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ABSC (pt. 2) > Blood (B1-B3) > Flashcards

Blood (B1-B3) Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two major components of plasma

A

water & solids (proteins, glucose, etc)

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2
Q

the chemical composition of plasma is very similar to this fluid in most tissues

A

interstitial fluid

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3
Q

these are the two extracellular fluids, one is intravascular and the other in extravascular

A

plasma and interstitial fluid

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4
Q

this is the process by which formation and development of all blood cells takes place

A

hematopoiesis

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5
Q

where does hematopoiesis take place in adult mammals

A

marrow of flat bones and ends of long bones

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6
Q

where does hematopoiesis take place in neonate and juvenile mammals

A

bone marrow of long bones

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7
Q

what 3 essential physiologic components are required for hematopoiesis

A
  1. stem cell pool
  2. hematopoietic inductive microenvironment
  3. hematopoietic cytokines
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8
Q

these are the hormones that regulate hematopoiesis

A

hematopoietic cytokines

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9
Q

the first step in hematopoietic differentiation involves a commitment of the stem cell to one of these two large pathways

A

myeloid or lymphoid

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10
Q

what is the earliest recognizable erythroid precursor

A

rubriblast

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11
Q

during the mitosis divisions of rubriblast to late precursors metarubricytes, what 3 things change on the progressive maturation of the nucleus and cytoplasm

A
  1. decreasing cell size
  2. increasing proportion of the cell occupied by cytoplasm (N:C ratio decreases)
  3. decreased cytoplasmic basophilia (decr in organelles, incr in hemoglobin content)
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12
Q

this is an immature, but non-nucleated RBC; larger than a mature RBC (higher MCV) and contain less Hb (low MCHC)

A

reticulocyte

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13
Q

this is the principle hormone regulating erythropoiesis; stimulates the increase of RBCs therefore increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

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14
Q

where is Erythropoietin (EPO) produced?

A

kidney (by the peritubular interstitial cells)

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15
Q

what are 4 major functions of Erythropoietin (EPO)

A
  1. proliferation of committed erythroid cells
  2. increases hemoglobin synthesis
  3. increases erythroid cell maturation rate
  4. stimulates early release of reticulocytes
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16
Q

what are the 3 major function of mature erythrocytes (RBCs)

A
  1. transport oxygen to tissues
  2. transport CO2 to lungs
  3. buffer hydrogen ions
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17
Q

how are the energy needs of RBCs met?

A

anaerobic glycolysis (no mitochondria)

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18
Q

what is the principle energy source for RBCs

A

glucose

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19
Q

the anaerobic glycolytic pathway produces a net gain of these 2 things

A

ATP & NADH

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20
Q

what is ATP used for in RBCs

A

to maintain osmotic stability

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21
Q

what is NADH used for in RBCs

A

in the process to keep iron molecules in a reduced state

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22
Q

this is a side pathway associated to anaerobic glycolysis which generates other products for erythrocyte metabolism:
produces 2,3-DPG which modulates affinity of hemoglobin for O2

A

DPG shunt

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23
Q

this is a side pathway associated to anaerobic glycolysis which generates other products for erythrocyte metabolism:
generates NADH, involved in maintenance of Fe and GSH in reduced states; GSH involved in protecting from oxidative injury

A

pentose phosphate pathway

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24
Q

the rate of iron absorption is influenced by the need for Fe in the body, and is controlled by this peptide secreted by hepatocytes

A

hepcidin

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25
Q

in plasma, nearly all Fe is bound to this

A

transferrin

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26
Q

this is a large tetramer protein formed by 2 alpha and two beta global chains, each linked to a heme molecule

A

hemoglobin

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27
Q

each Hb molecule has the capacity to carry this many oxygen molecules

A

4

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28
Q

why is the binding of the first oxygen molecule to hemoglobin difficult but then easier for the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th

A

conformational change in Hb structure with oxygenation

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29
Q

Hb (Fe3+) is referred to as this, which is non-functional as it is incapable of binding oxygen

A

methaemoglobin

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30
Q

what 2 things are needed in order to reduce methaemoglobin back to functional hemoglobin and prevent accumulation

A

methemoglobin reductase (Cb5R) and NADH

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31
Q

what are the three possible forms of oxidative injury to red cells

A
  1. oxidation of iron to cause methaemoglobinaemia
  2. oxidative denaturation of Hb to form Heinz bodies
  3. oxidative injury to membrane proteins
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32
Q

this is a reversible oxidative injury to RBCs, there is a brown discoloration of the blood and clinical signs of hypoxia

A

oxidation of iron to cause methaemoglobinaemia

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33
Q

this is an irreversible oxidative injury to RBCs, it is due to denaturation of the global part of Hb and is seen as small round projections from the surface of the RBC in blood smears

A

oxidative denaturation of Hb to form Heinz bodies

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34
Q

this is the rarest form of irreversible oxidative injury to RBCs, it is the most subtle and difficult to detect morphologically

A

oxidative injury to membrane proteins

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35
Q

this species have unique Hb structure which increases their sensitivity to oxidative injury; very susceptible to Hb oxidative denaturation and readily develop Heinz bodies

A

cats

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36
Q

what is the approximate erythrocyte lifespan in horse/cattle

A

150 days

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37
Q

what is the approximate erythrocyte lifespan in dogs

A

100 days

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38
Q

what is the approximate erythrocyte lifespan in cats

A

70 days

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39
Q

Heme breakdown leads to the formation of these 3 things

A
  1. bilirubin
  2. CO
  3. iron
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40
Q

unconjugated bilirubin (uBil) is transported in the blood, associated with albumin, to these cells where it is conjugated

A

hepatocytes

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41
Q

uBil is conjugated with this to form conjugated bilirubin (cBil)

A

glucuronide

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42
Q

conjugated bilirubin (cBil) is transported to the intestines with bile where it is degraded to this

A

urobilinogen

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43
Q

urobilinogen can either be absorbed by the intestine and excreted in urine or through bile - or it can be degraded to this and excreted in feces

A

stercobilinogen

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44
Q

this is the easiest and cheapest way to evaluate erythrocytes in blood; obtained by microcapillary tube centrifugation to measure the percentage of blood composed of RBCs

A

packed cell volume (PCV)

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45
Q

this is often used interchangeably with PCV (packed cell volume) and is quite similar but is calculated by automated analyzers based upon average RBC size and number

A

hematocrit (Htc)

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46
Q

as a rule of thumb, hemoglobin in mammals should e roughly this fraction of the hematocrit (Hct)

A

1/3

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47
Q

a decrease in PCV, RBC, and Hb is termed this and could be due to RBC loss or lysis, or to decreased bone marrow production of RBCs

A

anaemia

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48
Q

an increase in PCV, RBC, and Hb is termed this and is most frequently due to dehydration

A

erythrocytosis

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49
Q

this is the average volume of erythrocytes

A

mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

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50
Q

this means that the size of erythrocytes (the mean corpuscular volume-MCV) is within reference interval for the species

A

normocytic

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51
Q

this means the size of erythrocytes is increased, so MCV is low

A

macrocytic

52
Q

this means the size of erythrocytes is decreased, so MCV is high

A

microcytic

53
Q

this means the size of erythrocytes is decreased, so MCV is low

A

microcytic

54
Q

this is the average concentration of RBC Hb on a weight per volume basis

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

55
Q

this means the cell Hb content (color), or MCHC value, is within the reference interval for the species

A

normochromic

56
Q

this means the cell Hb (color) is decreases, so MCHC is low - reticulocytes have a slightly lower Hb content

A

MCHC

57
Q

what are the two main categories of leukocytes

A

granulocytes and mononuclear cells

58
Q

these are leukocytes with granules in their cytoplasm, the granules have different staining characteristics allowing them to be distinguished

A

granulocytes

59
Q

what is the other name used for granulocytes bc they have lobulated nucleus

A

polymorphonuclear cells

60
Q

what are the 3 types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

61
Q

what are the two types of mononuclear cells

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

62
Q

what are the two most common leukocytes

A

neutrophils and lymphocytes

63
Q

where does the majority of leukopoiesis for granulocytes and monocytes occur

A

bone marrow

64
Q

where does the majority of leukopoiesis for lymphocytes occur

A

extra medullary sites (spleen, lymph nodes, GALT)

65
Q

what are leukocyte precursors (and all hematopoietic cells) derived from

A

stem cells

66
Q

what 3 major marrow pools are neutrophil precursors present in

A
  1. mitotic pool
  2. maturation pool
  3. storage pool
67
Q

what is the mitotic pool in relation to where neutrophil precursors are present in the bone marrow

A

where cells divide while maturing

68
Q

what is the maturation pool in relation to where neutrophil precursors are present in the bone marrow

A

where cells continue maturation but have lost ability to multiply

69
Q

what is the storage pool in relation to where neutrophil precursors are present in the bone marrow

A

where mature neutrophils are stored

70
Q

this gives the total number of leukocytes

A

total white blood cell count

71
Q

what is it called if there is an increase in total WBCs

A

leukocytosis

72
Q

what is is called if there is a decrease in total WBCs

A

leukopenia

73
Q

this represents the differentiation of leukocytes in the 5 categories (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes)

A

differential count

74
Q

what are the 3 aspects that must be involved when evaluating the leukocytes in blood?

A
  1. total white blood cell count
  2. differential count
  3. morphology
75
Q

when in the blood vessels, what are the two main pools neutrophils are present in

A

marginal pool and circulating pool

76
Q

these leukocytes’ nuclei have condensed dark purple chromatin that is segmented into lobes connected by filaments; cytoplasm is generally colorless and granules do not stain

A

neutrophils

77
Q

this is an immature neutrophil with a curved (C or S-shaped) nucleus

A

band neutrophil

78
Q

what does a “left shift” refer to in terms of circulating neutrophils

A

increase in circulating band neutrophils

79
Q

what is the presence of left shift (increase in circulating band neutrophils) indicative of?

A

inflammation or infection in the body

80
Q

what 4 things can represent toxic changes (morphological abnormalities of the cytoplasm) of neutrophils

A
  1. increased cytoplasmic basophilia
  2. Döhle bodies
  3. foamy cytoplasm
  4. toxic granules
81
Q

what are Döhle bodies (toxic change in neutrophil cytoplasm)

A

aggregates of rough ER

82
Q

what is an increase in the absolute numbers of neutrophils called

A

neutrophilia

83
Q

what are 3 common causes of neutrophilia

A
  1. catecholamine-mediated stress
  2. corticosteroid-induced
  3. inflammation
84
Q

what is a decrease in the absolute numbers of neutrophils called

A

neutropenia

85
Q

what are 4 common causes of neutropenia

A
  1. acute severe inflammation
  2. endotoxemia
  3. reduced neutrophil production in the marrow
  4. increased peripheral destruction
86
Q

acute severe inflammation can lead to this, which is characterized by presence of an absolute number of immature neutrophils that exceeds the absolute number of segmented neutrophils

A

degenerative left shift

87
Q

these reproduced by some gram-negative bacteria and can cause a rapid shift of neutrophils from the circulating to the marginal pool in blood vessels by promoting adhesion to endothelial cells, leading to neutropenia

A

endotoxins

88
Q

these are sophisticated immune cells involved in both cellular and humoral immunity, arise from pluripotent stem cells that diverge at an early stage

A

lymphocytes

89
Q

where does lymphopoiesis mainly take place

A

peripheral lymphoid tissue

90
Q

what are the 3 types of lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, NK (natural killer) cells

91
Q

these leukocytes are small round cells with a round nucleus, dense chromatin, and a scant rim of clear to pale blue cytoplasm

A

lymphocytes

92
Q

these lymphocytes are larger with deeply basophilic (blue) cytoplasm and course (mature) chromatin patter; nuclei can appear convoluted; associated with immune response and are fairly common in young animals

A

reactive lymphocytes

93
Q

an increase in the absolute numbers of lymphocytes is called this

A

lymphocytosis

94
Q

name 5 causes of lymphocytosis

A
  1. catecholamine-mediated stress
  2. young animals
  3. chronic inflammation
  4. endocrine disorders
  5. lymphoid neoplasia
95
Q

a decrease in the absolute numbers of lymphocytes is called this

A

lymphopenia

96
Q

name 3 causes of lymphopenia

A
  1. corticosteroid-induced
  2. acute inflammation
  3. excess loss
97
Q

monocytes are produced here

A

bone marrow

98
Q

monocytes migrate to tissues where they differentiate into these two cells

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

99
Q

what are the 3 major functions of monocytes (& macrophages/dendritic cells)

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. antigen presentation
  3. immunomodulation
100
Q

these leukocytes have variably-shaped nuclei (rounded, bean-shaped, band-shaped or convoluted), chromatin is less dense compared to neutrophils, and moderate amount of blue-grey cytoplasm frequently containing variably-sized vacuoles

A

monocytes

101
Q

an increase in the absolute numbers of monocytes is called this

A

monocytosis

102
Q

what are 2 causes of monocytosis

A
  1. inflammation
  2. corticosteroid-mediated
103
Q

these leukocytes are primarily involved in the defense against parasites, and in allergic reactions

A

eosinophils

104
Q

these leukocytes have a segmented nucleus and orange/pink granules in the cytoplasm

A

eosinophils

105
Q

this is the process which forms a blood clot at areas of endothelial damage or vascular injury to stop bleeding and facilitate repair of the injured site

A

haemostasis

106
Q

primary hemostasis consists of these two phases

A

vascular phase and platelet phase

107
Q

what two components are involved with primary hemostasis

A

blood vessels and platelets

108
Q

these are small anucleated cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes

A

platelets

109
Q

the main growth factor that regulates production of platelets is this

A

thrombopoietin (TPO)

110
Q

this is the main initial response following injury to a blood vessel to reduce and slow blood flow; it is caused by contraction of smooth muscle of the vessel wall due to local natural reflexes

A

vasoconstriction

111
Q

reduced blood flow allows these to accumulate at the site of injury in blood vessels

A

platelets

112
Q

the platelet phase of primary hemostasis consists of a series of processes that lead to the formation of this

A

platelet plug

113
Q

this is one of the main components involved in platelet adhesion; found in plasma and in the sub-endothelium

A

von Willebrand factor (vWF)

114
Q

what two things happen when platelets are activated

A
  1. undergo a shape change
  2. release their granular content
115
Q

name 2 anticoagulant factors synthesized by normal endothelial cells to prevent coagulation

A

nitric oxide (NO) and prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)

116
Q

coagulation factors during secondary hemostasis are mostly produced by this organ and circulate in the blood in their inactive forms

A

liver

117
Q

what element is required for nearly all the reactions in the coagulation cascade

A

calcium

118
Q

this is the final product of the coagulation cascade, which strengthens the platelet plug and stops further hemorrhage

A

cross-linked fibrin

119
Q

what are the two branches or pathways of the coagulation cascade

A

intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways

120
Q

in vivo coagulation is mainly initiated by exposure of this, expressed on sub-endothelial cells such as fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

A

tissue factor (TF)

121
Q

in this pathway of coagulation, small amount of thrombin amplifies its own production by activation of factor XI

A

intrinsic pathway

122
Q

this pathway of coagulation rapidly generates small amounts of thrombin

A

extrinsic pathway

123
Q

in this pathway of coagulation, there is generation of thrombin, which then cleaves circulating fibrinogen to generate fibrin monomers - activate factor XIII which catalyzes the formation of bonds between adjacent fibrin monomers to generate cross-linked fibrin

A

common pathway

124
Q

this is an important anticoagulant factor that is complexed with heparin molecules produced and associated with endothelial cells ; it is the major thrombin inhibitor

A

antithrombin (AT)

125
Q

this causes dissolution of the fibrin clot once the damaged blood vessel is repaired, which re-establishes normal vascular potency

A

fibrinolysis (tertiary hemostasis)

126
Q

fibrinolysis is mostly activated by this, which is released by damaged endothelial cells - it activates plasminogen to plasmin

A

tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

ABSC (pt. 2) (4 decks)

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