Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Airbus A320 > Block 2 > Flashcards

Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

You have just selected the APU MASTER SW pb to ON. You now select the APU START pb to ON. What 2 things will the ECB wait on before engaging the electric starter?

A

Th ECB will not engage the electric starter UNTIL

(1) The power-up self test is completed satisfactorily
(2) The air intake flap is fully open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The APU START pb has AVAIL illuminated, the STS page reads NW STRG DISC APU AVAIL and the APU page reads AVAIL These indications indicate that:

A

The APU has reached normal operating speed and is ready to provide electrical power and bleed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the ECB provide? (4) It provides monitoring of, and sequencing of….

A
  • APU N speed and EGT monitoring
  • Start and shut down sequencing
  • Bleed air output monitoring
  • FAULT monitoring and reporting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ambient air is routed to the APU compressor through an INTAKE FLAP. How is this mechanism driven/operated, and where is the flap located?

A

ELECTRICALLY operated intake flap (controlled by the ECB - not manually)
Located beneath the APU compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from:

A

The LEFT wing tank INNER cell, through the ENGINE 1 feed line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is true concerning the APU oil system, and when it will auto shutdown?

A

The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil PRESSURE, but does NOT shut it down for low oil QUANTITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Select the control that enables you to turn off the APU generator when the APU is operating

A

You would push the APU GEN pb so that “OFF” is illuminated in white on the ELEC control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

APU bleed air output is used for:

A

Engine starting, engine conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the APU fire detection and protection system equipped with?

A

The system is equipped with TWO HEAT DETECTION LOOPS and ONE Halon Bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When an APU fire occurs on the ground, what 3 things will occur?

A
  • The ECB automatically shuts down the APU
  • A red APU fire light illuminates on the External Power Panel near the nose gear and an external HORN, located at the nose gear, sounds
  • The APU Halon fire bottle is DISCHARGED automatically
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Radar malfunctions are displayed:

A

On the NDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intensity of the radar display is controlled by:

A

The outer ring of the ND brightness control knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: According to this ND, clear air turbulence is being detected along your flight path.

A

False!! You can not see CAT on you radar displays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With the GAIN selector in the AUTO position, you have selected a sensitivity level:

A

That is calibrated for optimum weather display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

With the TILT selector knob set to 0, the radar beam is pointed:

A

At the horizon as defined by the IRU 1 (NOT along the horizontal axis of the a/c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Areas of turbulence are only displayed up to __ NM

A

UP TO 40 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

With this GPWS panel configured as shown, which statement below is true? (picture of the GPWS Panel with the SYS pb illuminating “OFF”)

A

All 5 of the GPWS Basic Mode warnings are inhibited (Terrain category is NOT affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: You must make sure the loudspeakers are turned up loud enough so you can hear the aural GPWS warnings.

A

FALSE, GPWS warnings/indications are played at max volume always

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

You are flying at a low altitude. The GPWS is operating normally, and the TERR ON ND pb on your side of the flight deck is selected ON. You can determine from the ND that: (picture of the ND with all black radar return)

A

All terrain within the range selected on the ND is MORE THAN 2000’ BELOW your current altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is the Terrain Clearance Floor predictive or non-predictive? What does this mean to us?

A

NOT Predictive - meaning the a/c must actually PENETRATE the TCF to trigger a warning!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

You have the “TERR ON ND” pb selected to ON, and see red and amber solid radar returns of terrain on your ND, and hear “TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL UP.” this means that you are:

A

Within 30 seconds (vs 60 seconds) of hazardous terrain based upon your current flight path angle, track and speed relative to the terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to this ND: (picture showing 3 traffic returns: 1 solid white diamond indicating -09 @ your 9, 1 solid yellow circle indicating -08 @ your 11, and one solid red square indicating -06 @ your 2)

A

You have proximate traffic at 9 o’clock, a TA (Traffic Advisory) at 11 o’clock, and an RA (Resolution Advisory) at 2 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the different traffic symbol depictions you can see on your ND?

A

Solid white diamond = proximate traffic

Solid yellow circle = traffic advisory

Solid red square = resolution advisory

PROXIMATE traffic:
Within 1,200’ vertically and 6nm laterally, not considered a threat and displayed on the ND as a solid white diamond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which item causes a takeoff configuration warning when the thrust levers are placed to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground but does not cause a warning when the T.O CONFIG key is pressed after engine start?

A

Parking brake set to ON (would not be external doors since engine has started)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are 3 Exceptions (think a/c configuration) when testing the takeoff configuration warning:

A
  1. All external doors closed (only PRIOR to engine start)
  2. ENG FLEX TEMP NOT SET
  3. Parking brake NOT set
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Windshear warnings (which are provided by the FACs) function when the a/c is:

A
  • Below 1300’ AGL

- At FLAPS 1 or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the correct alerting priority in order of importance? (think about the 4 types of alerts)

A

Stall
Windshear
GPWS
TCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is required for the TCAS system to detect and avoid conflict traffic? (think a/c equipment)

A

Mode C Transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What guidance is given during a TA verse an RA warning?

A

RA will provide vertical guidance!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between Mode A and Mode C transponder?

A
  • Mode C = altitude reporting based off pressure altitude

- Mode A is strictly transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Terrain awareness display will appear on the what flight deck component? Is it manually or automatically turned on?
A
  • ND
  • Both
  • Manually turned on, otherwise it is automatically displayed if there is a terrain warning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: On board wx radar is instant (no delay/lag)

A

True!!

  • G1000 wx radar is NOT “on board”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Radar Attenuation?

A

When there is a super strong (red) radar return and behind it, there is no return, looking like it is clear. This is called a Radar SHADOW.
- Path ATTENUATION correction is a feature that will usually be shown as a bar on the display saying you should probably not fly in that region (even though there is no precip return)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do we turn our APU on?

A

Use the pbs on the mini APU Panel with the MASTER and START pbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An ADVISORY for cold soak (different than a limitation) means what to us?

A

You CAN TRY if above 8,000’ for more than 1 hour, but it may not work since its cold (no guarantee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

APU limitations:

  1. Normal ops: ____’
  2. Battery start ONLY: ____’
  3. Bleed air start: ____’
  4. Ground start: ____’
  5. Starting EGT: ___ deg C
  6. Max operating EGT: ___ deg C
  7. Max N speed: ___%
A
  1. 39,000’
  2. 25,000’
  3. 22,500’
  4. 14,500’
  5. 1090 deg C
  6. 675 deg C
  7. 107%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Does the APU have auto-shutdown features?

A 
Yes 
- Ground fire
- EGT over temp
- Overspeed
- No speed
- No acceleration
etc.
38
Q

What kind of output is the electrically driven Generator capable of?

A
  • Has the same power output as the engine driven generators
  • Capable of providing power to the entire system (ground or air)

On the ELEC Panel there is an APU GEN pb

39
Q

What operational situation would the crew use the APU? (normal and emergency)

A

Normal - Before engine start, or to power a/c for various ground ops

Emergency - one or more engine driven generators/engines have failed

40
Q

Can I start the APU all the way to the max certificated altitude?

A

No

41
Q

In the event of a fire - what actions will occur on my specific aircraft? (A320)

A

On the ground, the APU will auto shutdown, cuts off the fuel, the siren will sound and the fire bottle will deploy

42
Q

What impact does the ground operations (altitude) limit have on the a/c’s operation/dispatch?

A

The higher you are the thinner the air and the less effective the APU operation will be

43
Q

Review: What is attached to the AGB?

A

N2
FADEC alternator
Generator
Air Turbine Starter

44
Q

What is the traditional bypass ratio in a GTE?

A

80 air that bypasses, 20 that goes in the turbine for combustion

45
Q

What does Pneumatic air mean?

A

Pneumatic is just referring to high pressure air that is moving

46
Q

What is Viscosity?

A

Resistance to flow

47
Q

What happens if the oil filter gets clogged?

A

Bypass valve opens

48
Q

How many igniters are installed per engine?

A

2
- igniters become active during start sequence (air-SPARK-fuel) and we want spark BEFORE fuel is added (occurs at ~20%) to avoid huge fireball

49
Q

How many stages of compression are there?

A

14

4 low 10 high

50
Q

If we lose electrical power, will the engine quit?

A

No (obvi)

  • Fuel pumps still working, engine still running, alternator still turning, gearbox still spinning
51
Q

When would a compressor stall occur? (or engine flame out)

A

When you have turbulent airflow (not laminar) in the compressor
- Likely at higher AOAs

52
Q

What is attached to the AGB? (list 6 things)

A
  1. Oil pump
  2. Fuel pumps
  3. Fuel control unit
  4. FADEC alternator
  5. Hydraulic pump
  6. Engine driven Int drive generator
53
Q

Primary engine indications are displayed on the:

A
  • E/WD

secondary engine indications are displayed on the ENGINE and CRUISE pages

54
Q

The majority of the thrust is provided by: (in terms of airflow)

A

The airflow which ENTERS through the FAN, and BYPASSES the ENGINE CORE

55
Q

Items critical to engine operation that are driven by the accessory gearbox are the:

A
  • Engine oil pumps, fuel pumps and fuel control unit, and alternator dedicated to FADEC

(all of the above)

56
Q

Each engine is equipped with a two channel Full Authority Digital Engine Control, FADEC. If one channel fails:

A

The other channel is fully capable of operating the engine and providing all FADEC functions

57
Q

How is FADEC electrical power provided when a/c engine is on and off

A

The a/c’s Electrical System when the engine is NOT running, and by a dedicated engine driven ALTERNATOR when the engine IS running

58
Q

The ENGINE page appears automatically on the SD:

A
  • When you initiate engine start by moving the ENG MODE selector to IGN START
  • For certain engine malfunctions
  • When the parameters presented on the ENGINE page exceed preset limits

(All of the above)

59
Q

The CRANK position of the ENG MODE selector does what?

A
  • Does not allow ignition and fuel to be supplied to the engines
  • Is used in association with the ENG MAN START pbs to DRY crank the engines
60
Q

When engine manual start is used with the ENG MODE selector in the CRANK position, how must the ENG MAN START pb be configured

A

The ENG MAN START pb must be selected to off (lights out) to close engine’s start valve

61
Q

When an ENG MAN START pb is used with the ENG MASTER switch in the ON position:

A

The engine’s start valve will close automatically when N2 reaches 43%

62
Q

The arc appearing on the EPR indicator represents:

A

Current Thrust - Thrust Commanded

  • The difference between the current thrust output, and the thrust commanded by the auto-thrust system
63
Q

When you see an N2 indicator reading “N2% + 84.6” you know that: (+ is red, 84.6 is green)

A
  • The N2 has exceeded 100%

A red “+” indicates N2 has increased above 100%

64
Q

Engine oil is cooled by ____ before it is returned to the oil tank.

A

Air AND Fuel

65
Q

How can the LP (low pressure) fuel valve be controlled?

A
  • Respective ENG MASTER switch
    OR
  • Respective engine FIRE pb
66
Q

FADEC automatically activates continuous ignition, i.e. both igniters, in what situation? (4)

A
  1. Engine Interface Unit (EIU) fails
  2. Flameout is sensed
  3. Ignition delay (detected during an automatic ground start)
  4. Engine Anti-Ice is ON
67
Q

What accurately describes the engine starter limitations?

  • How long can each cycle be?
  • How long is the required rest period after each cycle?
  • What is the max number of cycles in a row, and how long must the cooling period be?
  • Limit of % N2 for starter engagement?
A

Each cycle (time period that starter is engaged) can last a max of TWO (2) minutes.

A TWENTY (20) second rest is required after each cycle.

After THREE (3) cycles in a row, there must be a FIFTEEN (15) minute cooling period.

The starter must not be allowed to engage above (TWENTY) 20% N2.

68
Q

The 3 idle modes that FADEC can command are:

A

Modulated Idle
Approach Idle
Reverse Idle

69
Q

Before allowing thrust reverser deployment, FADEC confirms that: (4)

A
  1. Thrust levers are in the reverse range
  2. Engine(s) is running
  3. Aircraft is on the ground
  4. Hydraulic pressure is available
70
Q

Prior to engine start, according to this ELEC Panel: (no lights are illuminated on the EXT PWR pb)

A

External power is not connected to the aircraft

71
Q

Prior to engine start, according to this ELEC Panel: (green “AVAIL” light is illuminated on the EXT PWR pb)

A

External power is connected to the a/c but NOT in use

  • “ON” = in use
72
Q

Prior to engine start, according to this ELEC Panel: (blue “ON” light is illuminated on the EXT PWR pb)

A

External power is connected and is powering the electrical system

73
Q

True or False: The APU Generator can power the entire electrical system by itself.

A

TRUE!

74
Q

Prior to engine start, based on these indications you know that: (green “AVAIL” light is illuminated on the EXT PWR pb)

A

The APU is powering the system because although external power is connected, it has not been selected ON for use

75
Q

To shut down the APU Generator, what pb do you push?

A

Select the “APU GEN” pb to have “OFF” illuminated in white!

  • APU GEN box on ELEC page display will replace numbers and readings to “OFF” message
76
Q

To avoid damage to the IDG disconnect mechanism the IDG pbs should:

A
  • Only be used when the respective engine is running

- Not be pressed for more than 3 seconds

77
Q

According to this ELEC page: (GEN 1 is indicating “OFF” in white (the number 1 is also white), and GEN 2 (amber) is indicating 0, 0, and XX)

A
  • GEN 1 is shut off with engine 1 running
  • GEN 2 is NOT energized because engine 2 is shut down
  • OFF = shut off, white 1 = engine running
  • Amber 2 = engine is shut down
78
Q

True or False: A single engine driven generator can power the entire electrical system?

A

True!

79
Q

What do you push/select to allow the AC Bus 2 to provide power to the AC ESS Bus?

A

Select the AC ESS FEED pb so that “ALTN” is illuminated in white

80
Q

The AC and DC Ground/Flight Busses can be powered for ground servicing without energizing the entire system: (3)

A
  1. When external power is connected to the a/c
  2. When the MAINT BUS switch on the ceiling panel aft of the flight deck is selected to ON
  3. When external power is not selected to ON in the flight deck
81
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the AC power priority to the AC Bus 1 exercised by the Bus tie? (4)

A
  1. GEN 1
  2. External Power
  3. APU GEN
  4. GEN 2
82
Q

The BUS TIE pb: (3)

A
  1. Should only be used when directed by the ECAM
  2. Can be used to keep the APU GEN and external power from powering the electrical system
  3. Can be used to keep a single engine driven generator from powering the entire electrical system
83
Q

With the GALLEY and CAB pb in its normal (lights out) position, the main power supply to the high load ovens will shed if:

A

A single generator is powering the system in flight, or a single engine driven generator only is powering on the ground

84
Q

Under normal operating conditions DC power is supplied by:

A

TR 1 and TR 2

85
Q

According to this ELEC page, is the DC ESS SHED Bus being powered?? (“ESS TR” with “^” arrow is illuminated in white below “DC ESS” in green)

A

YES

86
Q

According to this ELE page what is the status of BAT 1, DC BAT and BAT 2? (there is a green line connecting “BAT 2” and “DC BAT” with a green arrow connecting/pointing from “DC BAT” to “BAT 1”

BAT 1

A
  • BAT 1 is being charged by the DC BAT Bus

- BAT 2 is connected to the DC BAT Cus with NEGLIGIBLE current flow

87
Q

The emergency generator is powered by:

A

A hydraulic motor, which is powered by the Blue hydraulic system, which is pressurized by a Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

88
Q

The static inverter enables:

The static interter automatically activates in the:

A
  1. Enables BAT 1 to power the AC ESS Bus

2. Automatically activates in the emergency electrical configuration when the a/c slows below 100 knots after landing

89
Q

Which circuit breaker, that when tripped or pulled, will generate an ECAM “C/B TRIPPED” message?

A

Green circuit breakers!

They are monitored by the Flight Warning Computers. If tripped or pulled, an ECAM failure message appears

90
Q

How can the HP (high pressure) fuel valve be controlled?

A
  • ENG MASTER switch
91
Q

Is there mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?

A

No

- Thrust lever signals are sent electronically to the FADEC

Airbus A320 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions