Block I And II Review Flashcards

1
Q

Where are Nm receptors found

A

Somatic skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does succinylcholine work

A

Nm receptors on skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bethanechol

A
  • bowels and bladder
  • used for pts with urinary retention and gastric atony
  • M agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pyridostigmine

A
  • Tx for MG
  • works on No receptor
  • doesn’t enter CNS, no convulsions
  • Achase inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Autoimmune disease where Ab to the Na receptors are produced; it causes weakness in skeletal muscles especially in the facial area

A

MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Toxicity of Achase inhibitors

A

DUMBBEELSS: diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, excitation (of skeletal muscle and CNS), emesis, lacrimation, salivation, and sweating

Toxicity resembles too much parasympathetic stimulation + sweating + nicotinic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for Achase inhibitors

A

Atropine
-blocks M, doesn’t stop any Nm

Pralidoxime used in extreme cases to keep diaphragm from stoping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Atropine

A
  • M blocker
  • belladonna alkaloid
  • central and PNS
  • used for Achase inhibitor poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tropicamide

A
  • shorter half life
  • dilated eye exam
  • M blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Succinylcholine

A
  • Nm blocker that persistently stimulates skeletal muscle until it causes paralysis (depolarizing)
  • can cause hyperkalemia
  • can cause malignant hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epi

A
  • a1,a2,B1,B2 agonist
  • low dose: beta, decrease BP
  • high doses: alpha, increase BP
  • used for anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phenylephrine

A

A1 agonist

  • increases BP, reflex Brady
  • dilated eye exam
  • nasal decongestant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Prazosin

A
  • blocks a1a receptors
  • used for BPH and HTN
  • may cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

No specific B blockers

A

N-Zolols

-bad for COPD and vasospatic angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

B1 specific blockers

A

A-Molols

-atenolol and metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Alpha 1 and B blockers

A

Labetolol and carvedolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sotalol

A

B blocker, K channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Clinical uses of B blockers

A
Glaucoma
HTN (2nd line)
CHF (1st line)
SVTs
Stable angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vasospastic angina and B blockers

A

Never use!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the best combo for CHF

A

ACEI and BBlocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adverse effects of B blockers

A
  • bronchoconstriction
  • hypotension, bradycardia, fatigue, drowsiness
  • increased plasma lipids;TGs and LDLs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs for HTN increase lipids?

A

B blockers and Thiazieds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which drugs could cause increased GI motility

A

Bethanechol

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drugs could decrease GI motility

A

Atropine

Tropicamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which drugs lower BP

A

Prazosin
Atenolol,metoprolol
M agonist (bethanechol)
Epi in low doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What drugs would raise BP

A

Epi in high doses

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Competitive antagonism

A

Right shift

-maximal effect is not decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Non competitive antagonism

A

Maximal effect is shifted down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Potentiation

A

Curve shifts left

Allosteric agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Refers to the concentration required to produce 50% of that drugs maximal response (EC50)

A

Potency

-the graph most left is the most potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Reflects the upper limit response relation on the response axis (Emax)

A

Efficacy

-height, tallest curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When pH is less than PKA, the protonated forms __________ dominate

A

HA and BH+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When pH is greater than PJa, the deprtonates form ________ predominate

A

A- and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Increased urine pH

A

Acid is ionized, gets eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Decreased urine pH

A

Base gets ionized, gets eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Weeks acid overdoes

A

Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Weak base overdoes

A

NH4Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do we want to manipulate to correct ph balance

A

Urine ph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stomach ph

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Small intestine ph

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Blood ph

A

7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Urine ph

A

5-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does a p450 inducer do to active drug

A

Enhances metabolism

-decreases drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does a P450 inhibitor do to active drug

A

Increases drug effects and toxicity, stops metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does a P450 inducer do to a prodrug

A

Makes it moire active, increase effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does a p450 inhibitor do to prodrug

A

Decrease effect, stays inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CYP inducers

A

Benzopyrenes
Chronic ethanol
Carbamazepine
Rifampin

48
Q

CYP inhibitors

A

Cimetidine
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice

49
Q

A patient is taking warfarin and is later Rxed cimetidine fro peptic ulcers, what happens?

A

Increased warfarin toxicity=bleeding

50
Q

First order elimination

A
  • most drugs
  • constant fraction eliminated
  • constant half life
51
Q

Zero order elimination

A
  • phenytoin
  • ethanol
  • aspirin
  • constant amount elimainted
  • half life not constant
52
Q

Steady state

A

4-5 half lives

Function of a drugs half life

53
Q

Half way to steady state

A

One half life

54
Q

75% to steady state

A

2 half lives

55
Q

Maintainece dose has to do with: clearance or Vd?

A

Clearance

56
Q

Loading dose has to do with: clearance or volume of distribution?

A

Vd

57
Q

Normally, acetaminophen has a Vd=70L and Cl=350mL/min. If acetaminophen was administered to a patient with 50% normal rental function, what parameter would differ from normal

A

Md would be lower

58
Q

A 55 year old women with HTN is to be started on a thiazides diuretic. Thiazides A in a does of 5 Mg produces the same decrease in BP as 500mg of thiazide B, which two statements are accurate about these drugs

A
  • both drugs have equal efficacy

- A is about 100x more potent than B

59
Q

We start an IV infusion of a drug using a pump that ensures that rate of delivery of drug over time is constant. Which of the following factors determines how long it takes for the drug to reach steady state concentration in the blood

A

Half life

60
Q

A patient is admitted for treatment of drug overdoes. It is observed that when the urine pH is acidic the renal clearance of the drug is less than the GFR. When the urine pH is alkaline, the clearance is greater than the GFR. The drug is probably a

A

Weak acid

61
Q

Dopamine via D1 receptors, epinephrine via B2 receptors, and histamine via H2 receptors are important transmitters. When these ligand interact with their cellular receptors, how do they mainly elicit their responses

A

Activating adenlyl cyclase

62
Q

Initial fluid loss, long term vasodilation via hyperpolarization of smooth muscle

A

Thiazides

HCTZ

63
Q

What CCBs are good for the heart

A

Verapamil

64
Q

Which CCB is good for both heart and vessels

A

Diltiazem

65
Q

Which CCB is good for the vessels

A

Amlodipine

66
Q

What does amlodipine do

A

Vasodilator, reflex tachycardia

67
Q

Decreases production of ang II, decreased aldosterone, vasodilation

A

ACEI
Lisinopril
-blocks ACE

68
Q

ACEI and bradykinin

A

Causes dry cough

69
Q

What accumulates when you take lisinopril

A

ANG I

70
Q

Block the action of Ang II, decrease aldosteron, vasodilation

A

ARBs

Losartan

71
Q

What happens in cardiac failure to compensate?

A

Increase Blood volume
Increase end diastolic volume (Preload)

Increase HR

Increase arteriolar constriction (AFTERLOAD)

72
Q

What do we want to do to decrease preload in CHF

A

HCTZ, furosemide, lisinopril, losartan

Lisinopril and losartan act like diuretics because they stop aldosterone so lose Na+ and water, can also dilate veins

73
Q

What do we want to do to decrease heart rate in CHF

A

Metoprolol

B blocker to control HR

74
Q

What do we want to do to decrease afterload in CHF

A

Lisinopril, losartan

-dilates arterioles

75
Q

What drug do we give for CHF that is a positive inotrope that will help improve contractility

A

Digoxin

76
Q

Which drug for CHF has a very low TI

A

Digoxin

77
Q

Cardiac remodeling in CHF

A

Fibrosis of the heart, want to stop this

78
Q

What drugs do we use to stop cardiac remodeling via aldosterone in CHF

A

Lisinopril, losartan, spironolactone

79
Q

Which drug stops aldosteron production and can help fight cardiac remodeling in CHF

A

Lisinopril and losartan

80
Q

Which drug blocks aldosteron receptors and can help stop cardiac remodeling in CHF

A

Spironlocatone

81
Q

When is digoxin used

A

CHRONIC CHF

82
Q

MOA of digoxin

A

Inhibits Na-K ATPas
Blocks pump= Na increase
Increases Na/Ca exchange
Brings more Ca in and goes to SR=stronger cardiac contractions

83
Q

Fast response AP

A

Atrial and ventricular muscle, Perkinje fibers

84
Q

What kind of drugs would you want to treat ventricular tachycardia

A

Drugs that ablock Na, K channels

-amiodarone

85
Q

Slow response AP

A

SA and AV nodes, supraventricular arryhtmias

86
Q

What kind of drugs to treat SVTs

A

Drugs that block Ca, beta blockers

87
Q

What CCB would you use for AVTs

A

Diltiazem

88
Q

What beta blockers would you use to treat SVT

A

Atenolol and metoprolol

-cause Ca channels to stay closed -decreased phase 4

89
Q

SVTs and digoxin

A

Has a PNS affect-slow HR down

-decrease phase 4 and 0

90
Q

Patient taking antiarrhymic drug, monitored for thyroid drug, which drug are they probably on

A

Amiodarone

  • iodine
  • thyroid problems
  • blue skin
  • eyes, liver, lungs
91
Q

Three classes of drugs effective for angina either alone or in combination for stable angina

A

Nitrates (nitroglycerin)
BBlockers
CCB (amlodipine or diltiazem)

92
Q

What kind of drug would you use prophylatcically for angina

A

BBlocker every day

93
Q

How do nitrates work on angina

A

Venodilation thereby decreasing preload

94
Q

How do BBlockers work on angina

A

Decrease the oxygen demands of the heart

95
Q

How do CCB work for angina

A

Cause vasodilation of smooth muscle or decrease HR

96
Q

Patients with variant angina, what are they preferred classes of drugs

A

Nitrates

CCB

97
Q

What kind of angina should you only use BBlockers in

A

Stable (not vasospasm)

98
Q

What is the drug of choice for acute angina attack

A

Nitroglycerin under the tongue

99
Q

MOA of statins

A

HmG CoA reductase inhibitors

-rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

100
Q

Side effect of statins

A

Mild muscle pain

101
Q

What is the drug of choice for hyperlipidemia

A

Atorvastatin

102
Q

Most common antiplatelt drug

A

Aspirin

103
Q

MOA of aspirin

A

Inhibits COX to stop TXA2

Stops platelets from aggregating

104
Q

What drug is common to use in mini strokes

A

Aspirin

105
Q

Anticoagulant drugs

A

Warfarin

Rivaroxaban

106
Q

Synthesis inhibitor of vit K

A

Warfarin

107
Q

What coagulation factors are affected by warfarin

A

Vit K dependent factors

2,7,9,10

108
Q

What do you give someone who has had too much warfarin

A

Vit K

109
Q

MOA of rivaroxaban

A

Blocks factor Xa, rapid onset

110
Q

Site of action of acetazolamide

A

Proximal convuluted tubule

111
Q

Site of action of furosemide

A

Ascending loop of Henle

112
Q

Site of action of thiazides

A

Distal convoluted tubule

113
Q

Site of action of sprinolactone

A

Collecting duct

114
Q

MOA of CAIs (acetazolamide)

A

PCT

  • block CA, cant get bicarbonate
  • H from the bicarbonate cant swap with the Na to get in the cell
  • blocks Na from getting in
115
Q

MOA of thiazides (HCTZ)

A

DCT

  • block Na/CL transporter
  • saves Ca
116
Q

MOA of loops (furosemide)

A

Block the Na/L/CL pump

-also lose Ca and Mg

117
Q

MOA of spironolactone

A

Blocks aldosterone receptors

  • not affecting Na
  • K sparing