Block 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Painless hematuria 2-3 days following an upper respiratory tract infection.

Diagnosis is made by detection of IgA deposits in mesangium of glomeruli on immunofluoresence microscopy.

Cola colored urine.

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IgA nephropathy w/ extra-renal syndrome

Skin: purpuric lesions on extensor surfaces of arms, legs, buttocks

GI: ab pain, vomiting, intestinal bleeding, intussusception

Renal: IgA nephropathy

A

Henloch-Schonlein disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

filtration fraction equation

A

FF = GFR/RPF

where RPF = RBF*(1-hematocrit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what amino acids is elastin made up of?

A

non-polar amino acids: glycine, alanine, valine

also contains proline and lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens to tropoelastin once it is in the extracellular space?

A

side chains of some of the lysine residues are covalently bound to form a desmosine crosslink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what accounts for elastin’s resilient properties?

A

extensive desmosine crosslinking (interchain crosslinks involving lysine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in what patients do you see acyclovir resistant VZV (thymidine kinase deficient) and what do you treat it with instead?

A

tends to only be in AIDS patients

treat with cidofovir because it only requires cellular kinases for activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe the mechanisms of acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir, and ganciclovir

A

they are all nucleoside analogs that require both herpes viral and cellular kinases for conversion to their active nucleoside triphosphate form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what nerve transmits information from the carotid sinus to the solitary nucleus of the medulla?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the effects of doing vagal maneuvers such as carotid sinus massage and valsalva?

A

increase in parasympathetic activity and decrease HR through increase in AV node refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the pathogenesis of Crohn’s disease

A

increased activity of Th1 helper cells –> increased production of IL-2, IFN-gamma, and TNF causing subsequent intestinal injury.

Non-caseating granulomas are characteristic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

crypt abscesses and ulcers, bleeding, no granulomas, Th2 mediated

A

ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

G-protein-linked receptors whose actions are mediated through various secondary messenger pathways

One identified pathway involves increased potassium efflux

A

mu opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

binding of morphine to mu receptors results in…

A

G protein-coupled activation of K+ conductance causing hyperpolarization of post-synaptic neurons, blocking pain transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes bile precipitation and biliary sludge?

A

gall bladder hypomotility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an integrase inhibitor that disrupts the ability of HIV to integrate its genome into the host’s chromosomes, thus preventing host cellular machinery from being used to synthesize HIV or mRNA

A

raltegravir

17
Q

what should you think with the following scenario:

a depressed patient who is getting treatment presents with hypotension, tachycardia, QRS prolongation, frequent premature beats

A

TCA overdose, which has quinidine-like effect on heart

18
Q

antidote to TCA overdose

A

hypertonic sodium bicarbinate (NaHCO3)

19
Q

results from an acquired mutation in the PIGA gene that causes absence of the GPI anchor and associated deficiency of CD55 & CD59 complement inhibitor proteins

causes anemia from complement activation

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

20
Q

what is the triad seen in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

1) hemolytic anemia
2) hypercoagulability
3) pancytopenia

21
Q

HIV gag gene

A

group-specific antigens in virion core, nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p7

22
Q

HIV pol gene

A

reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease

23
Q

HIV env gene

A

envelope glycoproteins gp120 & gp41

24
Q

structural genes of HIV

A

gag, pol, env

25
Q

regulatory genes of HIV

A

tat, rev, vif, vpr, nef, vpu

tat and rev are required for relication, the rest are not and are considered accessory genes

26
Q

in patients with essential fructosuria (fructokinase deficiency), what is the primary method of metabolizing dietary fructose?

A

metabolism of fructose by hexokinase to fructose-6-phosphate

27
Q

what is required for allergens to cause degranulation?

A

cross-linking of 2 IgE molecules on the surface of the cell by one molecule of allergen

28
Q

digoxin’s side effects

A
  • AV block leading to escape beats –> ventricular tachyarrhythmia
  • hyperkalemia
  • fatigue, blurry vision, changes in color perception, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, ab pain, HA, dizziness, delerium
29
Q

characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, and oral and intestinal mucosal neuromas

A

MEN2B

30
Q

what is MEN2A associated with that MEN2B is not?

A

MEN2A is associated with parathyroid hyperplasia

31
Q

delayed type hypersensitivity reactions (DTH)

A

examples: contact dermatitis, granulomatous inflammation, TB skin test, candida extract skin reaction

mediated by Th1-lymphocytes that release IFN-gamma to cause recruitment and stimulation of macrophages

take days to reach their peak activity