillary permeability change
  • complement activated
  • blood clotting walls off region
  • raising of local temperature
  • activation of specific defenses
101
Q

what do specific defenses protect against?

A

particular threats and relies on activity of lymphocytes.

102
Q

what are the two types of specific defenses?

A

T and B cells

103
Q

what is a T cell responsible for?

A

they are responsible for “Cell meditated immunity” , which defends against abnormal body cells and pathogens inside cells.

104
Q

what are B cells responsible for?

A

they are responsible for “antibody- mediated immunity” and defend against antigens and pathogens in body fluids.

105
Q

what does a specific immunity respond to?

A

respond to threats on an individual basis.

106
Q

what is innate immunity?

A

they are determined by persons genetics; present at birth.

107
Q

what is acquired immunity?

A

is not present at birth but is produced by past exposure to the disease or received antibodies from other sources.

108
Q

what are the two types of acquired immunity?

A

Active immunity

Passive immunity

109
Q

what is active immunity?

A

it is obtained when a person is exposed to a previous disease/toxin/vaccine which causes antibodies to be made in response

110
Q

what are two types of active immunity?

A

naturally acquired- develops after exposure to antigens in the environment
Artificially acquired- developed after getting a vaccine

111
Q

what is Passive immunity?

A

it is obtained when a different person who has been exposed to a past disease/toxin transfuses their antibodies. (mother to fetus or milk to baby)

112
Q

what are the two types of passive immunity?

A

Naturally acquired- after transfer of maternal antibodies to baby through placenta/ breast milk
Artificially acquired- develops after administrating antibodies to combat infection

113
Q

what is MHC? and its definition?

A

Major histocompatibility complex- they are glycoproteins located on the cell membrane

114
Q

what are the MHC class types?

A 
MHC class I
MHC class II
115
Q

what is MHC class I found on? and what do they bind to?

A

they are found on all nucleated cells and they bind to CD8 T cells

116
Q

what is MHC class II found on? and what do they bind to?

A

they are found on all APCs and they bind to CD4 T cells

117
Q

what happens when an antigen binds to an MHC I?

A

it signals an abnormal cell in the human body or a virus that has infected a human cell

118
Q

where are MHC I initially found and what do they do?

A

they are inside the cell initially and if an abnormal ENDOGENOUS cell protein is made, MHC I binds to it and takes it to the cell membrane surface

119
Q

what happens when a CD8 T cell sees the flag displayed by MHC I?

A

they see it and attack and destroy the abnormal cell

120
Q

an inactive CD8 T cell…..

A

binds to MHC I and the antigen becomes “costimulated” by infected cell.

121
Q

what are the two binding processes for a CD8 T cell?

A

Primary where the MHC I must bind to a T cell receptor

Seconday where the CD8 receptor must be stimulated by infected cell

122
Q

what is the secondary binding process of the CD8 used for?

A

prevents the body’s immune system from falsely attacking normal cells/tissue

123
Q

what are the three different CD8 T cells that it divides into after being stimulated?

A

Cytotoxic T cells
Memory T cells
Suppressor T cells

124
Q

what will the cytotoxic T cell do?

A

enter tissues and attack antigens

125
Q

what will Memory T cells do?

A

they remember the antigen for future encounters

126
Q

what will suppressor T cells do?

A

they will inhibit both T and B cells to limit the amount of immune response

127
Q

what do Killer T cells do?

A

they travel throughout the tissues until they encounter an antigen displayed by MCH I proteins

128
Q

Killer T cells will destroy the target cells by? (3)

A
  1. releasing perforin which punctures the cell membrane of the target cell.
  2. secreting lymphotoxin which disrupts metabolic activities in target cell
  3. releasing cytokines, a group of biochemicals which can stimulate Apoptosis causing target cell to commit suicide
129
Q

what are APCs nd what do they consist of?

A

Antigen Presenting Cells which consist of free/fixed macrophages, Kupffer Cells in the liver and Microglia in the CNS and B cells

130
Q

if an APC phagocytizes an organism/antigen where will it be destroyed?

A

in a lysosome

131
Q

APCs have MHC II which are located where initially and will bind to what?

A

they are initially located on the inside of the cell and will bind to a small fragment and take it to the outside and display it on the membrane of a CD4 Helper T cell

132
Q

what happens when an inactive CD4 Helper T cell binds to a MHC II and activated the Helper cell?

A

it causes it to divide and form an active helper T cell and memory T cell

133
Q

an active Helper T cell will spread the information and destroy similar pathogens by activating what?

A

a Killer T cell and/or B cells

134
Q

MHC II only appears where if they are processing or digesting the antigens?

A

in the cell membrane

135
Q

what happens to a B cell if an antigen in internalized and bound to an MHC II?

A

it will cause it to become sensitized.

136
Q

when a B cell presents the antigen and it binds with a Helper T cell what does it cause?

A

costimulation

137
Q

once Helper T cells bind to MHC II and B cells it causes the B cell to what?

A

become activated causing it to divide many times producing “plasma cells” and “memory B cells”

138
Q

plasma cells do what?

A

they produce the antibody to be released throughout the body. (can produce 100 million antibodies each hour)

139
Q

what are the 5 types of antibodies?

A 
IgG
IgE
IgD
IgM
IgA
140
Q

IgG

A

Largest number/most common; responsible for resistance against virus and bacteria

141
Q

IgE

A

important in allergic response; causes mast cells to release histamine and protects against infection by helminths; attaches to surface of basophils and mast cells

142
Q

IgD

A

located on surface of B cells

143
Q

IgM

A

first type of antibody secreted after antigen arrives; has 5 antibody starburst (pentamer)

144
Q

IgA

A

found in mucus and tears; exists as a dimer (2 chains)

145
Q

each Y antibody has what two regions?

A

a variable region and a constant region

146
Q

what is the variable region?

A

has one set of light chains and one set of heavy chains and has the antigen binding site(can change)

147
Q

what is the constant region?

A

has a macrophage binding site and complement binding site (does not change)

148
Q

what is the site called where the portion of the antigen, which recognizes and antibody binds to?

A

antigenic determinant site

A+P2 (3 decks)

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