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Airbus A320 > Block 4 > Flashcards

Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following does NOT have a fire extinguisher system installed?

A

The Avionics Compartment

- Avionics has a smoke DETECTION feature, but not a fire extinguishing system

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2
Q

Name 3 systems that have fire extinguishing systems installed?

A
  1. Cargo Compartments
  2. Engines
  3. APU
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3
Q

Which statement is true regarding cargo compartment fire extinguishing?

A

There are 2 halon bottles which can be discharged into either cargo compartments

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4
Q

Which statement accurately describes each engine’s dedicated fire detection system?

A
  1. The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops detect a heat rise
  2. The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if one fire detection loop detects a heat rise and the other is determined to be faulted
  3. The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops fail with a few seconds of each other
    (all of the above)
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5
Q

The illumination SQUIB lights for engine 1 on this FIRE Panel indicate: (AGENT 1 pb has “SQUIB” illuminated in white, ENG 1 “FIRE PUSH” illuminated black letters and red background)

A
  • Both squibs for two halon bottles are armed

This indicated that you have already pushed the ENG 1 FIRE pb which has armed the squibs for the two halon bottles

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6
Q

The illuminated SQUIB lights for engine 1 on this FIRE Panel indicate that: (AGENT 1 pb has “SQUIB” illuminated in white and “DISCH” illuminated in Amber, and ENG 1 “FIRE PUSH” illuminated black letters and red background)

A

The #1 halon bottle has been discharged and its depressurized

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7
Q

Which statement accurately describes the APU fire detection and protection system?

A

The APU is equipped with two (2) detection loops that sense a heat rise and one (1) halon bottle

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8
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection its provided by:

A

Particulate sensing smoke detectors, located in both cargo compartments!

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9
Q

The lavatory smoke detection system:

A

Provides indications in both the flight deck and cabin that smoke has been detected in the lavatory, with the specific lavatory identified in the cabin

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10
Q

Which indications appear in the flight deck after an APU fire has been extinguished on the GROUND?

A

The APU FIRE pb light is NOT illuminated, but the AGENT DISCH light is

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11
Q

What is correct regarding engine anti-ice?

A

Only the leading edge of the ENGINE NACELLES are anti-iced

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12
Q

True or False: Engine icing conditions exist when the OAT is 10 deg C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals)

A

TRUE
OAT (not TAT)
10 deg C (not 15)

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13
Q

True or False: Engine bleed air must be selected “on” to use engine anti-ice.

A

FALSE

  • Each engine has its own independent bleed air source for providing engine anti-ice
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14
Q

While in the emergency electrical configuration, how will the engine anti-ice valves respond?

A

The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically

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15
Q

When should wing anti-ice be selected ON?

A

It should be selected ON WHENEVER there is ANY indication of air frame ice accumulation

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16
Q

While in the emergency electrical configuration, the wing anti-ice valves on newer A320s:

A

Will continue to operate normally

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17
Q

What is the maximum speed for operating the windshield wipers?

A

230 knots

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18
Q

Based on this PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb, which statement is true?

A

Window and probe heat come on automatically after the first engine start

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19
Q

The FM is divided into five columns, in the following order:

A 
1 = autothrust mode
2 = vertical guidance
3 = lateral guidance
4 = approach status
5 = autoflight status
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20
Q

What color indicates an engaged mode on the FMA?

A

Green

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21
Q

According to column 5 of the FMA: “AP1, 1 FD - A/THR” illuminated in white

A

The FOs flight director is OFF

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22
Q

How would you reset the flight guidance modes after an aborted takeoff?

A

Cycle both FDs OFF then back ON

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23
Q

According to this indiction: “AP1, 1 FD 2, A/THR” are illuminated in white in column 5

A

Autopilot 1 is engaged

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24
Q

What is the preferred method of disengaging the autopilot?

A

By pressing the RED disconnect pb on a sidestick

25
Q

What is the active autothrust range with one engine inoperative?

A

Just above the idle stop up through and including, the MCT detent

26
Q

According to this indication: “THR CLB” illuminated in GREEN in column 1

A

Autothrust is active in a fixed mode of thrust

- “THR CLB” reflects a fixed mode of thrust - thrust output is fixed at CLB power, and airspeed is controlled by pitch

27
Q

What effect on the autothrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?

A

The autothrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position

28
Q

True or False: While airborne, if not previously engaged, HDG and V/S are the default engagement modes for the flight guidance system.

A

True

29
Q

Flight guidance comes in two types:

A

Managed Guidance

Selected Guidance

30
Q

Generally speaking, how is selected guidance achieved?

A

By momentarily PULLING (not pushing) the associated spring loaded knob on the FCU and setting the desired value

31
Q

According to this PFD, airspeed is currently: “SPEED” ?? is illuminated in GREEN in the first column. Idk if that has anything to do with it

A
  • Managed
  • There is no blue airspeed target on the airspeed tape, so the airspeed is managed. The aircraft is in the approach phase; with the aircraft configured at FAPS 1, and all autoflight systems engaged, the a/c automatically slows to the airspeed appropriate for the configuration
32
Q

How does Ground Speed Mini provide windshear protection?

A

Ground Speed Mini ensures a minimum ground speed is flown during an approach. It ensures that sudden changes in headwind do not result in the airspeed dropping below VAPP

33
Q

According to this FMA: “HDG illuminated in green and NAV illuminated in BLUE on 3rd column

A

The aircraft is in HDG, with NAV armed

34
Q

True or False: The LOC pb is used for LOC BC approaches?

A

True

35
Q

How can the SECOND NAV DATABASE be activated?

A

By selecting the adjacent Line Select Key

36
Q

How do the FMGCs “communicate” during normal operation?

A

Each FMGC performs its own (independent) computations, and they are synched by the Crosstalk BUS

37
Q

On a/c equipped with GPS, which configuration is primarily used for determining the a/c’s position?

A

3IRS/GPS

38
Q

True or False: If one IRS fails, the MIX IRSposition will be computed using an average of the other two operating IRS positions

A

FALSE - if any IRS fails each FMGC will use the associated IRU’s position

39
Q

How many DME channels can be used for radio position updating?

A

3 (not all 5)

40
Q

What does the display scratchpad message indicate? “NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” illuminated in amber/yellow on the bottom of the screen

A

The Estimated Position Error (EPE) has exceeded the Required Navigation Performance (RNP)

41
Q

Which does the highlighted symbol indicate? “ ← → “ illuminated in white in the top right hand corner of the screen

A

Means there is more than one page of data - USE THE ‘NEXT PAGE’ KEY

42
Q

What do the amber boxes indicate on the MCDU display?

A

That the info is REQUIRED for FMS operation

43
Q

To accomplish a Fast/Quick IRS alignment, the mode selectors should be selected to OFF then back to NAV within how many seconds?

A

5 seconds!

44
Q

Info from the ILS 1 receiver is sent to:

A

The CA’s PFD

The FO’s ND

45
Q

True or False: A NAVAID can be manually tuned by entering either the identifier or frequency into the RADIO NAV page

A

True

46
Q

How many independent supplemental O2 systems does the CRJ200 have?

A

2 (or 3)

47
Q

When will “OXY LOW PRESS” illuminate in the cockpit? 9CRJ 200)

A

If O2 bottle pressure falls below 1410 PSI

48
Q

What is the max PSI of the O2 bottles, and what is the PSI reduced to when received through the mask? (CRJ200)

A

1850 PSI

Down to 78 PSI

49
Q

How many methods are there to open the Panels and Drop O2 Masks on the CRJ200

A

Three (3) methods!

  1. Automatic
  2. Manual Selection of “PASS OXY”
  3. Manual use of tool
50
Q

In regards to the Pax O2 masks on the CRJ200, at what altitude will an automatic signal be sent to drop the masks?

A

14,000’ MSL

51
Q

If you want to Manually drop the Pax O2 masks on the CRJ200, what do you press?

A

The PASS OXY button so it illuminates white

52
Q

On the CRJ200 how many Portable O2 or “Walk Around” systems are installed?

A

2 (Two)

- Purpose is for medical supplements

53
Q

How many versions of the ELT are there on the CRJ200

A

2 (Two)

54
Q

How many Halon fire extinguisher are there on the CRJ200

A

3 (Three)

Takes 8-15 seconds to discharge

55
Q

How many Water fire extinguisher are there on the CRJ200

A

1

56
Q

How many Portable Breathing units/Equipment (PBE) aka “smoke hoods” are there on the CRJ200

A

3

57
Q

What does the CRJ200 have in the way of Life Vests?

A
  • 3 for Crew

- Seat cushions used for Pax

58
Q

How many possible exits on the CRJ200?

A
  • 1 Pax Door
  • 1 Galley Door
  • 2 Overwing Exits (at row 8)
  • 1 Crew Escape hatch

Airbus A320 (4 decks)

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