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Embryo first semester 23-24 > Block II develop of MSK > Flashcards

Block II develop of MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What does the paraxial mesoderm separate into?

A

into blocks called somites

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2
Q

What are the functions of somites? (general)

A

Determines the migration path of the neural crest cells and spinal nerves axons

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3
Q

What structures do somites give rise to?

A

Gives rise to vertebrae, ribs, skeletal muscle of the body walls and limbs

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4
Q

What dies the lateral plate mesoderm (lpm) do?

A
  • Forms all connective tissue (i.e., Cartilages, ligaments, etc.)
  • Blood vessels, and bones of the appendicular skeleton (i.e., Limb bones and bones of limb girdles) and sternum
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5
Q

At what week does the skeletal system start to develop?

A

4th week

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6
Q

How does the skeletal system start to develop?

A

Develops from paraxial, lateral plate mesoderm and neural crest cells

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7
Q

In the paraxial mesoderm, what do somites differentiate into?

A

differentiate into: Sclerotome & Dermomyotome

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8
Q

What type of cells do the sclerotome give rise to?

A

Cells form the vertebrae and ribs
(ventromedial part)

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9
Q

What type of cells do the dermomyotome give rise to?

A

Cells from its myotome region form myoblasts (primordial muscle cells);
those from its dermatome region form the dermis. (dorsolateral part)

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10
Q

By the end of week 4, what does the sclerotome turn into?

A

Sclerotome becomes mesenchyme

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11
Q

The mssenchymal cells from the sclerotome differentiate into what 3 primary bone strcutures?

A

Mesenchymal cells migrate and differentiate in fibroblast, chondroblasts or osteoblasts. (End of week 4)

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12
Q

What happens with cell in the head region by the end of week 4?

A

Messenchyme are present for head region and they are derived from neural crest cells

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13
Q

Where do messenchyme from head region migrate to?

A

Migrate into the pharyngeal arches and
form the bones and connective tissue of
craniofacial structures

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14
Q

identify

A

sclerotome, dermatome, myotome

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15
Q

What are the two types of bone ossification?

A

Intramembranous & endochondrial

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16
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Mesenchymal condensation in the dermis differentiates into bone
-ex. flat bones of skull

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17
Q

What is endochondrial ossification?

A

Mesenchymal cells first gives rise to a hyaline cartilage models
-ex. long bones, skull base bones

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18
Q

What is the major type of protein present in cartilage and bone extracellular matrix?

A

Collagen type I fibers embedded in amorphous component

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19
Q

Explain intamembranous ossification

A

-Mesenchymal cells condensate
-Osteoblasts secrete the organic matrix
(osteoid)
-Calcium phosphate is then deposited and
the matrix reorganized into compact bone
-Osteoblasts in the osteoid become
osteocytes.
-Continuous remodeling of bone occurs at
fetal and postnatal life due to the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

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20
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

sternum/calvaria

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21
Q

What is an ostioid?

A

Matrix of bone

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22
Q

In the process of intramembranous ossification, what do messenchymal cells turn into?

A

osteoblasts

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23
Q

What structure gives flat bones its structure?

A

Trabeculae

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24
Q

What is the “old” version of osteoblasts?

A

osteocytes

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25
Q

What type of bones does endochondrial ossification work?

A

long bones

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26
Q

Explain endochondrial ossification

A

-Ossification of the limbs
-Mesenchyme cells begin to condense and differentiate into chondrocytes
-Chondrocytes form a cartilaginous model of the prospective bone
-Primary Ossification Center
-Secondary Ossification Center

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27
Q

Where does primary ossification occur?

A

body of bone; where blood vessels invade the center of the cartilaginous model, bringing osteoblasts at the diaphysis

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28
Q

Where does secondary ossification occur?

A

blood vessels invade the epiphyses

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29
Q

By what is the Growth of the bones maintained?

A

by proliferation of chondrocytes in
the growth plates

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30
Q

Where does the cranium develop from?

A

develops from mesenchyme around the developing brain

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31
Q

What does the cranium consists of?

A

-Neurocranium
-Viscerocranium

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32
Q

What are the divisions of the neurocranium?

A

membranous part and cartilaginous part

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33
Q

What does the membranous part of the neurocranium do?

A

Forms a protective case around the brain
via intramembrabous ossification

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34
Q

What does the cartilaginous part of the neurocranium do?

A

-AKA chondrocranium
-Endochondral ossification forms the bones of the base of the cranium

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35
Q

What does the viscerocranium do?

A
  • Forms the skeleton of the face
  • Mainly form by the first two pharyngeal
    arches
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36
Q

What are other structures of the cranium?

A

calvaria
sutures
fontanellas

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37
Q

What is the calvaria?

A

the cranial vault

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38
Q

how does the calvaria form?

A

formed by intramembranous ossification in the mesenchyme at the sides and top of the brain

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39
Q

What are the sutures?

A

Fibrous joints composed of dense connective tissue that joins the flat bones

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40
Q

what are the fontanellas?

A

-6 large fibrous areas where several sutures meet
* The softness of the bones and their loose connections at the sutures enable the calvaria to undergo changes in shape (“molding”) during birth

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41
Q

identify

A
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42
Q

identify

A
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43
Q

what tissue does the fontanellas have?

A

cartilage

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44
Q

What is acrania?

A

Absent calvaria (no parietal bones, temporal bones or frontal bones) without defects of the vertebral column.

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45
Q

identify

A

acrania

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46
Q

what is acrania associated with?

A

anencephaly (partial absence of the brain)

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47
Q

What is the cause of acrania?

A

results from failure of the cranial end of the neural tube to close during the 4th week of development

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48
Q

identify

A

craniosynostosis

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49
Q

What is craniosynostosis

A

Most cranial deformities that result from premature closure of the cranial sutures; more common in males than in females;
prenatal closure results in the most severe abnormalities.

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50
Q

What are the causes of craniosynostosis?

A

Mutations of the transcription factors MSX2, TWIST1 and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFR1, FGFR2 and FGFR3)
have been implicated in cases of craniosynostosis and other cranial deformities [closure of notochord]

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51
Q

What is scaphocephaly?

A

type of crabiosynostosis, Premature closure of the sagittal suture (skull becomes long and narrow); constitutes 57% of all cases. compatible with life.

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52
Q

What is brachychephaly?

A

type of craniosynostosis; premature closure of the coronal suture results in a short skull.

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53
Q

What is plagiocephaly?

A

type of craniosynostosis; the coronal or lambdoid suture closes prematurely on one side only (cranium is twisted and asymmetric).

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54
Q

Causes of plagiochephaly?

A

Regulation of suture closure involves secretion of various isoforms of transforming growth factor-β

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55
Q

identify

A

plagiocephaly

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56
Q

identify

A

brachycephaly

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57
Q

identify

A

plagiocephaly

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58
Q

Where does vertebral column originate from?

A

from the sclerotome portions of the somite

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59
Q

What takes place during the 4th week regArding vertebral column development?

A

Sclerotomes migrate around the spinal cord and notochord to contribute with the vertebrae formation.

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60
Q

What constitutes the future vertebral body?

A

Mesenchymal tissue formed by the fusion of the remaining densely packed cells with the loosely arranged cells of the immediately caudal sclerotome

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61
Q

What constitutes the future intervertebral discs?

A

formed by densely packed cells which move cranially, opposite the center of the myotome

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62
Q

What does the condensation of sclerotome result in?

A

sale la vertebra

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63
Q

How does the nucleus pulpous form?

A
  • the gelatinous center of the IV disc formed by the expansion of the notochord between the vertebrae
  • It emerges when the notochord degenerates and disappears where it is surrounded by the developing vertebral bodies.
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64
Q

How does the anulus fibrous form?

A

formed by circularly-arranged fibers that surround the nucleus pulposus;

IV disc = nucleus pulposus + anulus fibrosus

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65
Q

What are chondrification centers?

A

appear in each mesenchymal vertebra during 6th week.

two chondrifications centers fuse to form a cartilaginous central region

66
Q

what are primary ossification centers of vertebral body?

A

when the centers in the vertebral arches fuse with each other

67
Q

When does vertebral ossification begin?

A

during 8th week

68
Q

What are the vertebral body ossifications centers?

A

Two primary ossification centers (ventral and dorsal) for the vertebral body which then fuse to form one center

69
Q

What are the vertebral arch ossifications centers?

A

Two primary ossification centers one in each half of the vertebral arch.

70
Q

What the ossification centers end up with?

A

3 primary ossification centers
- 1 in the vertebral body or centrum
-2 in the vertebral arches (one in each half of the vertebral arch)

71
Q

what is the neurocentral joint?

A

cartilaginous articulation betweeb the vertebral arch and the centrum that allows bone to grow; these arches fuse with the body durin ages 3-6

72
Q

When does Bony halves of the vertebral arch and where does fusion starts?

A

ages 3-5 approx;

Fusion starts in the lumbar region and then progresses cranially

73
Q

what happens to vertebral column development during puberty?

A

Five second ossification centers appear

74
Q

What are the 5 second ossification centers

A
  • one at the tip of the spinous process
  • one at the tip of each transverse process
  • two anular epiphyses (superior and inferior rim of the vertebral body)
  • All secondary centers fuse around age 25
75
Q

Where do ribs develop from?

A

from the mesenchymal costal processes of the thoracic vertebrae [transverse process]

76
Q

how do ribs ossify?

A

They become cartilaginous during
the embryonic period and ossify during the fetal period.

77
Q

What happens to the original site of union of costal process with vertebrae?

A

is replaced by costovertebral joints.

78
Q

What are the sternal bars?

A

the begin to chondrify and fuse as ribs become connected and fuse with sternum

79
Q

What is hemivertebra?

A

-Failure of one of the chondrification centers to appear as a consequence there is failure of half of the vertebra to form

-Scoliosis produced by this vertebral defect

80
Q

What is rachischisis?

A

Vertebral abnormality produced by the failure of the neural folds to fuse (doesnt close, spinal cord exposed)

Etiology: lack of proper induction by notochord or exposure to teratogenic agents

81
Q

identify

A

Cranioschisis (orange)
Rachischis (blue)

82
Q

identify

A

Rachischis

83
Q

Where does the muscular system develop from?

A

mesodermal germ layer

84
Q

What are te types of muscles that emerge from the mesodermal germ layer?

A

Skeletal muscle
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle

85
Q

Where does the skeletal muscle derive from?

A
  • Derived from paraxial mesoderm
  • Form somites from occipital to the sacral region and somitomeres head
86
Q

Where does the smooth muscle derive from?

A
  • Derived from visceral splanchnic mesoderm
  • Pupil, mammary glands and sweat gland muscles
87
Q

Where does the cardiac muscle derive from?

A

Derived from visceral splanchnic mesoderm

88
Q

In what does the myotome divide into?

A

Dorsal epaxial
Ventral hypaxial

89
Q

What does the ventral hypaxial give rise to?

A
  • Gives rise to body wall muscles( abdomen and thorax)
  • Upper and lower limb muscles [flexors and extensors]
90
Q

What does the dorsal epaxial give rise to?

A

Gives rise to back muscles

91
Q

What genes are important for development of hypaxial muscles?

A

MyoD

92
Q

What genes are important for development of epaxial muscles?

A

MYF-5

93
Q

What are MyoD and MYF-5 important for?

A

Both genes are involved in the
development of the abdominal and intercostal muscles.

94
Q

WHat is myogenesis?

A

muscle formation; Starts with the elongation of the nuclei and cell bodies of
mesenchymal cells as they differentiate into myoblasts (primordial muscle cells).

95
Q

What are myotubes?

A

Elongated, multinucleated, cylindrical structures formed by the fusion of myoblasts

96
Q

WHat regulates the beginning of myogenesis an induction of myotome?

A

Signaling molecules from the ventral tube (SHH), notochord (Noggin), dorsal neural tube (WNTs, NT-3), and the overlying ectoderm (BMP-4, WNT)

97
Q

What are myoblasts?

A

embryonic muscle cells derived from mesenchyme

98
Q

How does muscle growth occur?

A

Muscle growth during development results
from the ongoing fusion of myoblasts and
myotubes.

99
Q

What are myofilaments?

A

develop in the cytoplasm of the myotubes during or after fusion of the myoblasts; soon after that, myofibrils and other organelles characteristic of striated muscle
cells develop.

100
Q

When do most skeletal muscles develop?

A

Most skeletal muscle develops before birth, and almost all remaining muscles are
formed by the end of the 1st year

101
Q

Where does smooth muscles differentiate from?

A

splanchnic mesenchyme surrounding the endoderm of the primordial gut and its derivatives [autonomic system]

102
Q

What is the serum response factor (SRF)

A

Activates the genetic cascade responsible for smooth muscle development

103
Q

Where do vessels from smooth muscles derive?

A

arises from somatic mesoderm

104
Q

When do smooth muscles receive autonomic innervation?

A

As smooth muscle fibers develop into sheets or bundles

105
Q

Where do cardiac muscle develops from?

A

Develops from the lateral splanchnic mesoderm, which gives rise to the mesenchyme surrounding the developing heart tube

106
Q

Which cells form first in the cardiac muscle development and from where do they differentiate?

A

cardiac myoblasts; differentiate from this primordial myocardium

107
Q

Where do cardiac muscle fibers come from?

A

arise by differentiation and growth of single cells, unlike striated muscle fibers, which develop by fusion of cells

108
Q

Growth of cardiac muscle fibers result from?

A

the formation of new myofilaments

109
Q

What are intercalated discs?

A

areas of adhesion between myoblasts in which the intervening cell membrane does not disintegrate

110
Q

Where do purkinje cells come from?

A

form the conducting system of the heart

111
Q

What are purkinje cells?

A

atypical cardiac muscle cells which develop less myofibrils and are larger in diameter than typical cardiac muscle fibers

112
Q

identify

A

intercalated discs

113
Q

When do limbs become visible?

A

4th week

114
Q

What is the emergence of the limbs?

A
  1. Parietal (somatic) layer of lateral plate mesoderm
  2. Apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
115
Q

What does the Parietal (somatic) layer of lateral plate mesoderm form?

A

-bones and connective tissues of the limbs

-Covered by a layer of cuboidal ectoderm

116
Q

What is the AER?

A

-Ectoderm at the distal border of the limb thickens

-Also known as undifferentiated zone

-As the limb grows cells begin to differentiate Into cartilage and muscle

117
Q

Identify

A
118
Q
A
119
Q

identify

A

upper limb 5th week

120
Q

identify

A

upper limb 6th week

121
Q

identify

A

upper limb 8th week

122
Q

identify

A

lower limb 8th week

123
Q

how does development of limbs proceed?

A

proximo-distally into its three components:
-stylopod
-zeugopod
-autopod

124
Q

What does Stylopod develop?

A

humerus and femur

125
Q

What does zeugopod develop?

A

radius/ulna and tibia/fibula

126
Q

What does autopod develop?

A

carpels, metacarpals, digits/tarsals, digits/metatarsals

127
Q

What happens to the upper limb during week 6?

A
  1. Limb buds becomes flattened to form the hand and footplates
  2. Separated from the proximal segment by a circular constriction

3.First hyaline cartilage models, foreshadowing the bones of the extremities

  1. Joints are formed in the cartilaginous condensations
128
Q

What happens to the upper limb during the 8th week?

A
  1. By this time a second constriction [elbow] divides the proximal portion into two segments
  2. Fingers and toes are formed when cell
    death in the AER separates this ridge into five parts
129
Q

When does morphogenesis of lower limb occur?

A

lower limb is approximately 1 to 2 days behind

130
Q

What happens with the position of the upper limb?

A

Upper limb rotates 90° laterally [anatomical position]
* Extensor muscles lie on the lateral and posterior surface
* The thumbs lie laterally

131
Q

What happens with the position of the lower limb?

A

Lower limb rotates approximately 90° medially [queda pa dentro]
* Placing the extensor muscles on the anterior surface
* The big toe lies medially

132
Q

Where do muscle cells for the limbs derived from somites come from in the upper limb?

A

Segments C5-T2

133
Q

Where do muscle cells for the limbs derived from somites come from in the lower limb?

A

Segments L2-S2

134
Q

What is the function of the lateral plate mesoderm?

A
  1. Determines the elongation of the limb buds
  2. The muscle tissue first splits into flexor and extensor components
135
Q

Muscles of the limbs are innervated by?

A

ventral primary rami

136
Q

how does the ventral primary rami divide and what does it give rise to?

A

-Initially divide to form dorsal and ventral branches to these compartments

  • Eventually they will give rise to:
    1. Radial n. (Dorsal segmental branches)
    2. Ulnar n. (Ventral branches)
    3. Median n. (Ventral branches)
137
Q

Where does brachial plexus surge from?

A

ventral primary ramus

138
Q

Mention the functions of the spinal nerves

A
  1. Provide motor innervation for the muscles
  2. Provide sensory innervation through the dermatomes
  3. Reflect the original segmental pattern of the somites and demonstrate the early association of individual spinal nerves with
    the derivatives of each dermomyotome
139
Q

Which are the molecular regulators of the limbs FOR DIFFERENTIATION?

A

Retinoic acid
HOXA11
HOXA13

140
Q

What does retinoic acid do?

A

Acts as morphogen to initiate the genetic cascade that differentiation of the stylopod [proximal bones]

141
Q

What is MEIS1?

A

transcription factor involved with retinoic acid

142
Q

What does HOXA11 do?

A

Differentiation gene of the zeugopod [radio/ulna; tibia/fibula]

143
Q

What does HOXA13 do?

A

Differentiation gene of the autopod [distal]

144
Q

What happens to AER?

A

It degenerates to expose the digits of the hand

145
Q

Which are the molecular regulators of the limbs FOR Growth factors?

A
  1. Fibroblast growth factor 10 (FGF10)
  2. FGF4 & FGF8
146
Q

What does Fibroblast growth factor 10 (FGF10) do and by what is it secreted?

A
  • Secreted by lateral plate mesoderm cells
  • Initiates limbs outgrowth
147
Q

What does FGF4 & FGF8 do and by what are they secreted?

A
  • Secreted by the ridge
  • Maintain the undifferentiated zone
148
Q

What does factor SHH do?

A

-Contributes to specification of the antero-posterior axis
-Digits appear in the proper order

149
Q

Whta do BMPs do?

A

regulate dorsoventral axis (posterior part)

150
Q

What do HOX genes do?

A

Regulate the types and shapes of the bones of the limb

151
Q

What is the most critical period for limb development?

A

4th and 5th weeks

152
Q

What is Amelia?

A

Complete absence of one or more of the extremities

153
Q

What is phacomelia?

A

Absent long bones, and rudimentary hands or feet are attached to the trunk by small, irregularly shaped bones

154
Q

What is Syndactyly?

A

Two or more fingers or toes are fused

155
Q

What is polydactyly?

A
  • Presence of extra fingers or toes
  • Extra digits frequently lack proper muscle connections
156
Q

identify

A

Amelia

157
Q

identify

A

Phacomelia

158
Q

identify

A

Syndactyly

159
Q

identify

A

Polydactyly

160
Q
A

Embryo first semester 23-24 (9 decks)

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